Human Anatomy and Physiology Pre-Test Questions - 1044 Verified Questions
Chapter 1: Scientific Method and Measurements
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Q1) When conducting an experiment to test a hypothesis, only one changeable factor is studied; this is called a variable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable is that the dependent variable
A)can be changed.
B)is derived from the experimental results.
C)is determined before the experiment is conducted.
D)is equivalent to the hypothesis.
E)is equivalent to the observations.
Answer: B
Q3) The final step in the scientific method is data analysis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Body Organization, Membranes, and Terminology
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Q1) The double-layered serous membrane that surrounds the organs of the abdominopelvic cavity is called the pericardium.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Concerning the abdominopelvic regions, the ________ regions lie directly superior to the lumbar regions.
A)hypochondriac
B)hypogastric
C)epigastric
D)umbilical
E)iliac
Answer: A
Q3) In directional terminology, the opposite of posterior is anterior.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Sudan IV dye is a test for proteins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) All of the following are true of lipids, except
A)amino acids are a type of lipid.
B)some lipids are used for cellular structure.
C)triglycerides are also called fats.
D)lipids provide some cellular energy.
E)phospholipids are a type of lipid.
Answer: A
Q3) Although the pH of the blood is 7.4, our cells can function well within a pH range of 3.0-11.0.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are all classified as organic molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Care and Use of the Microscope
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Q1) A compound microscope is one that has two ocular lenses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When viewing a specimen on a compound light microscope, the image is right-side-up but reversed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a microscopic lens is not clean, after cleaning it with lens paper or a cotton swab and lens cleaner, it should be cleaned with hydrochloric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A parfocal microscope is one that keeps the specimen in focus (or very close to it)when a higher-power objective lens is rotated into position, after focusing with a lower-power objective.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) Which of the following organelles provide additional surface area for absorption?
A)Cilia
B)Microvilli
C)Ribosomes
D)Flagella
E)Centrioles
Q2) All of the organelles in the cell are membrane-bound.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are true of the centrioles, except
A)they are located within the centrosome.
B)they are part of the cytoskeleton.
C)they consist of microtubules.
D)they organize the mitotic spindle during cell division.
E)they are nonmembranous organelles.
Q4) The best way to observe cheek cells is under a dissecting microscope; they are too large to view under a compound light microscope.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Cell Cycle
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Q1) A karyotype shows the gender of an individual, as well as many genetic abnormalities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During which phase of the cell cycle is the DNA duplicated?
A)The S phase of interphase
B)Cytokinesis
C)The G phase of interphase
D)Prophase
E)The G phase of interphase
Q3) The major phases of the cell cycle are
A)prophase and metaphase.
B)anaphase and telophase.
C)interphase and mitosis.
D)telophase and interphase.
E)mitosis and cytokinesis.
Q4) Mitosis refers to nuclear division, and cytokinesis refers to cytoplasmic division.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Epithelial Tissues
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Q1) Which type of epithelial tissue is composed of only one layer of cells, but appears layered, because some of the cells do not reach the free surface?
A)Transitional
B)Stratified squamous
C)Simple columnar
D)Stratified cuboidal
E)Pseudostratified columnar
Q2) A group of cells that are alike in function and appearance is called a tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How do epithelial cells obtain their nourishment and get rid of their waste?
A)Through small channels in the tissue
B)Through their extensive blood vessels
C)Through the air in the environment
D)Through the blood vessels of the underlying connective tissue
E)By a combination of all of these methods
Q4) Glandular epithelium makes up glands such as sweat glands; it is always multicellular.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: Connective Tissues
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Q1) Spongy bone makes up the majority of bone shafts in long bones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following types of connective tissue is avascular (contains no blood vessels)?
A)Bone
B)Reticular connective tissue
C)Adipose tissue
D)Cartilage
E)Areolar connective tissue
Q3) All of the following are dense connective tissues except A)elastic connective tissue.
B)dense irregular connective tissue.
C)reticular connective tissue.
D)dense regular connective tissue.
E)All of these are types of dense connective tissue.
Q4) The extracellular matrix of connective tissue consists of fibers and a ground substance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Muscle and Nervous Tissues
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of smooth muscle?
A)Peristalsis in visceral organs such as the small intestine and ureters
B)Changing the size of the pupil when the lighting conditions change
C)Causing "goose bumps" in response to cold temperature or fear
D)Causing the movements associated with airflow
E)Pumping of the blood through the heart
Q2) What is/are the function(s)of the gap junctions found between cardiac muscle cells?
A)They provide routes for electrical impulses to be passed from one cell to another.
B)They prevent adjacent cells from coming apart.
C)They initiate the heart beats.
D)They are routes of delivery for oxygen and nutrients to the cardiac muscle cells.
E)They stop electrical impulses from being passed from cell to cell.
Q3) Nerve cells are also called neuroglia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Integumentary System
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Q1) Which structure of the hair follicle supplies the capillaries that provide the growing hair with oxygen and nutrients?
A)Hair papilla
B)Hair root
C)Hair shaft
D)Hair matrix
E)Hair bulb
Q2) What is/are the stimulus(-i)for contraction of the arrector pili muscles?
A)Low blood pH
B)Dry skin
C)Cold temperature or fear
D)Hot temperature
E)Hot temperature or fear
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of the stratum corneum?
A)It is only present in thick skin.
B)The cells of the stratum corneum are dead.
C)It consists of several layers of keratinized cells.
D)It is the outermost layer of the epidermis.
E)All of these are true of the stratum corneum.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Bone Structure and Classification
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Q1) Looking at a radiograph of the hand, it can be seen that the metacarpals and phalanges are classified as ________ bones.
A)flat
B)irregular
C)sesamoid
D)long
E)short
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the structure of long bones?
A)Long bones contain an epiphysis at both ends.
B)The diaphysis and surfaces of the epiphyses consist of compact bone.
C)The periosteum surrounds the entire bone, even where there is articular cartilage.
D)Spongy bone makes up the internal portions of the epiphyses.
E)All of the following are true of the structure of a long bone.
Q3) Chicken bones soaked in vinegar or hydrochloric acid overnight become flexible, because the acid dissolves the collagen fibers.
A)True
B)False
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14
Chapter 13: Organization of the Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of ossification?
A)Intramembranous ossification involves bone formation from hyaline cartilage models.
B)Most bones develop by endochondral ossification.
C)In both intramembranous and endochondral ossification, both spongy and compact bone form.
D)Ossification occurs during fetal growth and childhood.
E)All of these are true of ossification.
Q2) The distal end of the humerus articulates with the A)carpals.
B)radius and ulna.
C)tibia and fibula.
D)tarsals.
E)phalanges.
Q3) Most adults have 206 bones, but the number at birth is close to 275.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The axial skeleton contains more bones than the appendicular skeleton.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 14: Skull
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Q1) The coronoid process, mental foramen, and ramus are all found on the A)maxilla.
B)mandible.
C)ethmoid bone.
D)sphenoid bone.
E)parietal bone.
Q2) The supraorbital foramen is found on the ________, while the infraorbital foramen is found on the ________.
A)maxilla; frontal bone
B)maxilla; mandible
C)zygomatic bone; lacrimal bone
D)frontal bone; maxilla
E)nasal bone; mandible
Q3) All of the following bones contain paranasal sinuses except A)the maxilla.
B)the mandible.
C)the ethmoid bone.
D)the sphenoid bone.
E)All of these bones contain paranasal sinuses.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Vertebral Column and Thoracic Cage
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Q1) There are five pairs of false ribs in the human skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the anatomy of the sacrum?
A)The inferior end of the sacrum articulates with the coccyx.
B)Nothing passes through the sacral foramina; they are membrane-covered openings.
C)The sacral canal is a continuation of the vertebral canal.
D)The median sacral crest consists of the fused spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae.
E)All of these are true of the anatomy of the sacrum.
Q3) The four vertebrae of the coccyx fuse into 1 bone by the age of about 18.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The vertebral column extends from the first cervical vertebra (C1)to the fifth lumbar vertebra (L5).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Pectoral Girdle and Upper Limb
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Q1) The intertubercular sulcus of the humerus is a passageway for a tendon of the Biceps brachii muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of the ulnar notch?
A)It articulates with the head of the ulna.
B)It is found on the radius.
C)It is closer to the humerus than to the wrist.
D)It is a curved shallow depression.
E)All of these are true of the ulnar notch.
Q3) Anatomically, the forearm represents the region from the
A)elbow to the fingers.
B)shoulder to the elbow.
C)elbow to the wrist.
D)shoulder to the fingers.
E)wrist to the fingers.
Q4) The carpals are not included in the anatomical description of the hand.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle and Lower Limb
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Q1) Often when a person with osteoporosis "falls and breaks a hip," the fall actually occurs as a result of the hip fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which portion of the ilium articulates with the sacrum to form the sacroiliac joint?
A)Iliac crest
B)Posterior inferior iliac spine
C)Auricular surface
D)Greater sciatic notch
E)Iliac fossa
Q3) What is the interosseous membrane of the leg?
A)The tendon in which the patella is embedded
B)The membrane that runs across most of the obturator foramen
C)A ligament that holds the tibia and fibula together along their shafts
D)The inner lining of the tibia and fibula
E)A dense connective tissue covering over the major bones of the lower limb
Q4) The 2 hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx form the pelvic girdle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Fetal Skeleton
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Q1) Intramembranous bones develop by replacement of a hyaline cartilage model with bone tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The relatively small size of the face in the fetal skull is due to all of the following except
A)the small size of the maxillae and their sinuses.
B)the undersized mandible.
C)the lack of tooth eruptions in the maxillae and mandible.
D)the small size of the nasal cavities.
E)all of these are reasons why the face is small in a fetal skull.
Q3) Which of the following fontanels involve(s)the occipital bone?
A)Posterior only
B)Anterior and sphenoidal
C)Mastoid only
D)Sphenoidal only
E)Mastoid and posterior
Q4) All of the fontanels of the fetal/infant skull involve the parietal bones.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Joint Structure and Movements
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of joint movements?
A)Most joints are flexed and abducted when the body is in anatomical position.
B)When a skeletal muscle contracts to move a joint, the insertion is pulled toward the origin.
C)In the upper and lower limbs, the origin is typically proximal to the insertion.
D)The more moveable end of a skeletal muscle is called its insertion.
E)All of these are true of joint movements.
Q2) Sutures and gomphoses consist of dense connective tissue, and are immovable; therefore they can be classified as
A)cartilaginous synarthroses.
B)fibrous amphiarthroses.
C)synovial diarthroses.
D)cartilaginous amphiarthroses.
E)fibrous synarthroses.
Q3) Medial and lateral excursion are special joint movements that involve the mandible.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Skeletal Muscle Structure and Function
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Q1) The connective tissue layer that surrounds each bundle of muscle fibers is called the A)endomysium.
B)fascicle.
C)perimysium.
D)fascia.
E)epimysium.
Q2) A muscle that contracts to assist the main muscle in performing a particular action is called a(n)
A)prime mover.
B)fixator.
C)antagonist.
D)agonist.
E)synergist.
Q3) The synaptic knob of a neuromuscular junction is the portion of the muscle fiber that contains receptor sites for neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Electromyography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) The type of muscle tissue that was used for electromyography in this lab exercise is ________ muscle.
A)mononucleated
B)cardiac
C)non-striated
D)skeletal
E)smooth
Q2) In the EMG experiment, when was tonus observed?
A)During the weakest clench
B)During the period of decreasing tension in the muscle fatigue experiment
C)During the strongest clench
D)In the periods between clenches
E)Tonus was not observed in the EMG experiment.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of tonus?
A)It is a state of slight muscle contraction.
B)It occurs when a muscle is fully contracted.
C)During periods of tonus, the motor units take turns contracting.
D)It keeps the motor units healthy and ready to contract at any time.
E)All of these are true of tonus.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Muscles of the Head and Neck
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Q1) What is the function of medial and lateral excursion, movements of some of the muscles of mastication?
A)To close the mouth during chewing
B)To move the mandible side to side, to help grind food
C)To move the mandible forward
D)To open the mouth during chewing
E)To move the mandible backward
Q2) Which of the following facial muscles raise(s)the corners of the mouth for smiling and laughing?
A)Buccinator
B)Mentalis and platysma
C)Depressor anguli oris
D)Orbicularis oris
E)Zygomaticus major and minor
Q3) The muscles that move the head are found in the neck.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The muscles of mastication are all inserted on the maxilla.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Muscles of the Chest, Shoulder, and Upper
Limb
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Q1) All muscles cross only one joint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a muscle of respiration?
A)External intercostals
B)Diaphragm
C)Pectoralis major
D)Internal intercostals
E)All of these are major muscles of respiration.
Q3) A muscle that runs down the arm, and inserts on the olecranon process of the ulna, would cause
A)extension of the elbow.
B)abduction of the arm.
C)extension of the fingers.
D)flexion of the elbow.
E)flexion of the fingers.
Q4) The rotator cuff muscles all have insertions on the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Muscles of the Vertebral Column, Abdominal
Wall, and Pelvic Floor
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Q1) The deep muscles of the back flex the vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following muscles is NOT a muscle of the abdominal wall?
A)Rectus abdominis
B)External oblique
C)Transversus abdominis
D)Internal intercostal
E)All of these are muscles of the abdominal wall.
Q3) Which of the following correctly lists the erector spinae muscles, from lateral to medial?
A)Iliocostalis group, longissimus group, spinalis group
B)Semispinalis thoracis, semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis capitis
C)Spinalis group, longissimus group, iliocostalis group
D)Quadratus lumborum, semispinalis thoracis, iliocostalis group
Q4) The muscles of the pelvic floor are almost entirely innervated by the pudendal nerve.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Muscles of the Hip and Lower Limb
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the hamstring group of muscles?
A)It consists of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.
B)All of the hamstrings insert on both the tibia and the fibula.
C)All of the hamstrings cause flexion of the leg at the knee.
D)All of the hamstrings have origins on the ischial tuberosity, although the biceps femoris has an additional origin.
E)All of these are true of the hamstrings.
Q2) Muscles that move the thigh at the hip joint have insertions on the A)pelvis.
B)patella.
C)tibia and fibula.
D)sacrum and coccyx.
E)femur.
Q3) The gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus muscles all have the same action (extension of the thigh at the hip).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some of the muscles of the hip and lower limb cross more than one joint.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Surface Anatomy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a posterior surface feature?
A)Calcaneal tendon
B)Popliteal fossa
C)External occipital protuberance
D)Head of the fibula
E)All of these are posterior surface features.
Q2) What region of the body would you palpate to find the zygomatic arch?
A)Lower limb region
B)Head and neck region
C)Lower torso
D)Upper limb region
E)Upper torso region
Q3) The transverse arch is a
A)bony feature of the torso.
B)soft tissue feature of the lower limb.
C)soft tissue feature of the upper limb.
D)soft tissue feature of the torso.
E)bony feature of the lower limb.
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28
Chapter 27: Nervous Tissue and Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following is true of interneurons?
A)They are only found in the peripheral nervous system.
B)They are also called efferent neurons.
C)They often connect sensory neurons to motor neurons.
D)They are directly connected to sensory receptors.
E)None of the choices is true of interneurons.
Q2) What is the function of ependymal cells?
A)They are the phagocytes of the brain.
B)They produce cerebrospinal fluid, and circulate it around the brain and spinal cord.
C)They produce the myelin sheath around axons of the peripheral nervous system.
D)They support the cell bodies of neurons in peripheral ganglia.
E)They produce the myelin sheath around axons of the central nervous system.
Q3) What is found in the posterior root ganglion of a spinal nerve?
A)A cluster of sensory neuron cell bodies
B)A mass of axons of motor neurons
C)A cluster of cell bodies of interneurons
D)A cluster of motor neuron cell bodies
E)A mass of axons of interneurons
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Chapter 28: Meninges, Spinal Cord, and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) The meninges surround and protect the entire CNS and PNS.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The anterior roots of the spinal nerves contain motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lumbar plexus is considered to be the most complex of the nerve plexuses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Spinal nerves are called mixed nerves because they contain both sensory and motor nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is NOT true of the brachial plexus?
A)Its nerves control the shoulder and upper limb muscles.
B)It gives rise to the musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median and ulnar nerves.
C)It is mainly derived from spinal nerves C5-C8, and T1.
D)It contains the phrenic nerve and the ansa cervicalis.
E)All of these are true of the brachial plexus.
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Chapter 29: Reflex Arc and Somatic Reflexes
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Q1) Which portion of a reflex arc is the only portion that is found entirely within the CNS?
A)The motor neuron
B)The integration center
C)The receptor
D)The effector
E)The sensory neuron
Q2) The anterior roots of spinal nerves house axons of
A)motor neurons.
B)association neurons.
C)interneurons.
D)afferent neurons.
E)sensory neurons.
Q3) The normal response(s)in the plantar reflex is/are
A)plantar flexion of the foot only.
B)dorsiflexion of the foot and spreading of the toes.
C)flexion of the toes only.
D)dorsiflexion of the foot only.
E)plantar flexion of the foot and flexion of the toes.
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Chapter 30: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) The cranial nerves are basically numbered from superior to inferior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What do the olfactory, optic, and vestibulocochlear nerves have in common?
A)They are all mixed nerves.
B)They are all associated with the eye.
C)They are all associated with the sense of smell.
D)They are all sensory nerves.
E)They are all primarily motor nerves.
Q3) A shallow groove on the surface of the brain is called a A)fissure.
B)canal.
C)gyrus.
D)aperture.
E)sulcus.
Q4) The spinal cord is the largest and most complex portion of the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Reaction Time: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Reaction times in this experiment were in the range of approximately
A)1 to 4 msec.
B)700 to 1,000 msec.
C)1 to 4 sec.
D)100 to 400 msec.
E)7 to 10 msec.
Q2) In general, it would be expected that reaction time would get shorter between the first and the tenth stimuli in each condition that was tested, due to a learning process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the statistical calculations in this experiment, the average reaction time for all subjects in each condition is called the group
A)variance.
B)median.
C)standard deviation.
D)mean.
E)mode.
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Q1) An electroencephalogram (EEG)is a recording of an action potential from a single active neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All 4 types of brain waves can usually be observed in the EEG of a normal adult.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to individual differences in the characteristics of brain waves?
A)Personality
B)Gender
C)Age
D)Type of activity the person is engaged in
E)All of these factors contribute to individual differences in the characteristics of brain waves.
Q4) The most important ions used in action potentials of neurons are Na and K ions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Dissection of the Sheep Brain
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Q1) The brains of mammals have many common structural features.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The corpus callosum is a transverse band of white matter that runs between the cerebral hemispheres.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the function of the choroid plexuses?
A)They form a bridge between the cerebral hemispheres.
B)They are responsible for visual reflexes.
C)They are small nerve plexuses in the brain.
D)They produce cerebrospinal fluid.
E)They are responsible for auditory reflexes.
Q4) On a median section of a sheep brain, the hypothalamus lies ________ to the thalamus.
A)superior
B)posterior
C)inferior
D)lateral
E)anterior
Page 35
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Chapter 34: General Senses
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Q1) Which of the following receptors do not consist of free nerve endings?
A)Warm receptors
B)Meissner's corpuscles
C)Cold receptors
D)Nociceptors
E)All of these receptors consist of free nerve endings.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a stimulus for various mechanoreceptors?
A)Stretch
B)Cold temperature
C)Deep pressure
D)Vibration
E)Light touch
Q3) All sensory neurons have receptive fields of approximately the same size.
A)True
B)False
Q4) General senses are senses that have sensory receptors distributed widely in the skin, joints, muscles, and organs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Smell and Taste
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Q1) Both the primary olfactory cortex and the primary gustatory cortex are located in the temporal lobe of the cerebrum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Olfactory receptors cells send their action potentials through openings in the ethmoid bone, and synapse with neurons in the A)olfactory cortex.
B)olfactory foramina.
C)cribriform plate.
D)thalamus.
E)olfactory bulbs.
Q3) On their way to the primary gustatory cortex, taste impulses pass through the A)medulla oblongata and the thalamus.
B)olfactory cortex.
C)limbic system.
D)corpora quadrigemina and cerebral peduncles.
E)cerebellum.
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Chapter 36: Eye Structure
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Q1) Which of the following structures secrete(s)an oily lubricant for the surface of the eye?
A)Ciliary body
B)Lacrimal glands
C)Conjunctiva
D)Pigmented epithelium
E)Tarsal glands
Q2) The area in which the nerve fibers of the retina leave the eye to become the optic nerve is called the
A)ora serrata.
B)ciliary process.
C)macula lutea.
D)trochlea.
E)optic disc.
Q3) The conjunctiva is a mucous membrane that covers the entire anterior surface of the eyeball, including the cornea.
A)True
B)False
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38
Chapter 37: Visual Tests and Demonstrations
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Q1) In the blind spot demonstration, when staring at the + sign with your right eye, and moving the figure closer to your face, the dot in the figure suddenly disappears when it is focused on the
A)fovea centralis.
B)optic disc.
C)ciliary body.
D)macula lutea.
E)peripheral retina.
Q2) The near point of accommodation increases with age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As people age, the lenses of the eye thicken and lose elasticity, a condition called A)hyperopia.
B)emmetropia.
C)myopia.
D)hypoopia.
E)presbyopia.
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Chapter 38: Ear and Hearing
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of the Weber test?
A)This test can distinguish conduction or sensory deafness.
B)The test is performed by placing a vibrating tuning fork against the midline of the forehead.
C)If a person has conductive hearing impairment, the sound will be heard louder in the normal ear.
D)In the case of normal hearing, a person will hear the sound with equal loudness in both ears.
E)All of these are true of the Weber test.
Q2) The S-shaped tube of the ear is called the
A)auditory tube.
B)membranous labyrinth.
C)external acoustic meatus.
D)bony labyrinth.
E)tympanic cavity.
Q3) The tympanic cavity is a fluid-filled chamber in the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Ear and Equilibrium
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Q1) Nystagmus is a normal response that occurs along with A)horizontal acceleration.
B)rotational movements.
C)linear acceleration.
D)vertical acceleration.
E)any of these movements.
Q2) Vestibular input to the cerebellum provides A)motor coordination.
B)awareness of spatial orientation.
C)compensatory eye movements.
D)awareness of movement.
E)all of these functions.
Q3) In the Barany test, what is the expected response of the eyes to rotation in a chair when the head is tilted 90 degrees onto the shoulder?
A)Side to side nystagmus
B)Up and down nystagmus
C)Random eye movements
D)Rotary nystagmus
E)No eye movement
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Chapter 40: Endocrine Structure and Function
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Q1) The hormones that are released by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland are synthesized by the
A)thymus gland.
B)anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
C)pineal gland.
D)posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
E)hypothalamus.
Q2) If you were suddenly in a dangerous situation, which of your major endocrine glands would you expect to be activated to secrete hormones?
A)Adrenal gland
B)Thyroid gland
C)Pituitary gland
D)Hypothalamus
E)All of these endocrine glands would likely be activated during a dangerous situation.
Q3) The hormones FSH and LH have no functions in the male.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Diabetic Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A)Insulin administration
B)Control of body weight
C)Avoidance of insulin-triggering foods
D)Exercise
E)All of these are treatments for type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Q2) The primary source of cellular energy (fuel)is glucose.
A)True
B)False
Q3) While a person is sleeping or between meals, blood glucose decreases and insulin level increases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not an expected behavioral change in a fish in insulin shock?
A)Rapid movement of the fish's body
B)Increased mouth movements
C)Decreased gill movements
D)Irregular movements of the fish's body
E)All of these are expected behavioral changes in a fish in insulin shock.
Page 43
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Chapter 42: Blood Cells
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Q1) If your differential white blood cell count contained 60% neutrophils, what could you conclude?
A)That you have an excess of neutrophils
B)That you might have a fungal infection
C)That you have a deficiency of neutrophils
D)That you might have an autoimmune disease
E)That you have a normal percentage of neutrophils
Q2) Which of the following is not true of monocytes?
A)They make up 3-9% of the white blood cells.
B)They are the largest blood cells in the circulating blood.
C)They are phagocytes, which engulf and destroy microorganisms and dead cells.
D)They are classified as granulocytes.
E)All of these are true of monocytes.
Q3) Which of the following types of white blood cells is likely to increase in number in a person with cancer, chicken pox, or hypothyroidism?
A)Monocytes
B)Basophils
C)Neutrophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Eosinophils
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Chapter 43: Blood Testing
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Q1) During hemostasis, the final stage of blood coagulation involves
A)the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
B)the formation of a platelet plug.
C)the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
D)blood vessel spasm.
E)the secretion of serotonin.
Q2) The primary determinating factor for total blood cholesterol level is A)heredity.
B)obesity.
C)lack of exercise.
D)a high cholesterol diet.
E)All of these factors contribute equally to the total blood cholesterol level.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of hemoglobin?
A)It makes up about 1/3 of a red blood cell.
B)Each hemoglobin molecule consists of 4 protein subunits.
C)Oxyhemoglobin is bright red, and deoxyhemoglobin is dark red.
D)Each hemoglobin molecule can bind to up to 20 oxygen molecules at a time.
E)All of these are true of hemoglobin.
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45
Chapter 44: Blood Typing
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Q1) Type B blood contains antigen B and anti-B antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would always be (an)incompatible donor(s)for a transfusion recipient with type A blood?
A)Types B, AB, and O
B)Type O only
C)Types B and AB
D)Type B only
E)Type AB only
Q3) Anti-D serum can be mixed with a person's blood to check for the presence of A)anti-A antibodies.
B)Rh antigens.
C)anti-B antibodies.
D)B antigens.
E)anti-Rh antibodies.
Q4) Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are also called agglutinogens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Heart Structure
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Q1) Blood flowing out of the pulmonary veins flows into the ________ and then proceeds through the ________.
A)pulmonary trunk; right ventricle
B)right ventricle; pulmonary trunk
C)right atrium; tricuspid valve
D)left ventricle; aortic semilunar valve
E)left atrium; mitral valve
Q2) When dissecting the sheep heart, it can be seen that the wall thickness of the pulmonary trunk and aorta is much greater than that of the superior and inferior venae cavae.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What prevents oxygen-rich blood from mixing with oxygen-poor blood in the heart?
A)The tricuspid valve
B)The fibrous pericardium
C)The aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves
D)The interatrial and interventricular septa
E)The intercalated discs
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Chapter 47: Electrocardiography: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) Which portion(s)of the cardiac conduction system is/are found in the right atrium of the heart?
A)SA node and AV node
B)AV bundle and the bundle branches
C)Purkinje fibers
D)AV bundle
E)SA node
Q2) Which components of the ECG lie entirely along the isoelectric line?
A)The intervals and segments
B)The segments
C)The waves and intervals
D)The waves
E)The intervals
Q3) Which structure of the cardiac conduction system is considered the final component of the system?
A)SA node
B)AV bundle
C)Purkinje fibers
D)Left and right bundle branches
E)AV node
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Chapter 48: Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries, and Veins
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Q1) Which of the following arteries is unpaired (a single vessel)?
A)Common carotid
B)Brachiocephalic
C)Renal
D)Common iliac
E)Internal iliac
Q2) Which of the following is not a branch of the celiac trunk?
A)Splenic artery
B)Common hepatic artery
C)Renal artery
D)Left gastric artery
E)All of these are branches of the celiac trunk.
Q3) Which of the following veins has an artery with the same name that runs parallel to it?
A)Basilic vein
B)Hepatic portal vein
C)Cephalic vein
D)External iliac vein
E)Great saphenous vein
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Pulse Rate and Blood Pressure
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Q1) When a person suddenly moves from a supine position to a standing position, the blood pressure increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Blood pressure is expressed as
A)systolic pressure / diastolic pressure.
B)diastolic pressure / pulse pressure.
C)pulse pressure / systolic pressure.
D)diastolic pressure / systolic pressure.
E)systolic pressure / pulse pressure.
Q3) What is the cardiac output in a person with a heart rate of 65 beats/min and a stroke volume of 72 ml/beat?
A)4,680 mL/beat
B)137 mL/min
C)4,680 mL/min
D)1.1 mL/beat
E)4,680 beats/min
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Chapter 50: Lymphatic System
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Q1) Which of the following is/are not considered to be (an)organ(s)of the lymphatic system?
A)Spleen
B)Thymus
C)Lymph nodes
D)Tonsils
E)All of these are considered to be organs of the lymphatic system.
Q2) Bacteria on a splinter in your shoulder would be filtered by lymph nodes in the ________ region.
A)axillary
B)inguinal
C)thoracic
D)supratrochlear
E)cervical
Q3) Which of the following organs does not contain lymphocytes?
A)Thymus
B)Spleen
C)Red bone marrow
D)Tonsils
E)All of these organs contain lymphocytes.
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Chapter 51: Respiratory Organs
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Q1) Which structure(s)of the respiratory system contain(s)C-rings or plates of hyaline cartilage, to prevent airway collapse?
A)The trachea and bronchi
B)The trachea, bronchi, and all of the bronchioles
C)The bronchi only
D)The nasal cavity
E)The trachea only
Q2) Blood vessels, nerves and a main bronchus all enter each lung at the hilum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The lungs are symmetric, with each lung consisting of three lobes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The paranasal sinuses open into the nasopharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q5) External respiration is the same as pulmonary ventilation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 52: Breathing and Respiratory Volumes
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Q1) Which of the following respiratory volumes or capacities include(s)the residual volume (RV)?
A)Total lung capacity (TLC)only
B)Functional residual capacity (FRC)and total lung capacity (TLC)
C)Vital capacity (VC)and total lung capacity (TLC)
D)Vital capacity (VC)only
E)Functional residual capacity (FRC)only
Q2) Boyle's law states that
A)the thinner the respiratory membrane, the faster diffusion will occur.
B)the pressure of a gas is proportional to its volume.
C)the higher the temperature of a gas, the greater its volume will be.
D)the higher the temperature of a gas, the higher its pressure will be.
E)the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume.
Q3) Normal, quiet expiration does not require any muscle contraction; it is entirely a result of muscle relaxation and elastic recoil.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Respiratory capacities are the sums or two or more volumes.
A)True
B)False
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Spirometry: Biopac Exercise
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Q1) In the experimental analysis, the difference in amplitude between the peak of a normal inspiration and the peak of the maximal inspiration would represent the
A)inspiratory reserve volume (IRV).
B)tidal volume (TV).
C)inspiratory capacity (IC).
D)expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
E)functional residual capacity (FRC).
Q2) Which of the following respiratory volumes and capacities has the lowest volume?
A)Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
B)Residual volume (RV)
C)Tidal volume (TV)
D)Functional residual capacity (FRC)
E)Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Q3) Inspiratory capacity (IC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Total lung capacity (TLC)cannot be measured with a spirometer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 54: Control of Breathing
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Q1) During normal, quiet breathing, the expiratory muscles are only minimally involved in the process of respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following would not result in acidosis?
A)Rebreathing air from a paper bag
B)Hypoventilation
C)Breath holding
D)Hyperventilation
E)All of these could result in acidosis.
Q3) The most significant factor in determining changes in the rate and depth of breathing is the blood concentration of oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The main generator of impulses for respiratory rate during eupnea is the A)dorsal respiratory group (DRG), B)pneumotaxic center.
C)ventral respiratory group (VRG).
D)pontine respiratory group (PRG).
E)hypothalamus.
Page 56
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Chapter 55: Digestive Organs
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Q1) Which of the following is not absorbed by the large intestine?
A)Water
B)Glucose
C)Some vitamins made by colon bacteria
D)Electrolytes
E)All of these are absorbed by the large intestine.
Q2) All of the following are components of pancreatic juice except
A)enzymes that digest carbohydrates.
B)bicarbonate ions.
C)enzymes that digest proteins.
D)enzymes that digest fats.
E)bile.
Q3) Dentin forms most of a tooth, and it is the hardest substance in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The stomach absorbs a significant amount of digested food.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 56: Action of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Denaturation does not alter the primary structure of an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of amylase?
A)It breaks down starch into maltose.
B)It is produced by more than one organ of the digestive system.
C)Its optimum temperature is close to room temperature.
D)The optimum pH for amylase activity is 6.8 - 7.0.
E)All of these are true of amylase.
Q3) All digestive enzymes have the same optimum pH ranges.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the amylase activity experiment, Benedict's solution tests for the presence of A)triglycerides.
B)amino acids.
C)protein.
D)maltose.
E)starch.
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58
Chapter 57: Metabolism
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Q1) Indirect calorimetry measures
A)oxygen consumption.
B)the amount of food consumed.
C)the amount of carbon dioxide produced.
D)the amount of heat produced.
E)the amount of ATP produced.
Q2) A direct calorimeter measures heat produced in units of
A)kcal/L of oxygen.
B)kcal/g of body weight.
C)kcal/min.
D)kcal/L of carbon dioxide.
E)kcal/body weight/hour.
Q3) The majority of energy expended by the body is heat.
A)True B)False
Q4) In general, a small, thin person has a higher metabolic rate than a large, heavy person.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 58: Urinary Organs
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Q1) As blood flows through the kidney, blood from the efferent arteriole flows directly into the
A)peritubular capillaries.
B)glomerulus.
C)renal vein.
D)afferent arteriole.
E)cortical radiate vein.
Q2) The kidneys are located inside the double-layered peritoneal membrane, just like most of the other organs of the abdominopelvic cavity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As blood flows through the kidney, the cortical radiate arteries branch directly into the afferent arterioles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) From your observations of kidney slides, it can be seen that all of the renal corpuscles are located in the renal cortex.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 59: Urinalysis
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Q1) What effect would diabetes insipidus have on a person's urinalysis?
A)The specific gravity would be higher than normal.
B)The pH would be abnormally high.
C)The specific gravity would be lower than normal.
D)The glucose level would be higher than normal.
E)There would be no effect on the urinalysis.
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the sediments found in urine samples?
A)Normal sediments include mucus, particular crystals, and various cells.
B)Sediments are examined under a microscope.
C)Many types are casts are normal sediments found in the urine.
D)The presence of epithelial cells that line the urinary tract in urine sediment indicates a urinary tract infection.
E)All of these are true of the sediments found in urine samples.
Q3) Which of the following factors does not affect the daily urine volume?
A)The environmental temperature
B)The respiratory rate
C)The relative humidity
D)The body temperature
E)All of these factors affect the daily urine volume.
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The two ejaculatory ducts empty into the urethra within the A)corpus spongiosum.
B)seminal vesicles.
C)bulbourethral glands.
D)spermatic cord.
E)prostate gland.
Q2) Which male reproductive organ is responsible for the maturation and storage of sperm?
A)The prostate gland
B)The epididymis
C)The corpus spongiosum
D)The testis
E)The seminal vesicle
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the corpora cavernosa?
A)They are cylinders of erectile tissue.
B)They have the ability to cause an erection, by engorging with blood and trapping the blood temporarily.
C)They completely surround the urethra in the penis.
D)They are surrounded by the tunica albuginea.
E)All of these are true of the corpora cavernosa.
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Chapter 61: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ of the female reproductive system is similar in structure to the penis?
A)Vestibule
B)Areola
C)Fimbraie
D)Clitoris
E)Hymen
Q2) When a female is standing in anatomical position, which of the following structures of the uterus is the most inferior?
A)The body
B)The fundus
C)The cervical canal
D)The fornix
E)The external os
Q3) The openings of the urethra and vagina are enclosed in a space called the A)labia minora.
B)ampulla.
C)vestibule.
D)fundus.
E)fornix.
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Page 63
Chapter 62: Meiosis, Fertilization, and Early Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long after fertilization does the blastocyst implant into the endometrium?
A)1 day
B)6-7 days
C)2-3 days
D)21 days
E)13-14 days
Q2) What is the fate of the trophoblast of the blastocyst?
A)It develops into the morula.
B)It develops into the embryo.
C)It develops into the zygote.
D)It develops into the inner cell mass.
E)It develops into the extraembryonic membranes and part of the placenta.
Q3) During cleavage divisions, there is an increase in both the number and size of the cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Meiosis occurs only during gametogenesis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 63: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Colorblindness is an X chromosome-linked, recessive trait. None of the children of a normal mother (X X )and a colorblind father (X Y)could possibly be colorblind.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a husband and wife are both carriers of albinism, which is a recessive trait with two alleles, what is the probability that each of their children will be albino?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q3) Inheritance of the ABO blood group is an example of
A)complete dominance only.
B)incomplete dominance only.
C)sex-linked inheritance only.
D)incomplete dominance and sex-linked inheritance.
E)codominance and multiple alleles.
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