Human Behavior
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Human Behavior is an interdisciplinary course that explores the factors influencing how individuals and groups act, think, and feel in various environments. Drawing from psychology, sociology, anthropology, and biology, the course examines topics such as motivation, personality, emotion, learning, social interaction, and cultural influences. Students will analyze theories and research findings to better understand the complexity of human actions and mental processes, applying this knowledge to real-world contexts and personal experiences. The course aims to foster critical thinking about the determinants and implications of behavior in both individual and societal dimensions.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Psychology Gateways to Mind and Behavior 12th Edition by Dennis Coon
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Chapter 1: Introduction the Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding why students procrastinate, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A)Because students often equate grades with their personal worth, students who procrastinate can blame poor work on a late start, rather than a lack of ability.
B)Perfectionism is related to procrastinating, since it is hard to start an assignment if one expects the impossible.
C)Students with an all-or-nothing work habits often procrastinate.
D)All of these statements are true.
Answer: D
Q2) A(n) _____ listener is a person who knows how to maintain attention, avoid distractions, and skillfully gather information from class lectures.
A)active
B)experiential
C)compulsive
D)intuitive
Answer: A
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Chapter 1: Extension A: Introduction to Psychology and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to your psychology textbook, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding women in psychology?
A)By 1906 in America, only one psychologist in 50 was a woman.
B)In recent years nearly 75 percent of the college graduates with a major in psychology are women.
C)It was not until 1956 that a woman became president of the American Psychological Association for the first time.
D)Carol Gilligan was the first woman to be awarded a Ph.D.in psychology in 1894.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following notable events in psychology occurred FIRST?
A)The American Psychological Association was founded.
B)Sigmund Freud published The Interpretation of Dreams.
C)Carl Rogers published Counseling and Psychotherapy.
D)Ivan Pavlov reports his research on conditioned reflexes.
Answer: A
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Chapter 1: Extension B: Introduction to Psychology and Research Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) In one study, a saline injection was shown to be 70 percent as effective as morphine in reducing pain.This is an example of
A)a placebo effect.
B)physiological blocking.
C)the random-assignment effect.
D)a double-blind effect.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following groups serves as a point of reference for a comparison of results in an experiment?
A)independent group
B)experimental group
C)control group
D)dependent group
Answer: C
Q3) A _____ psychologist applies psychological principles to legal issues.
A)forensic
B)social
C)comparative
D)cognitive
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 1: Extension C: Introduction to Psychology and Research
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four goals of psychology are to describe, predict, understand, and ____________________.
Q2) In an experiment to determine whether the THC in marijuana impairs memory, the scores on the memory test would be the _____ variable.
A)independent
B)dependent
C)extraneous
D)control
Q3) Sigmund Freud's approach to psychotherapy is known as ____________________.
Q4) In the ____________________ section of a research report, one can find the specific procedures used to gather data during a study.
Q5) You are planning to recruit volunteers from among the students at a local university.If you accept both male and female volunteers, you should be aware that A)unequal numbers of men and women may volunteer for some kinds of research. B)combining the results from men and women may hide important male-female differences.
C)both of these situations may affect your results.
D)neither of these situations will have a significant effect on your results.
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Chapter 2: Extension A: Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding the workings of your nervous systems, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)The autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system work together to coordinate the body's internal reactions to events in the outside world.
B)Both branches of the autonomic nervous system are always active.
C)The autonomic nervous system is composed of billions of connector neurons.
D)The combined action of the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches determines if your body is more or less relaxed or aroused.
Q2) The soma is the part of the nerve cell that
A)transmits information to the next neuron.
B)collects and combines incoming information.
C)carries nerve impulses over large distances.
D)forms branching connections at the end of each axon.
Q3) Which of the following cells can repair itself if damaged?
A)a nerve cell in the central nervous system that is wrapped in myelin
B)a nerve cell in the brain
C)a nerve cell in the peripheral nervous system that is wrapped in neurilemma
D)a nerve cell in the spinal cord
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Chapter 2: Extension B: Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overactivity of the _____ gland leads to tenseness, nervousness, and excitability.
A)thymus
B)thyroid
C)hippocampus
D)cerebellum
Q2) The _____ is superior at language, computational math, and analytic thought.
A)right hemisphere
B)left hemisphere
C)midbrain
D)limbic system
Q3) The pineal gland releases a hormone called _____ which helps control _____.
A)endorphins; body pain
B)thyroxin; growth
C)testosterone; the male sex drive
D)melatonin; body rhythms and sleep cycles
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Chapter 2: Extension C: Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____________________ nervous system is called the "fight-or-flight" system because of its importance in responding to emotional events.
Q2) A critical link between the chemical and neural information systems in humans is the link between the hypothalamus and the ____________________ gland.
Q3) A combination of preference for using hand, foot, eye, and ear is referred to as A)sidedness.
B)neuroplasticity.
C)hemispherization.
D)preferential lateralization.
Q4) An action potential causes a release of dopamine from the _____ with dopamine being inactivated by a reuptake process in the _____ that removes it from the synaptic cleft.
A)dendritic receptor; dendritic receptor
B)axon terminal; axon terminal
C)dendritic receptor; axon terminal
D)axon terminal; dendritic receptor
Q5) The right and left hemispheres of the brain are connected by a bridge of nerve tissue called the ____________________.
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Chapter 3: Extension A: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joey's mother was amazed by her two-year-old son.He was a very friendly, agreeable child who always seemed to be relaxed and in a good mood.Thomas and Chess would describe Joey as a(n) _____ child.
A)easy
B)extroverted
C)positive
D)power assertive
Q2) _____ involves the development of self-awareness, attachment to parents and caregivers, and relationships with other children and adults.
A)Psycho-emotional
B)Social development
C)Bilateral determinism
D)Proximodistal development
Q3) Muscular control spreads in a pattern from head to toe, according to the A)zone of proximal development.
B)adaptive gradient.
C)cephalocaudal principle.
D)proximodistal principle.
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Chapter 3: Extension B: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following psychologists is known for developing a theory of moral development?
A)Lev Vygotsky
B)Erik Erikson
C)Lawrence Kohlberg
D)Daniel Levinson
Q2) Nat likes to "lay down the law" and takes no arguments from his children.According to the research on parenting styles by Diana Baumrind, Nat is exhibiting _____ parenting.
A)authoritative
B)authoritarian
C)overly permissive
D)legalistic
Q3) Regarding puberty, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Most people reach reproductive maturity in their early teens.
B)Most people reach social and intellectual maturity before they reach reproductive maturity.
C)High rates of teenage pregnancy and drug abuse may be due to adolescents' cognitive development being immature.
D)Puberty is a biological event, not a social status.
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Chapter 3: Extension C: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies suggest that the healthiest, happiest older people
A)are optimistic and have an interest in the future.
B)maintain a rapid reaction time.
C)are creative.
D)lack empathy.
Q2) Initiative is fostered by
A)giving a child the freedom to play, to use imagination, and to choose activities.
B)a child's experience with toilet training.
C)acquiring a stable and consistent identity.
D)learning a sense of industry.
Q3) Emily is a middle-aged woman who lives alone.Her income is secure and her life is comfortable.Still, she seems unhappy and without direction, possibly because she lacks A)autonomy.
B)disengagement.
C)generativity.
D)a sense of identity.
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Chapter 3: Extension D: Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain of a newborn baby has fewer dendrites and synapses than an adult brain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are about to start your first teaching job as a fourth grade teacher.Using Erikson's theory, describe the psychosocial dilemma that most of your students will be facing.
Q3) Within the nucleus of each sperm and each ovum, there are ____________________ chromosomes. or or
Q4) After reviewing many studies, psychologist Elizabeth Gershoff concluded that parents should minimize spanking or avoid it entirely.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to Chomsky, humans have a biological predisposition to develop language.
A)True B)False
Q6) Discrimination or prejudice on the basis of age is called
Page 13
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Chapter 4: Extension A: Sensation and Reality
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an approach called _____, sound waves or electromagnetic radiation are measured and related to dimensions of the resulting loudness or brightness we experience.
A)physiological psychology.
B)neurological psychology.
C)psychophysics.
D)sensory deprivation.
Q2) The function of the lens is to
A)locate an image.
B)focus an image on the retina.
C)combine the location and projection on the blind spot.
D)project an image on the cornea.
Q3) Hubel and Wiesel found that individual brain cells
A)respond to a variety of types of visual stimulation.
B)respond to a specific feature of a more complex image.
C)all fire at the same time "in a chorus" when presented with a visual image.
D)record and display images much like a digital camera..
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Chapter 4: Extension B: Sensation and Reality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding olfaction, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)In humans, about 1000 types of smell receptors are believed to exist.
B)Humans can detect at least 10,000 different odors.
C)The theory that explains olfaction is called the gate control theory.
D)Specific shapes of molecules have been found to produce different odors, such as floral, camphoric, musky, minty, and etherish.
Q2) With olfaction, the receptors respond primarily to
A)airborne molecules.
B)electromagnetic sensors.
C)sound waves.
D)gravity.
Q3) The differing smell qualities are
A)only divided into four basic categories: floral, musky, minty, and ethereal.
B)the result of a gate-control system that filters the various scents.
C)the result of molecules activating different combinations of odor receptors.
D)dependent on the gustatory sense to produce the many different odors.
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Chapter 5: Extension A: Perceiving the World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repetition of stimuli without variation leads to A)habituation.
B)selective attention.
C)divided attention.
D)hallucinations.
Q2) If you stand in the middle of a long, straight stretch of road, it appears as if the sides of the road meet near the horizon.since you known that the sides of the road are parallel, the distance implied is given by the pictorial depth cue of A)atmospheric perspective.
B)texture gradient.
C)light and shadow.
D)linear perspective.
Q3) The _____ believe that depth perception is learned. A)nativists
B)empiricists
C)humanists
D)structuralists
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Chapter 5: Extension B: Perceiving the World
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)_____ is a perceptual hypothesis that we are likely to apply to a stimulus, even if applying it is inappropriate.
A)dishabituation
B)perceptual expectancy
C)reality test
D)extrasensory perception
Q2) The illusion created by the Ames room occurs due the Gestalt principle of common region.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cold readings rely on which of the following?
A)uncritical acceptance
B)the Barnum effect
C)positive instances
D)all of these
Q4) The phrase we see what we believe refers to
A)perceptual illusions.
B)perceptional reconstruction.
C)sane hallucinations.
D)stereoscopic vision.
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Chapter 6: Extension A: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drowsiness one feels immediately before sleep would be characterized by somewhat larger and slower waves than when one was awake and alert.These slower waves are called _____ waves.
A)alpha
B)beta
C)delta
D)spindle
Q2) Which of the following persons is/are attempting to alter his or her state of consciousness?
A)A Navajo elder gives his congregation peyote tea, a sacrament in the Native American church.
B)A college student spends a day walking through the wilderness in a quiet state of mindfulness meditation.
C)An artist spends two hours in a floatation chamber to clear her head.
D)All of these persons are attempting to alter his or her state of consciousness.
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Chapter 6: Extension B: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Non-state theorists believe that hypnosis involves a blend of A)light sleep and waking consciousness.
B)heightened intuition and cognitive disassociation.
C)imagination, obedience and role-playing.
D)receptive meditation and sensory restriction.
Q2) Sheliah is trying to meditate.She repeats the soothing word "om" as necessary to maintain meditation.Sheliah is using A)dissociation.
B)inhibition.
C)a mantra.
D)a GHB.
Q3) Josh tells his roommate that he does not dream.His roommate, who is a psychology major should tell Josh that
A)if he does not dream, he will go "crazy."
B)most people dream four or five times a night.
C)dreams occur in such a "flash" that he was not aware of the dreams.
D)all of these statements are true.
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Chapter 6: Extension C: States of Consciousness
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Q1) Regarding methamphetamine usage, which of the following statements is/are TRUE?
A)Large doses of amphetamines can cause nausea, vomiting, extremely high blood pressure, fatal heart attacks, and disabling strokes.
B)Methamphetamine abusers typically go on binges lasting several days, after which they "crash" from lack of sleep and food.
C)Some users switch to injecting methamphetamine directly into the bloodstream.
D)All of these statements are true.
Q2) Regarding alcohol and women, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Alcohol is absorbed slower and metabolized more quickly by women's bodies.
B)Women get intoxicated from less alcohol than men do.
C)Women who drink are also more prone to liver disease, osteoporosis, and depression.
D)As few as three drinks a week may increase a woman's risk of breast cancer by 50 percent.
Q3) Rohypnol is
A)odorless and tasteless.
B)cheap and ten times more potent than Valium.
C)known as "roofies" on the street and has been used as a "date rape" drug.
D)characterized by all of these.
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Chapter 6: Extension D: States of Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Everyone experiences some altered states of consciousness every day.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Night terrors and sleepwalking occur during REM sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sleepwalkers have been known to play a musical instrument, drive a car, or cook while asleep.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Concerning altered states of consciousness, (a) describe characteristics of an altered state of consciousness, (b) describe some everyday situations in which people experience these altered states, and (c) describe the intentional uses and meanings of the altered states within another culture.
Q5) According to Freud, when several people, objects, or events are combined into a single dream image, the dream process of secondary elaboration has taken place.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the characteristics of the two major forms of meditation
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Chapter 7: Extension A: Conditioning and Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best way to differentiate operant conditioning from classical conditioning is to decide if the
A)response is voluntary or involuntary.
B)stimulus is conditioned or unconditioned.
C)consequence comes before or after the response.
D)response is pleasant or unpleasant.
Q2) In Pavlov's experiments with dogs, the conditioned stimulus was the A)food.
B)bell.
C)salivation to the food.
D)salivation to the bell.
Q3) The formation of simple connections among various stimuli and responses is referred to as _____ learning.
A)associative
B)insight
C)vicarious
D)cognitive
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Chapter 7: Extension B: Conditioning and Learning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Every time you give advice to a friend, she suddenly turns cold and distant.Lately, you've stopped offering her advice because giving your friend advice has been A)negatively reinforced.
B)punished.
C)classically conditioned.
D)affected by all of these.
Q2) After receiving a ticket for speeding, you stop speeding.The reason you stop speeding is due to A)positive reinforcement.
B)negative reinforcement.
C)punishment.
D)spontaneous recovery.
Q3) A(n) _____ reinforcer is a tangible secondary reinforcer, such as money, gold stars, and poker chips that can be exchanged for food, lodgings, and other necessities.
A)token
B)social
C)unconditioned
D)negative
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Chapter 7: Extension C: Conditioning and Learning
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Q1) Violent video games tend to make aggressive behavior more likely because
A)repeated exposure to violence sensitizes individuals, making them more likely to react negatively to violence.
B)practicing violence against other people, players may learn to be aggressive in real life.
C)the games arouse an innate aggressive instinct.
D)the games serve as a cathartic outlet for pent-up anger.
Q2) Punishment
A)tells a person or an animal that a response was "wrong."
B)tells a person or an animal what the "right" response is.
C)teaches new behaviors.
D)is described by all of these characteristics.
Q3) In a classic study of angry adolescent boys who were severely punished at home, it was found that
A)they continued to be aggressive at home and at school.
B)they continued to be aggressive at home, but not at school.
C)their misbehavior was suppressed at home, but they were aggressive at school.
D)their misbehavior and aggression were suppressed both at home and at school.
Q4) The ____________________ principle states that things that you like to do can act as rewards.
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Chapter 8: Extension A: Memory
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Q1) Remembering your locker combination by relating it to your parents' and sister's birthdates illustrates the use of
A)elaborative encoding.
B)constructive processing.
C)redintegration.
D)maintenance rehearsal.
Q2) When a person stores information through rote learning, they have utilized which of the following to the greatest extent?
A)elaborative encoding
B)maintenance rehearsal
C)chunking
D)the keyword method
Q3) _____ likely occurs when a new experience triggers the retrieval of a past experience without yielding any of the details.Thus, this new experience seems familiar even though the older memory is too weak to rise to the level of awareness.
A)Déjà vu
B)Eidetic imagery
C)Lucid dreaming
D)A sane hallucination
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Chapter 8: Extension B: Memory
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Q1) Marisa reads a short vignette about a deer wandering through a forest in her English class.Later that day, she was working the puzzle in the newspaper in which she was to unscramble the letters TARIL to form a word.The first answer that pops into her head was the word trail.Marisa's experience illustrates the power of A)chunking.
B)priming.
C)sensory memory.
D)eidetic imagery.
Q2) _____ is any stimulus associated with a particular memory and usually enhances retrieval.
A)Memory trace
B)Eidetic image
C)Memory cue
D)Morpheme
Q3) Failure to store sufficient information to form a useful memory is known as A)proactive interference.
B)retroactive interference.
C)repression.
D)encoding failure.
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Chapter 8: Extension C: Memory
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Q1) Tests of memory, based upon relearning use ____________________ scores to demonstrate retention of previous learned material.
Q2) The ____________________ theory of forgetting only seems to explain forgetting in sensory memory and short-term memory.
Q3) Information is initially converted into a form that can be retained.This conversion part of the memory process is known as ____________________.
Q4) Your anatomy teacher suggests that you memorize the sentence "On Old Olympus Towering Top a Famous Vocal German Viewed Some Hops" to remember the 12 cranial nerves since the first letter of each nerve corresponds to the first letter of each word in this nonsense sentence.This technique is an example of A)acrostics.
B)the serial position effect.
C)rote learning.
D)progressive-part learning.
Q5) The three processes involved in memory are maintenance, elaboration, and forgetting.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Extension A: Cognition, Language, Creativity, and Intelligence
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Q1) In _____, native speakers and children with limited English skills are taught part of the day in English and part in a second language.
A)English immersion programs
B)English as a second language programs
C)two-way bilingual education programs
D)all of these bilingual programs
Q2) The term "cognition" includes
A)thinking, problem solving, reasoning, and daydreaming.
B)classical and instrumental conditioning.
C)eidetic imagery and processing.
D)an active process by which sensory input is selected, organized, and integrated.
Q3) Chomsky believes that we do not learn all the sentences we might ever say, but rather we actively create them by applying _____ rules.
A)functional
B)transformation
C)disjunctive
D)generative
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Chapter 9: Extension B: Cognition, Language, Creativity, and Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A truck gets stuck under a bridge.Several tow trucks are unable to pull it out.At last a little boy walks up and asks the red-faced adults trying to free the truck why they haven't let the air out of the truck's tires.Their oversight was due to
A)divergent thinking.
B)functional incubation.
C)synesthesia.
D)fixation.
Q2) You are working on a group project with three other students, who appear to already be friends.You have some suggestions you would like to make, but decide to just follow the other members' ideas, because you do not believe your ideas would be accepted.This illustrates the _____ barrier to creative thinking.
A)emotional
B)cultural
C)learned
D)perceptual
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Chapter 9: Extension C: Cognition, Language, Creativity, and Intelligence
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Q1) According to Steven Johnson (2005), the aspects of contemporary culture that have been responsible for increasing intelligence include
A)the intense problem-solving required of video games.
B)the complexity of television dramas.
C)the Internet and computer software.
D)all of these.
Q2) An intellectual disability that does not have an organic cause and for which no biological problem can be identified is called a(n) _____ intellectual disability.
A)metabolic
B)familial
C)deprivational
D)organic
Q3) Items on _____ tests include items that require the student to match patterns or choose the figure that completes a sequence.
A)culture-fair
B)culture-free
C)multicultural
D)culturally-biased
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Chapter 9: Extension D: Cognition, Language, Creativity, and Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beliefs, such as "fantasy and playfulness are only for children," can interfere with problem-solving and are called ____________________ barriers to thinking.
Q2) According to Robert Sternberg, "street smarts," or ____________________ intelligence may be seen by minority cultures as more important than "book learning," or ____________________ intelligence.
Q3) Explain how video games, the Internet, and television may actually have increased the intelligence in Westernized nations.
Q4) To you "a vacation" means "sitting on a beach reading a book," which illustrates a(n) ____________________ meaning of "a vacation."
Q5) The job criteria states that you must have a master's degree or a B.S.degree and two years of supervisory experience; thus, the job criteria is a(n) ____________________ concept.
Q6) Explain how the Stanford-Binet (SB5) and Wechsler tests are similar to the Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) and how they are different.
Q7) If you take an IQ test today, the test examiner will convert your relative standing on this test for your age group to a(n) ____________________ IQ.
Page 31
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Chapter 10: Extension A: Motivation and Emotion
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250 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concept of _____ refers to the process of initiating, directing, sustaining, and terminating activities of the organism.
A)perception
B)motivation
C)emotion
D)learning
Q2) All of the following are means of achieving a successful weight loss program using behavioral dieting EXCEPT
A)learning to weaken personal eating cues.
B)using biofeedback techniques to break habitual eating.
C)counting calories.
D)exercise.
Q3) In the opening segment of Chapter 10, Robert has a condition in which he is unable to name his emotions.This condition is known as
A)alexithymia.
B)agnosia.
C)Wernicke's aphasia.
D)dysgraphia.
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32
Chapter 10: Extension B: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persons with a high need for _____ typically enjoy challenges and relish a chance to test their abilities, although they tend to excel without seeking riches.
A)achievement
B)affiliation
C)power
D)all of these
Q2) Joey has always lived by the motto "whatever is worth doing is worth doing well." In his job as a building contractor, Joey does his best no matter whether he is building a house for a multi-millionaire or donating his time to Habitat for Humanity.Joey is exhibiting a high need for A)achievement.
B)power.
C)affiliation.
D)all of these.
Q3) Persons who score low on Zuckerman's Sensation-Seeking Scale tend to A)enjoy the company of others.
B)be more likely to smoke.
C)prefer sour and crunchy foods.
D)report more sexual partners than high scores do.
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Page 33
Chapter 10: Extension C: Motivation and Emotion
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224 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding deaths due to the action of the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)In 1994, five times more people than usual died of heart attacks the day of the major earthquake in Los Angeles.
B)In times of war, combat can be so savage that some soldiers literally die of fear.
C)There have been no cases of deaths due to parasympathetic rebound in everyday life, outside situations involving catastrophes and war.
D)More heart patients in Asia die on the fourth day of the month due to the patients' fear of the number four, which is considered unlucky.
Q2) In body language, liking is communicated by
A)casual positioning of arms and legs.
B)leaning toward a person or object.
C)crossing the arms and legs.
D)staring.
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Chapter 10: Extension D: Motivation and Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bloom's study of top performers found their success was due mainly to their natural talent that emerged on its own.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to Maslow, _____________________ is the highest need and is at the top of his hierarchy of human motives. or
Q3) The ____________________ theory of emotion explains that emotions occur when physical arousal is labeled or interpreted on the basis of experience and situational cues. or or
Q4) Most college freshmen gain weight during the first semester they are away at college.Discuss four factors that contribute to this weight gain.
Q5) Since Jerry's main goal in life is to make lots of money, psychologists would describe Jerry as having a high need for achievement.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 11: Extension A: Gender and Sexuality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding sexual orientation, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Sexual behavior and romantic relationships are strongly influenced by a person's sexual orientation.
B)Sexual orientation is a superficial part of personal identity.
C)Sexual orientation is an unstable personal characteristic.
D)Sexual orientation and adjustment is an easy process for most who are homosexual.
Q2) According to Sandra Bem, a person who is cheerful, compassionate, loyal, independent, self-reliant, and assertive would be considered A)masculine.
B)feminine.
C)androgynous.
D)none of the above.
Q3) The gland located at the base of the urinary bladder that supplies most of the fluid that makes up semen is called the A)Cowper's gland.
B)vas deferens.
C)prostrate.
D)epididymis.
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Chapter 11: Extension B: Gender and Sexuality
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250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding rape, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Educating men about rape myths has been one of the most successful ways of preventing sexual assault.
B)Rape occurs every six minutes in the United States.
C)If a woman goes home with a man on a first day, she is interested in having sex.
D)Date rape is coercive, but not necessarily violent.
Q2) According to your text, in order for greater acceptance of sexuality to be constructive,
A)individuals must feel they have the right to say "no" to sex.
B)people must feel that they have choices regarding when, where, and how they will become sexually active.
C)sexual freedom needs to be combined with responsibility, caring, and commitment.
D)all of these must be true.
Q3) Studies of sexual arousal show that
A)women are more physically aroused by erotic stimuli than men are.
B)arousal has a large emotional element for women.
C)women are less physically responsive than men.
D)arousal requires physical stimulation of an erogenous zone.
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Chapter 11: Extension C: Gender and Sexuality
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Sample Questions
Q1) In females, ____________________ characteristics include breast development, broadening of the hips, and other changes in body shape.
Q2) Regarding female orgasmic disorder, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)It involves an inability to reach orgasm during lovemaking.
B)Women with this disorder are sexually responsive in some contexts, such as masturbation, but not in others, such as lovemaking.
C)It is usually regarded as the woman's problem, and her lack of responsiveness is the focus of treatment.
D)A common source of orgasmic difficulties is overcontrolling the sexual response.
Q3) Sexual aversion is considered a(n)
A)desire disorder.
B)arousal disorder.
C)orgasm disorder.
D)sexual pain disorder.
Q4) Among gay men there was a sharp decrease in risky sex initially, but this trend has recently reversed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Extension A: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ refers to the consistency in who you are, have been, and will become, as well as to the special blend of talents, values, hopes, loves, hates, and habits that makes you a unique person.
A)Personality
B)Character
C)Somatotype
D)Temperament
Q2) Suppose the superego were a hungry person in a crowded cafeteria.The superego would most likely
A)walk out.
B)wait in line.
C)push to the head of the line.
D)feel guilty about not letting other people go ahead of him or her in the line.
Q3) If a person is extremely conscientious to the point of having impossibly high standards, psychologists usually call this trait
A)neurotic anxiety.
B)dogmatism.
C)perfectionism.
D)organismic valuing.
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Chapter 12: Extension B: Personality
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The notion of self-reinforcement is important in the accounts of personality development provided by
A)traditional behaviorists.
B)neo-Freudians.
C)humanistic theorists.
D)social learning theorists.
Q2) _____ personality theory focuses on free choice and the potential to blossom, while _____ personality theory emphasize instincts and unconscious forces.
A)Humanistic; psychoanalytic
B)Behavioristic; psychoanalytic
C)Humanistic; behavioristic
D)Trait; behavioristic
Q3) Many of Freud's followers disagreed with his theory because he placed too much emphasis on
A)instinctual drives and sexuality.
B)psychosocial stages of development.
C)environmental influences.
D)cross-cultural viewpoints.
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Chapter 12: Extension C: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most significant contribution of humanistic theory has been the A)role it assigns to unconscious motivation in behavior.
B)balanced (neutral) view of human behavior that it embodies.
C)explicit concepts that it uses to explain personality development.
D)encouragement it gives for seeking self-awareness and personal growth.
Q2) Regarding shyness, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Shy persons almost always blame themselves when a social encounter does not go well.
B)Shy persons often lack social skills.
C)Shy people show a great deal of private self-consciousness.
D)Fears of rejection are more frequent or intense for shy persons.
Q3) Objective paper-and-pencil tests that reveal personality characteristics are known as
A)projective tests.
B)behavioral assessments.
C)rating scales.
D)personality questionnaires.
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Chapter 12: Extension D: Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the consequences of a college student having an unhealthy perfectionism.
Q2) According to Freud, children from age six to puberty experience a quiet, settled time called the latency period when psychosexual development is dormant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Brian, who is intelligent and creative, would most likely score high on the ____________________ dimension of the Big Five trait model.
Q4) According to Freud, one's preconscious level of awareness includes everything that a person is aware of at a given moment in time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to behaviorists, ____________________, such as feeding and toilet training, are capable of leaving a lasting imprint on personality.
Q6) Describe your personality using the five dimensions of the Big Five Personality Model.
Q7) Describe ways that a person can reduce their shyness.
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42
Chapter 13: Extension A: Health, Stress, and Coping
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Sample Questions
Q1) At least 30 percent of U.S.high school students have engaged in which of the following health-endangering behaviors in the previous month?
A)rode with a drinking driver
B)did not get enough exercise
C)was in a physical fight
D)all of these
Q2) Ultimately, stress depends upon
A)how a situation is perceived.
B)whether or not the somatic nervous system is involved.
C)how the limbic system interprets the situation.
D)having a Type A or Type B personality.
Q3) A stressful condition that occurs when a person must respond at or near maximum capacity for long time periods is known as
A)pressure.
B)frustration.
C)anxiety.
D)conflict.
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Chapter 13: Extension B: Health, Stress, and Coping
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58237
Sample Questions
Q1) Ron's parents want him to either go to college or go to work in his father's business.Ron does not want to do either.He becomes so stressed by this conflict that he joins the army.Ron's joining the army is an example of
A)partial approach.
B)ambivalence.
C)freezing.
D)leaving the field.
Q2) Beck and Greenberg suggest that a person should make a daily schedule to help combat depression.Their suggestions include which of the following?
A)Try to schedule activities so that they fill up every hour during the day.
B)It is best to schedule the easier tasks first and then to progress to the more difficult ones.
C)Check off each item as it is completed.
D)All of these are their suggestions for using the daily schedule.
Q3) _____ can help alleviate mild college-related depression.
A)Learning to manage college work
B)Challenging self-critical thinking
C)Making a daily schedule for yourself
D)All of these
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Page 44
Chapter 13: Extension C: Health, Stress, and Coping
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221 Verified Questions
221 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the experiment conducted at Carnegie Mellon University, subjects were beeped on a palm pilot and asked to place a cotton roll in their mouth and then place it in a plastic canister in order to measure the amount of A)dopamine.
B)cholesterol.
C)cortisol.
D)acetylcholine.
Q2) The control of involuntary functions like heart rate and blood pressure is
A)generally impossible for humans.
B)possible only through surgically implanted technology.
C)possible only through dedication to Yoga and Zen.
D)possible through the use of biofeedback.
Q3) The easiest conflict to resolve is usually an avoidance-avoidance conflict.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When stressed, most men tend to _____ and most women tend to _____.
A)become aggressive; withdraw emotionally
B)withdraw from others emotionally; become aggressive
C)withdraw emotionally; seek support from friends
D)see support from friends; withdraw emotionally
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Chapter 14: Extension A: Psychological Disorders
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58235
Sample Questions
Q1) Descriptions of disorders in the DSM-IV-TR
A)can be found for all forms of culture-bound syndromes.
B)are derived from survey responses from board-certified clinicians in North America and Europe.
C)are based on empirical data and clinical observations.
D)are intentionally vague so that all known disorders can be categorized.
Q2) Which of the following is a dissociative disorder?
A)depression
B)phobic disorder
C)multiple personality
D)paranoia
Q3) Which of the following is NOT identified in the text as a risk factor for psychological disorder?
A)social conditions such as poverty
B)family factors such as marital strife
C)biological factors such as inherited vulnerabilities
D)educational factors such as too little or too much schooling
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Chapter 14: Extension B: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding SAD, which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Eighty percent of SAD patients can be helped by phototherapy.
B)The best time to administer phototherapy is in the late evening.
C)Seasonal depressions are related to the release of more melatonin during the winter.
D)Seasonal depressions are usually not severe.
Q2) The risk of postpartum depression are increased by
A)the mother experiencing stress and anxiety before birth.
B)the mother having negative attitudes toward child rearing.
C)a poor marital relationship and lack of support from the father.
D)all of these factors.
Q3) Julie cannot stop thinking about germs and dirt.She spends all day cleaning her house.She is suffering from
A)phobic disorder.
B)paranoia.
C)delusional disorder.
D)obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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Chapter 14: Extension C: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asking someone if he or she is thinking of committing suicide
A)is intrusive and can dangerously undermine the caring relationship you are trying to establish.
B)is likely to prompt a suicide attempt if the person is truly depressed.
C)is unlikely to yield a useful reply; it is better to look for silent indications in the person's body language.
D)conveys understanding and is completely acceptable.
Q2) Gwendolyn is a 34-year-old unmarried woman who relies on her parents to take care of her.She refuses to move out because she has an extreme lack of self-confidence and feels that her parents do a better job of structuring her life than anyone else, including herself.Gwendolyn fits the description of a _____ personality disorder.
A)paranoid
B)histrionic
C)schizotypal
D)dependent
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Chapter 14: Extension D: Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) John views a cough as a sign of pneumonia and a little indigestion as an ulcer.John most likely has the somatoform disorder known as ____________________.
Q2) Anthony needs others to constantly praise him for his taste in clothes, his grades, his good looks, and his charming appeal.He often fantasizes that he is the best looking man on campus, that he is the most intellectual scholar, and that he will become a billionaire soon after graduation.He can be categorized as having a(n) ____________________ personality disorder.
Q3) Fleeing from familiar surroundings to escape extreme threat is called dissociative fugue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Persons who are housebound and fearful of leaving the security of their own homes suffer from agoraphobia.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contrast the psychodynamic, humanistic, existential, behavioral, and cognitive views of anxiety and anxiety disorders.
Q6) Exhibitionism, fetishism, and voyeurism are example of ____________________.
Page 49
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Chapter 15: Extension A: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In psychoanalysis, resistance should be regarded as
A)an indication of learned helplessness and dependence on the therapist.
B)an indication of the confusion a patient feels due to his or her distorted logic.
C)a challenge and a guide to a patient's unconscious conflicts.
D)a roadblock in therapy.
Q2) The American Psychological Association urges media psychologists to A)provide their services for free.
B)obtain more personal information from the caller before diagnosing the problem.
C)discuss problems in a general manner, instead of counseling.
D)stop conducting any kind of call-in shows.
Q3) Gestalt therapy differs from both existential and client-centered therapy because Gestalt therapy
A)is the most directive.
B)is the least directive.
C)places greater emphasis on past experiences.
D)places more emphasis on unconscious motives.
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Chapter 15: Extension B: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fears can be unlearned by approaching feared situations in a series of ordered steps called
A)the aversion series.
B)adaptation steps.
C)inhibition states.
D)a hierarchy.
Q2) If a response is followed by an unpleasant effect or discomfort, the response behavior will be suppressed.This is an example of A)non-reinforcement.
B)time-out.
C)extinction.
D)punishment.
Q3) Which of the following is the most likely consequence of punishment?
A)the elimination of the punished response
B)an increase in the frequency of the response
C)a suppression of the punished response
D)no change in the immediate or long-term frequency of the response
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Chapter 15: Extension C: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Harold has schizophrenia and his doctor has recommended that he change to a new drug that can reduce his hallucinations and delusions without the lethal risk or side effects of other similar drugs.Harold's doctor will most likely be prescribing
A)Lithium Carbonate.
B)Risperdal.
C)Clozaril.
D)Prozac.
Q2) In order to lose weight, you imagine yourself standing at the dessert table with your friends.In your visual image, when you are offered a dessert, you politely turn it down and feel good about staying on your diet.These images are then followed by a pleasant, rewarding scene, such as someone telling you, "Wow, have you lost weight? You look great.I wish I had your willpower to lose weight." You have just used the technique known as
A)thought-stopping.
B)covert sensitization.
C)desensitization.
D)covert reinforcement.
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Chapter 15: Extension D: Therapies
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/58228
Sample Questions
Q1) Cheryl has been responding to her therapist with hostility during her sessions.Upon further investigation, her therapist realized that she was unconsciously projecting her anger and frustration associated with her birth mother on to her therapist.Cheryl is experiencing _____________________.
Q2) Personal empowerment is the strength of existential therapy, while a focus on one's immediate awareness is the strength of Gestalt therapy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Freud's theory of dream analysis is based on the assumption that the true meaning of a dream is found in its symbolic, ____________________ content.
Q4) Describe the four basic conditions that Carl Rogers believed that effective therapists should maintain.
Q5) If ignoring a child's temper tantrums causes them to cease, a psychologist would call this effect negative reinforcement.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Major tranquilizers are also referred to as ____________________ drugs.
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Page 53
Chapter 16: Extension A: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cause of behavior that is assumed to lie outside the person is termed a(n) _____ cause, while a cause of behavior that is assumed to lie within the person, such as personality is termed a(n) _____ cause.
A)experiential; inferential
B)external; internal
C)cognitive; emotional
D)action; conviction
Q2) Mrs.Allen sees a student, Tionna, sneaking out of school.She believes that Tionna is sneaking out because she prefers to spend time at the mall with her friends rather than focusing on her studies.What kind of cause(s) is Mrs.Allen assigning to Tionna's behavior?
A)internal
B)external
C)both internal and external
D)neither internal nor external
Q3) When situational demands are strong, we tend to
A)discount internal causes for behavior.
B)infer internal causes for behavior.
C)discount external causes for behavior.
D)infer a combination of internal and external causes.
Page 54
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Chapter 16: Extension B: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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250 Verified Questions
250 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Solomon Asch's classic experiment (in which subjects judged a "standard" line and "comparison" lines) was actually conducted to study
A)social perception.
B)social roles.
C)cohesiveness.
D)conformity.
Q2) The three techniques used for brainwashing are
A)unfreezing, change, refreezing.
B)freezing, isolation, and conditioning.
C)dependency, dissonance, and attitude change.
D)direct contact, dissonance, and reward.
Q3) You have agreed to buy a new car for an attractive low price, then the dealer mentions some extras that you must have and the various city and state taxes that must be added.The price is now becoming much less attractive.This illustrates the A)highball technique.
B)lowball technique.
C)foot-in-the-door effect.
D)door-in-the-face effect.
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Chapter 16: Extension C: Social Thinking and Social Influence
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to avoid becoming flustered in a situation when asserting your rights, you should _____, a process that involves practicing the assertion skills after you have initially mastered them.
A)overlearn
B)overdisclose
C)positive practice
D)self-efficacy
Q2) Smokers are told that smoking cigarettes causes lung cancer, but they "light up" anyway.Describe the concept of cognitive dissonance, and explain how smokers who continue to "light up" are able to resolve this dissonance.
Q3) The degree to which one is willing to have contact with another person is measured by using a(n) ____________________ scale.
Q4) Describe four of the six ways in which attitudes are acquired and give an example of each.
Q5) When a psychologist delivers testimony in a court case, he or she is exhibiting referent power.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Extension A: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ refers to the tendency we have to marry someone who is similar to us in almost every way.
A)Monogamy
B)Status equalities
C)Homogamy
D)The actor-observer bias
Q2) People with _____ attachment styles find it relatively easy to get close to others.They are comfortable depending on others and having others depend on them.
A)mutual
B)secure
C)avoidant
D)ambivalent
Q3) Regarding Sternberg's triangular theory of love, nonlove involves A)intimacy only.
B)passion only.
C)commitment only.
D)none of three components.
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Chapter 17: Extension B: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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250 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Desensitization to violence means that
A)imitation of this undesirable violent behavior will occur.
B)the removal of an inhibition to be violent has occurred.
C)there was a reduction of emotional sensitivity to violence.
D)there was an increase in emotional sympathy.
Q2) According to psychologists Conor Seyle and Matthew Newman, the "red states and blue states" have become a national shorthand for dividing Americans into opposing camps with the "reds" supposed to be _____ and the "blues" supposed to be _____.
A)liberal; conservative
B)upper-class; middle-class
C)urban; rural
D)religious; nonreligious
Q3) Research by Donnerstein and Linz suggests that _____ are most responsible for people's attitudes about women and rape.
A)violent images
B)sexual images
C)the male tendency to be more narcissistic
D)the female tendency to be more dependent
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Chapter 17: Extension C: Prosocial and Antisocial Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Students in an ethnically diverse high school in Houston, Texas, promoted tolerance by
A)conducting sensitivity training sessions at school and in the community.
B)putting up posters around the community promoting tolerance and cultural awareness.
C)writing stories for a newsletter about situations in which cooperation lead to better understanding.
D)holding a multicultural fair in which members of the community could become more aware of the richness of the various cultures.
Q2) ____________________ refers to the tendency we have to marry someone who is similar to us in almost every way.
Q3) Research suggests that our attachment patterns are similar to those seen in early child development: secure, avoidant, and ambivalent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ____________________ theory emphasizes that we learn to be aggressive by observing aggressive models.
______________ or ______________.
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59
Chapter 18: Extension A: Applied Psychology
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249 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A traditional approach to predicting occupational choice, such as the Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory,
A)first classifies individuals in terms of personality traits and intelligence levels.
B)compares one's preferences with those of persons already successful in given occupations.
C)matches a person's potential to learn tasks or skills used in various occupations.
D)relies on projective testing to uncover underlying motives ultimately expressed in occupational choice.
Q2) Which was NOT cited as an outcome of job enrichment programs?
A)higher production costs
B)increased job satisfaction
C)reduced boredom
D)less absenteeism
Q3) Recent studies suggest that interviews can be improved by
A)collecting specific biodata.
B)asking each candidate the same questions.
C)utilizing the halo effect.
D)doing all of these.
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Chapter 18: Extension B: Applied Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies of sport skills recommend which of the following for optimal skill learning?
A)Break the skill down into numerous artificial units and perform the skill in different orders and at different points in the sequence.
B)When first practicing a skill, internally repeat the verbal rules as you perform the skill.
C)Practice the skill often in both natural and artificial settings.
D)All of these are recommended.
Q2) As Dana performs her ice skating program at the Nationals, she begins to feel like she is almost in a trance with time seeming to slow "almost to a crawl." She feels at one with her performance and flows with it, having complete and perfect control over every movement.According to sports psychologists, Dana is experiencing A)nirvana.
B)aesthetic performance.
C)attention overload.
D)peak performance.
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Chapter 18: Extension C: Applied Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Situations that arise in a job, with which a competent worker must be able to cope are known as ____________________.
Q2) ____________________ involves making a job more intrinsically motivating and typically involves increasing worker knowledge.
Q3) College GPA predicts success in many types of work.
A)True B)False
Q4) If you make positive contributions to the success of an organization in ways that go beyond one's job description, you are exhibiting organizational ____________________.
Q5) Most people in restricted environments find that they prefer A)interactive pastimes.
B)solitary pastimes.
C)active, group-oriented recreation.
D)eating alone.
Q6) Explain what is meant by organizational culture and organizational citizenship.
Q7) Managers who assume that workers must be coerced or guided into being productive use ____________________ techniques.
Q8) Describe five problems that occur in jury deliberations.
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Chapter 19: Appendix A: Behavioral Statistics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When measure X gets larger, measure Y also gets larger in a
A)zero correlation.
B)positive relationship.
C)variable relationship.
D)negative relationship.
Q2) There are ten students in the pre-kindergarten class.Each student is shown eight colors and asked to name them.The number of colors correctly named by each student was: 8, 8, 8, 8, 7, 7, 6, 6, 5, 4.What would be the mode?
A)4.0
B)6.7
C)7.0
D)8.0
Q3) A correlation describes the _____ between two variables.
A)intersection
B)commonality
C)relationship
D)none of these
Q4) Of the numbers 10, 16, 3, 7, and 17, the range is 14.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Appendix B: Behavioral Statistics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bar graph of a frequency distribution is known as a(n) _____.
Q2) A(n) _____ is made by breaking down the entire range of possible scores into classes of equal size and then recording the number of scores falling into each class.
Q3) What is a z-score? Explain how it is calculated in the following example: Abby had a score of 75 on a test with a mean of 70 and a standard deviation of 5.What is her z-score?
Q4) A(n) _____ is the existence of a consistent, systematic relationship between two events, measures, or variables.
Q5) If you square the correlation coefficient, you will get a number telling the _____ accounted for by the correlation.
Q6) Three hundred students at Meridian Community College are surveyed regarding their views on the new cafeteria menus.All of the students at Meridian Community College would be considered the _____ in this study.
Q7) The index of how much a typical score differs from the mean of a group of scores is known as the _____.
Q8) Ninety-nine percent of all the cases are found between _____ on a normal curve.
Q9) Correlations allow us to make _____, while experiments allow us to show _____.
Q10) For the numbers 10, 17, 2, 9, and 15, the range is _____.
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