

Human Neuroscience Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Human Neuroscience is an interdisciplinary course that explores the structure and function of the human nervous system, focusing on how neural processes give rise to perception, cognition, emotion, and behavior. This course covers foundational topics such as neuroanatomy, neurophysiology, neural communication, and sensory and motor systems, as well as advanced concepts including brain plasticity, neurodevelopment, and the neural basis of psychiatric and neurological disorders. Through lectures, discussions, and laboratory activities, students gain a comprehensive understanding of current research methods and technologies in neuroscience, and learn how discoveries in the field contribute to medical, psychological, and technological advancements.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Behavioral Neuroscience 9th Edition by Neil R. Carlson
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1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Origins of Behavioral Neuroscience
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109 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of generalization is the explanation of gravitation in terms of forces and subatomic particles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Discuss evidence that suggests consciousness is a physiological function.
Answer: Consciousness appears to be localized to discrete circuits and to allow us to more readily adapt to new environments.Brain damage can alter consciousness,as in the case of the "split-brain" syndrome.
Q3) Surgical transection of the corpus callosum is intended to
A) reduce swelling of the brain in hydroencephalus.
B) alter long-term memory of traumatic events.
C) promote the development of the frontal lobes.
D) reduce the severity of epileptic seizures.
E) prevent the development of Parkinson's disease.
Answer: D
Q4) Discuss a role that mutations play in the process of natural selection.
Answer: Mutations may result in a favorable state which will help an organism adapt to its environment.
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Chapter 2: Structure and Functions of Cells of the Nervous System
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126 Verified Questions
126 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opening a chloride channel will neutralize an EPSP.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The myelin sheath around an axon in the brain is formed by oligodendrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following events restores the membrane potential from the peak of the action potential back to the resting level?
A) Sodium ions move into the cell.
B) Potassium ions move out of the cell.
C) Potassium ions move into the cell.
D) Chloride ions move into the cell.
E) Chloride ions are extruded from the cell.
Answer: B
Q4) The blood-brain barrier is formed by astrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Structure of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another term for caudal is
A) inferior.
B) superior.
C) anterior.
D) lateral.
E) posterior.
Answer: E
Q2) If structure X is caudal to structure Y,this means that X is behind Y.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) CSF is reabsorbed into the blood supply via the A) subarachnoid space.
B) choroid plexus.
C) foramen of Magendie.
D) nodes of Ranvier.
E) cerebral aqueduct.
Answer: A
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5

Chapter 4: Psychopharmacology
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127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the synthesis of dopamine and diagram the postsynaptic dopamine receptor subtypes.Identify the most common dopamine agonists and antagonists and describe their mechanisms of action.
Q2) Damage to which cholinergic system would be expected to impair learning?
A) dorsolateral pons ACh system
B) hypothalamocortical ACh system
C) basal forebrain ACh system
D) medial septal ACh system
E) corticospinal ACh system
Q3) Administration of a drug that blocks acetylcholinesterase in the brain would be expected to
A) permanently damage brain cholinergic neurons.
B) decrease the amount of acetylcholine in the synapse.
C) increase the amount of acetylcholine in the synapse.
D) alter the activity of the cholinergic autoreceptor.
E) reduce the rate of reuptake of ACh into glial cells.
Q4) Neuropeptides are removed from the synapse by membrane transporters.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast drug tolerance with drug sensitization.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Methods and Strategies of Research
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which chemical is used to trace afferent axons?
A) formalin
B) cresyl violet
C) methylene blue
D) fluorogold
E) PHA-L
Q2) The pseudorabies virus is useful
A) for the tracing of efferent fibers.
B) for the tracing of afferent fibers.
C) because it labels cells that have died from overstimulation.
D) for the tracing of serial synaptic connections.
E) in that this virus only affects nerve cells outside the brain and spinal cord.
Q3) Large doses of excitotoxic chemicals kill neurons by stimulating them to death,whereas lower doses stimulate neurons without killing them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Give an overview of stereotaxic surgery for the purpose of implanting a cannula into the brain.
Q5) Explain how a sample brain is processed during the histology process.
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Chapter 6: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ cell is interposed in the pathway between the photoreceptors and the ganglion cells.
A) multipolar
B) horizontal
C) bipolar
D) amacrine
E) unipolar
Q2) Which of the following is true of the process of sensory transduction?
A) Transduction refers to the speed at which a sensory message travels toward the brain.
B) An external energy induces changes in muscle fiber contractions.
C) The intensity of an external stimulus is related to the firing rate of the receptor.
D) Most receptors show an action potential when stimulated with an external stimulus.
E) Sensory cell receptor potentials directly control the release of neurotransmitters.
Q3) Explain what is involved in the process of sensory transduction.
Q4) Define and explain what is meant by agnosia.
Q5) Describe the primary visual pathway.
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8
Chapter 7: Audition, the Body Senses, and the Chemical
Senses
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124 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The long-term emotional component of chronic pain is mediated by pathways that A) involve the hypothalamus.
B) project from the spinal cord to the primary somatosensory cortex.
C) reach the anterior cingulate cortex and the insular cortex.
D) project to the prefrontal cortex.
E) reach the parietal cortex.
Q2) Which of the following is true of rate coding along the basilar membrane?
A) Rate coding occurs for frequencies greater than 500 Hz.
B) The basal end of the basilar membrane shows the greatest movement to a frequency of less than 200 Hz.
C) Lower frequencies are coded by rate of firing that is cued to the movement of the apical end of the basilar membrane.
D) Cochlear implants can be used to signal frequencies up to 20,000 Hz.
E) Rate coding is due to volleys of neurons that fire in sequence.
Q3) The somatosenses include all but the
A) receptors positioned within the skin.
B) stretch receptors in skeletal muscle.
C) receptors located within limb joints.
D) hair cells within the cochlea.
E) free nerve endings in the skin.

Page 9
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Chapter 8: Sleep and Biological Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mallard duck is unique in that
A) it does not sleep.
B) they can sleep with one hemisphere awake and the other asleep.
C) eye movements do not occur during their sleep.
D) slow-wave sleep is absent from their sleep pattern.
E) these ducks sleep with both eyes wide open.
Q2) Explain why it is unlikely that the sleep-wake cycle is controlled by a blood-borne chemical factor.
Q3) The transition between wakefulness and sleep is marked by the appearance of ________ waves in the sleep record.
A) alpha
B) delta
C) gamma
D) theta
E) beta
Q4) Explain why it is said that the brain is active during sleep.
Q5) Describe the symptoms of narcolepsy.
Q6) REM sleep behavioral disorder is another name for sleepwalking.
A)True
B)False

Page 10
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Chapter 9: Reproductive Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the sex chromosomes?
A) The Y chromosome controls the development of the male sex glands.
B) The Y chromosome contains the blueprints for male fetus development.
C) The Y chromosome contains the blueprints for the female fetus.
D) The mother donates her Y chromosome to form a female fetus.
E) The sex chromosomes are the largest among the 23 pairs.
Q2) The difference between an organizational hormone effect and an activational hormone effect is that
A) organizational effects only occur in the brain.
B) organizational effects are permanent.
C) organizational effects only occur during adulthood.
D) activational effects are mediated by receptors, whereas organizational effects are due to changes in neurotransmitter secretion.
E) activational effects are permanent.
Q3) Heredity does not contribute to human sexual orientation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the behaviors that comprise maternal behavior.
Q5) Differentiate between primary and secondary sex characteristics.
Q6) Describe the circuits that govern rodent female sexual behavior.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Emotion
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A general function of the prefrontal cortex may be to A) induce homicidal rage.
B) guide the planning of motor acts.
C) promote sexual arousal.
D) dampen or inhibit emotional reactions.
E) generate rage and anger.
Q2) Describe evidence supporting the involvement of the amygdala in emotional behavior.
Q3) A key function of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex may be to
A) activate the PAG.
B) inhibit the hypothalamus.
C) inhibit aggressive behavior.
D) activate the amygdala.
E) facilitate aggressive behavior.
Q4) Seizures that involve the left hemisphere are more likely to induce emotional difficulties than cognitive difficulties.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Defend the proposition that emotional expressions are innate.
Q6) Describe the types of emotional stimuli that activate cells within the amygdala.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Ingestive Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experiments by Deutsch and colleagues allowed rats to eat until they were satiated and then withdrew a few milliliters of diet from their stomach using an implanted catheter.After the withdrawal,the rats
A) ate until they became obese.
B) reported no hunger pangs.
C) showed evidence of continued short-term satiety.
D) experienced periodic feelings of hunger.
E) ate enough food to replace that withdrawn from the stomach.
Q2) The obsession with food noted in anorexia may be related to
A) elevated levels of CCK in the brain.
B) a deficiency of NPY in the brain.
C) elevated levels of NPY in the brain.
D) excessive consumption of protein, which is highly satiating.
E) a failure of menstruation brought on by excessive exercise.
Q3) A key effect of ghrelin that results in the stimulation of eating is to
A) cause the stomach to release less ghrelin.
B) activate CCK receptors in the brain.
C) activate NPY neurons within the hypothalamus.
D) decrease the release of NPY in the hypothalamus.
E) increase the entry of insulin into the brain.
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Chapter 12: Learning and Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intense electrical stimulation of axons within the hippocampal formation results in
A) long-term potentiation of postsynaptic neurons.
B) axoaxonic inhibition of presynaptic neurons.
C) recurrent inhibition of the stimulated axons.
D) long-term potentiation of presynaptic neurons.
E) "synaptic fatigue."
Q2) Damage to the caudate nucleus/putamen in monkeys would be expected to A) impair spatial memory.
B) promote the formation of new motor memories.
C) impair the acquisition of a stimulus-response relationship.
D) impair instrumental conditioning.
E) impair episodic memory.
Q3) Transcortical connections between the sensory association cortex and the motor association cortex are involved in A) conditioned emotional responses.
B) sensory memory.
C) the acquisition of simple behaviors by observation.
D) the acquisition of episodic memory.
Q4) Explain the distinction between declarative and nondeclarative memory.
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Chapter 13: Human Communication
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with pure anomia aphasia have difficulty in
A) repeating words.
B) producing fluent speech.
C) comprehension.
D) choosing the correct words to express an idea.
E) repeating nonwords.
Q2) ________ refers to a deficit in ________.
A) Direct dysgraphia; phonetically based reading
B) Direct dyslexia; phonetically based reading
C) Phonological dysgraphia; visually based writing
D) Semantic dysgraphia; symbol recognition
E) Orthographic dysgraphia; visually based writing
Q3) ______ reflects a(n)______ in the production or comprehension of speech.
A) Agraphia; deficit
B) Aphasia; enhancement
C) Alexia; enhancement
D) Aphasia; deficit
Q4) Describe the changes in speech production that accompany Broca's aphasia.
Q5) Define the elements of prosody and cite evidence which suggests that prosody is a function of the right hemisphere.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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113 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important cause of multiple sclerosis involves
A) a lack of an enzyme needed for myelinization.
B) the formation of neurofibrillary tangles.
C) the conversion of MPTP to MPP+.
D) damage to myelin induced by the person's immune system.
E) low levels of the ?-amyloid protein.
Q2) The seizure disorder suffered by Mrs R.in the chapter prologue was treated by
A) administration of tPa.
B) removal of a benign tumor from her brain.
C) administration of antiseizure medication.
D) removal of a malignant tumor from her brain.
E) electrical stimulation of her subthalamus.
Q3) The term dementia refers to
A) impaired cell functioning caused by viral toxins.
B) deterioration of intellectual abilities caused by an organic brain disorder.
C) the appearance of hallucinations and delusions.
D) demyelinization by autoimmune responses.
E) loss of neurons in the cerebral cortex and cells surrounding the third ventricle.
Q4) Differentiate between a benign and a malignant tumor.
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Chapter 15: Schizophrenia, Affective Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the seasonality effect suggest about the causation of schizophrenia?
Q2) Which of the following is true of trichotillomania?
A) It can be treated by ketamine.
B) It involves intense sadness.
C) It is a symptom of depression..
D) It is a compulsive behavior.
E) It is an example of a seasonal disorder.
Q3) The monoamine hypothesis of depression is NOT supported by the observation that A) monoamine antagonists produce depression.
B) CSF levels of 5-HIAA are low in suicidal patients.
C) monoamine agonists produce depression.
D) families of subjects with low 5-HIAA levels were more likely to include people with depression.
E) reserpine causes depression.
Q4) Explain why clozapine is considered to be an "atypical" antipsychotic medication.
Q5) Explain the rationale used for sleep deprivation as a treatment for depression.
Q6) Women are more likely to suffer from unipolar depression than are men.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Autistic, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity, Stress, and Substance Abuse Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "high" produced by ________ can be blocked by ________.
A) cocaine; dopamine autoreceptor agonists
B) alcohol; CB? receptor agonists
C) marijuana; CB? receptor antagonists
D) alcohol; GABAA receptor agonists
E) marijuana; GABAA receptor agonists
Q2) Which drug below is useful for the treatment of alcoholism?
A) methyl alcohol
B) Demerol
C) nicotine
D) naltrexone
E) codeine
Q3) Boys are about ten times more likely than girls to receive a diagnosis of ADHD.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There is direct evidence that stress can result in poor immune functioning and increased rates of disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the addictive potential of cocaine in humans.
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