Human Microbiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Human Microbiology explores the complex interactions between humans and microorganisms, focusing on the roles these microscopic entities play in both health and disease. The course covers fundamental topics such as microbial cell structure, physiology, genetics, and the classification of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa relevant to human biology. Students will examine the mechanisms of microbial pathogenesis, the human immune response, antimicrobial agents, and emerging infectious diseases. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques for the identification and study of microbes, as well as applications in clinical and public health settings. This course provides a foundational understanding necessary for further studies in biomedical sciences, healthcare, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Cowan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of ______.
A) biotechnology
B) bioremediation
C) decomposition
D) epidemiology
E) immunology
Answer: B
Q2) Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right).
A) Class, phylum, order
B) Family, genus, species
C) Kingdom, domain, phylum
D) Family, order, class
E) Genus, species, family
Answer: B
Q3) Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of the same kingdom.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur (S)atom? Its atomic number is 16.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Answer: B
Q2) Substances that release ions when dissolved in water and conduct electricity are ______.
A) covalent
B) solvents
C) nonpolar
D) electrons
E) electrolytes
Answer: E
Q3) Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A differential interference contrast microscope uses dyes to give colored,three-dimensional images.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes the sexually-transmitted infection gonorrhea.Although it can be isolated from the vagina,there are numerous normal biota in that location as well.To generate a pure culture of this pathogenic bacterium,the best choice is a(n)______.
A) differential medium
B) enrichment medium
C) selective medium
D) liquid medium
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of sporangium formation and endospore maturation requires 6-8 hours.What is most likely to result if the temperature of the environment was raised to 100°C about 2 hours after the process started?
A) The chromosome in the endospore would likely carry mutations.
B) The endospore would form more slowly and be heat resistant.
C) The endospore would form properly but would be unable to germinate.
D) The organism would be termed a hyperthermophile.
E) The endospore would not form properly because it is not yet heat resistant.
Q2) The short,numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called ______.
A) periplasmic flagella (axial filaments)
B) flagella
C) fimbriae
D) cilia
E) pili
Q3) The region between the bacterial cell membrane and the cell wall is called the outer membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nuclear envelope is a single lipid layer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The size of a eukaryotic ribosome is ______.
A) 40S
B) 70S
C) 50S
D) 80S
E) 30S
Q3) All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants or animals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) You are observing an organism under the microscope and you note that it has a cell wall,no chloroplasts,and a nucleus.Your prediction would be that this organism is a(n)______.
A) alga
B) protozoan
C) bacterium
D) fungus
E) virus
Page 7
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except
A) gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane.
B) gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane.
C) contain special virus proteins.
D) help the virus particle attach to host cells.
E) located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
Q2) Cells grown in culture form a/an ______.
A) monolayer
B) bilayer
C) aggregate
D) plaque
Q3) Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is
A) caused by a chronic latent virus.
B) initiated by an oncogenic virus.
C) caused by a viroid.
D) a spongiform encephalopathy of humans.
E) also called "mad cow disease."
Q4) Spikes are glycoproteins that can be found projecting from the viral capsid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called a(n)______.
A) psychrophile
B) extremophile
C) facultative psychrophile
D) thermophile
E) thermoduric microbe
Q2) After binary fission,daughter cells will differ genetically.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Microorganisms that live in severe habitats,such as very hot,acidic,or salty environments,are called ______.
A) halophiles
B) thermophiles
C) psychrophiles
D) barophiles
E) extremophiles
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?
A) They occur in thylakoid membranes.
B) They generate NADPH.
C) They generate glucose from CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O.
D) The photons cause magnesium to release electrons.
E) ATP is generated by a chemiosmotic mechanism.
Q2) FAD,NADP,NAD,and coenzyme A are all carriers of ________.
A) hydrogens
B) electrons
C) ATP
D) Both hydrogens and electrons are correct.
Q3) The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is ______.
A) in mitochondria
B) within the cell membrane
C) in lysosomes
D) in cytoplasm
E) outside of the cell
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bacteria,initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The fundamental difference between an organism's genotype and its phenotype is that
A) the phenotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the genotype represents only the genetic material that is expressed into proteins.
B) the genotype refers to the organism's genes and the phenotype refers to the non-coding segments of DNA.
C) the genotype refers to eukaryotic genes that contain both introns and exons, whereas phenotype refers to bacterial DNA that has only exons.
D) the genotype refers to all of the genetic material in the organism, whereas the phenotype represents only the genetic material that is expressed into proteins.
Q3) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and its subsequent transfer into the genome of another organism is a specific technique called ______.
A) genetic engineering
B) biotechnology
C) recombinant DNA technology
D) gel electrophoresis
E) gene probe technology
Q2) The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is ______.
A) endonuclease
B) ligase
C) reverse transcriptase
D) helicase
Q3) Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called ______.
A) codons
B) palindromes
C) introns
D) exons
E) genes
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms and debris to reduce contamination to safe levels is termed ______.
A) antisepsis
B) disinfection
C) sterilization
D) decontamination
E) sanitization
Q2) Antimicrobial agents can target the cell wall by
A) blocking its synthesis.
B) digesting it.
C) denaturing proteins.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) All of the following are alkylating control agents except ______.
A) iodophor
B) propylene oxide
C) formaldehyde
D) ethylene oxide
E) glutaraldehyde
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are fewer antifungal,antiprotozoan,and antihelminthic drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi,protozoa,and helminths
A) do not cause many human infections.
B) are not affected by antimicrobials.
C) are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult to achieve.
D) are parasites found inside human cells.
E) have fewer target sites in their cells compared to bacteria.
Q2) An ideal antimicrobial therapeutic drug exhibits all of the following characteristics,except
A) they are nontoxic to host.
B) they are easily broken down by host.
C) they are easily administered.
D) they have limited capacity to elicit resistance.
E) they are nonallergenic.
Q3) Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal biota often cause ______.
A) nephrotoxicity
B) superinfections
C) allergic reactions
D) drug toxicity
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prevalence rate of tuberculosis in one particular county in Texas is 7/1000 people,while the incidence rate for 2011 is 2/1000 people.Analyze this data and summarize the situation.
A) The data were collected incorrectly because the two values should match.
B) Incidence rate should really be higher than prevalence rate because it includes all new cases for the year.
C) Prevalence rate is higher than incidence rate because the number of people still alive with tuberculosis is higher because of better treatments.
D) Prevalence rate and incidence rate cannot be determined for the same disease.
Q2) Which of the following is the endotoxin?
A) Hemolysin
B) Hyaluronidase
C) Streptokinase
D) Collagenase
E) Lipopolysaccharide
Q3) A pathologic state begins with contact with a microbe.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following are benefits of fever except
A) it increases the availability of iron.
B) it increases metabolism.
C) it stimulates hematopoiesis.
D) it increases phagocytosis.
E) it reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply.
Q2) The production of interferon will protect the host cell from a viral infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are physical barriers to pathogens,except ______.
A) hairs
B) T cells
C) unbroken skin
D) mucous
E) tears
Q4) Plasma cells
A) are derived from T lymphocytes.
B) function in cell-mediated immunity.
C) function in blood clotting.
D) produce and secrete antibodies.
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) One plasma cell will secrete antibodies of various classes,but the antibodies will all have the same specificity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus,saliva,colostrum,and other body secretions is ______.
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgD
D) IgA
E) IgE
Q3) After secreting antibodies during an immune response,plasma cells then differentiate into memory cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Clonal selection requires the presence of foreign antigens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when
A) fetal Rh- cells enter an Rh<sup>+</sup> mother.
B) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother.
C) maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- fetus.
D) fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh- mother.
E) maternal Rh- cells enter an Rh+ fetus.
Q2) A second encounter with an allergen that causes a response is called the _____ dose.
A) sensitizing
B) provocative
C) allergic
D) hypersensitivity
E) desensitizing
Q3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Food allergy - type I hypersensitivity
B) Poison ivy dermatitis - type IV hypersensitivity
C) Transfusion reaction - type II hypersensitivity
D) Hay fever - type IV hypersensitivity
E) Serum sickness - type III hypersensitivity
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Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) In vivo testing is useful for diagnosing ______.
A) hepatitis A
B) HIV
C) tuberculosis
D) whooping cough
E) rubella
Q2) Direct antigen testing differs from direct fluorescence testing in that the results
A) require an electron microscope.
B) are less accurate.
C) are more accurate.
D) require specialized equipment.
E) are read with the naked eye.
Q3) Titer is the amount of _____ in serum.
A) antibody
B) antigen
C) WBC
D) memory cells
E) complement
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of measles?
A) It causes cell membranes to fuse to form syncytia.
B) Its causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus.
C) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets.
D) It is a single-stranded nonenveloped RNA virus.
E) It is in the Paramyxovirus family.
Q2) Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following infections except ______.
A) scalded skin syndrome
B) impetigo
C) erysipelas
D) necrotizing fasciitis
E) scarlet fever
Q3) Human herpesvirus 3 (HHV-3)
A) uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry.
B) becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes.
C) has humans as its reservoir.
D) causes chickenpox and shingles.
E) All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cell has phagocytic capabilities in the central nervous system?
A) Macrophages
B) Neurons
C) Astrocytes
D) Schwann cells
E) Microglial cells
Q2) African sleeping sickness is caused by ______.
A) Plasmodium falciparum
B) Trypanosoma brucei
C) Leishmania braziliensis
D) Toxoplasma gondii
E) Lyssavirus
Q3) Place the following components of the nervous system anatomy in order from skull to brain.
A) Pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater
B) Subarachnoid space, arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
C) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater
D) Arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater
E) Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid space
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) 84Following unprotected sex with a guy you met at a party,you are now worried about what you might have been exposed to during this episode.Ten days later,you talk to your doctor about getting an HIV test.What is the doctor's response?
A)HIV infection can be latent and asymptomatic for years,so testing should be postponed until you exhibit symptoms of AIDS.
B)The antibiotic that you have been taking for a urinary tract infection will also destroy HIV,so you don't have to worry about an infection.
C)It's too soon to detect the antibody produced by your immune system in response to HIV exposure,so a test will come back negative.Wait a few more weeks to be tested.
D)The incidence of HIV infection in the United States is at an all-time low level,so transmission was not at all likely,especially after only a single possible exposure.
Q2) Plague exhibits a
A) septic form historically called the Black Death.
B) bubonic form in which swollen lesions termed buboes develop.
C) pneumonic form that manifests as a respiratory disease.
D) All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except
A) scarlet fever
B) otitis media
C) rheumatic fever
D) glomerulonephritis
Q2) Tuberculin skin testing
A) involves the injection of PPD intradermally.
B) uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
C) will be positive if person has had previous exposure.
D) will be positive in active TB.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which of the following is/are the main causative agent/s of pharyngitis?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Aspergillus fumigatus
C) Viruses
D) Both Aspergillus fumigatus and viruses are correct.
E) Both Streptococcus pyogenes and viruses are correct.
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Escherichia coli infections
A) are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.
B) include EIEC that destroys gut mucosa.
C) involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
D) are self-limiting with the only treatment being rehydration.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The most dangerous outcome of a Taenia solium infection occurs when
A) cysticerci are ingested.
B) larvae enter the body through intact skin.
C) the host immune system fails to react against it.
D) eggs are ingested.
E) larvae cross the placenta.
Q3) Which of the following statements comparing Enterobius vermicularis and Diphyllobothrium latum is incorrect?
A)D.latum has fish as an intermediate host,whereas E.vermicularis has no intermediate host.
B)Both helminths affect primarily children.
C)Symptoms of both infections are mild.
D)E.vermicularis is best treated with mebendazole,whereas D.latum is susceptible to praziquantel.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) A health care provider who suspects that a woman may have vaginitis caused by Candida infection can confirm that by
A) plating a sample of the discharge on a medium containing salt as a selective agent.
B) identifying pseudohyphae in a Gram-stained smear examined using a light microscope.
C) identifying the characteristic protozoans in a smear examined using a fluorescence microscope.
D) submitting a sample of the discharge for PCR amplification.
E) submitting a sample of the discharge for metagenomic sequencing.
Q2) An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 infection is ______.
A) infertility
B) shingles
C) encephalitis
D) paralysis
E) kidney failure
Q3) Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted by sexual activity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) The major group of organisms that fix nitrogen into ammonia and then oxidize it to nitrate are ______.
A) bacteria
B) fungi
C) protozoa
D) algae
Q2) Plastic marine debris was collected from multiple sites in the ocean and examined with electron microscopy and next-generation sequencing.These techniques revealed microbial communities growing on the plastics.Which of the following statements is correct regarding these communities?
A) The community within the plastic must be very similar to the community in the surrounding ocean waters.
B) These communities are very likely to be pure cultures, as plastics have been synthesized precisely because they are resistant to microbial degradation.
C) There are no bacteriophage that use these microbes as hosts, as viruses are rare in marine ecosystems.
D) At least one member of the community must synthesize an enzyme to degrade the hydrocarbon comprising the plastic.
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water
Safety
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Q1) Analysis of a water sample by a series of presumptive,confirmatory,and completed tests that provide an estimate of coliform numbers in the water is called the ______.
A) membrane filter method
B) coliform count
C) most probable number (MPN)
D) standard plate count
Q2) The first stage in making vinegar involves fermentation by ______.
A) Gluconobacter
B) Pediococcus
C) Spirulina
D) Saccharomyces
E) Acetobacter
Q3) Which of the following is not a gas-forming microbe used to make bread?
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Coliform bacteria
C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D) Heterofermentative lactic acid bacteria
E) Streptococcus lactis
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