Human Anatomy and Physiology
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology is a comprehensive course that explores the structure and function of the human body. Students will examine the organization of the major body systems, including the musculoskeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, reproductive, and endocrine systems. The course emphasizes the interrelationships between anatomical structures and physiological processes, providing a foundational understanding of how organ systems work together to maintain homeostasis and overall health. Through lectures, laboratory experiences, and interactive activities, students will gain practical knowledge applicable to health sciences, medicine, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Q1) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the groin?
A)pelvic
B)umbilical
C)sternal
D)otic
E)inguinal
Answer: E
Q2) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the functional properties of nerve cells?
A)endocrinology
B)cardiovascular physiology
C)neurophysiology
D)immunology
E)pathophysiology
Answer: C
Q3) List the eleven organ systems of the human body.
Answer: The eleven organ systems of the human body include the integumentary,skeletal,muscular,nervous,digestive,urinary,respiratory,immune and lymphatic,cardiovascular,endocrine,and reproductive systems.
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Q1) What is the difference between atomic mass,mass number and atomic number?
Answer: Atomic number is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom.Atomic mass is the weighted average mass of all naturally occurring isotopes of the atom.Mass number is the sum of protons and neutrons found in an atom.
Q2) A solution with a pH value less than 7 is A)basic.
B)neutral.
C)acidic.
D)alkaline.
E)concentrated.
Answer: C
Q3) List the six major functions of proteins.
Answer: Proteins have 1)structural,2)regulatory,3)contractile,4)immunological,5)transport,and 6)catalytic functions.
Question
Q4) Describe the structural characteristics of an amino acid.
Answer: Amino acids contain a central carbon atom with 1)a hydrogen atom,2)an amino group,3)an acidic carboxyl group,and 4)a side chain attached to it.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Q1) Plasma membranes are _____,which means that some chemicals move easily through plasma membrane while other chemicals do not.
A)selectively permeable
B)concentration graded
C)electrically graded
D)selectively soluble
E)electrical insulators
Answer: A
Q2) Spermatozoa is the only type of human cell that contains a _____,which is a whip-like structure that helps propel the sperm towards an oocyte.
A)cilium
B)flagellum
C)mitochondria
D)centrosome
E)microvillus
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Q1) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions.
Q2) The two principal types of cells found in nervous tissues are
A)neuroglial cells and neurons.
B)neurons and mast cells.
C)neurons and dendritic cells.
D)neuroglial cells and myofibers.
E)neurons and somites.
Q3) Which of the following types of tissues is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body?
A)skeletal muscle
B)smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle
D)intercalated cells
E)myoblasts
Q4) Name and briefly describe the different categories of epithelial tissues based on cell shape and number of layers of cells found in the tissue.
Q5) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
Q6) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue.
Q7) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.
Q8) Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System Unit Ii: Principles of Support
and Movement
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to an irregular tear of the skin?
A)abrasion
B)papule
C)keloid
D)laceration
E)cyst
Q2) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.
Q3) Which type of exocrine gland is a simple,coiled tubular gland that is found throughout almost the entirety of the skin?
A)Sebaceous gland
B)Eccrine sweat gland
C)Apocrine sweat gland
D)Ceruminous gland
E)None of these answer choices are correct.
Q4) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal.
Q5) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin.
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Q6) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing.
Q7) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Q1) During endochondral ossification in a fetus,bones initially develop as a cartilage model surrounded by a connective tissue covering called the A)periosteum.
B)endosteum.
C)perichondrium.
D)perimysium.
E)trabeculae.
Q2) Patient X has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands.Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.
Q3) What is the region of long bone found between the diaphysis and the epiphysis called?
A)epiphyseal plate
B)epiphyseal line
C)metaphysis
D)diaphyseal line
E)diaphyseal plate
Q4) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.
Q5) Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the listed cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance,and articulate with the mandible?
A)Frontal
B)Temporal
C)Parietal
D)Occipital
E)Nasal
Q2) Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called A)floating ribs.
B)vertebrochondral ribs.
C)false ribs.
D)true ribs.
E)separated ribs.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
A)Parietal
B)Nasal
C)Maxillae
D)Zygomatic
E)Palatine
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: the Appendicular
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a way that the skeletal system contributes to homeostasis?
A)Provides support and protection for internal organs.
B)Stores and releases sodium ions.
C)Houses blood forming tissue.
D)Protects the brain and spinal cord.
E)Serves as attachment and leverage points for muscles.
Q2) Which of following bones is NOT a tarsal bone?
A)Talus
B)Calcaneus
C)Navicular
D)Cuneiform
E)Capitate
Q3) Which of the following carpal bones is named for its large hook-shaped projection on its anterior surface?
A)Lunate
B)Scaphoid
C)Triquetrum
D)Hamate
E)Pisiform
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) Disuse of a limb,like would occur when the limb is in a cast,leads to muscular atrophy and _____ of the affected joint.
A)increased range of motion
B)decreased range of motion
C)increased fluid accumulation in bursa
D)loosening of the tendons
E)chronic inflammation
Q2) Which functional class of joints contains joints that are freely movable?
1)Synarthrosis
2)Amphiarthrosis
3)Diarthrosis
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)Both 2 and 3
E)All of these choices
Q3) List the three structural categories of joints and briefly describe the criteria used for structural classification of joints.
Q4) Briefly describe what is happening when a person "cracks their knuckles".
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe aerobic cellular respiration in skeletal muscles?
A)Pyruvic acid generated by glycolysis enters the mitochondria.
B)O2 is essential.
C)CO2 is produced as a waste product.
D)Lactic acid is continually produced.
E)Can be used to generate ATP from fats,proteins or carbohydrates.
Q2) Which of the following regions of a sarcomere contain thin filaments?
A)I band
B)A band
C)H zone
D)Both I band and A band.
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
Q3) Which property of muscle gives it the ability to stretch without damage?
A)electrical excitability
B)contractility
C)extensibility
D)elasticity
E)thermogenesis
Q4) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System Unit Iii: Control Systems of the Human Body
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common arrangement of muscle fascicles?
A)pennate
B)triangular
C)oval
D)parallel
E)fusiform
Q2) The muscle that serves as the "prime mover" during a movement is called the A)antagonist. B)agonist.
C)synergist.
D)asynergist. E)fixator.
Q3) All of the following are muscles that move the eyeball EXCEPT A)superior rectus. B)lateral rectus.
C)inferior oblique.
D)internal oblique. E)superior oblique.
Q4) Name the three groups of muscles constituting the intrinsic muscles of the hand.Briefly describe the structure and function of each of these groups.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Which of following organelles is a common site of protein synthesis in neurons?
A)mitochondria
B)nucleus
C)Nissl body
D)Golgi apparatus
E)nucleolus
Q2) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells.
Q3) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to touch,pressure,vibration,or tissue stretching and is found in the auditory receptors of the ear,and in touch and pressure receptors in the skin.
A)leakage channel
B)ligand-gated channels
C)mechanically gated channels
D)voltage-gated channels
E)temperature-sensitive channel
Q4) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q5) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Which type of descending motor pathway originates in the brainstem and governs automatic movements that help regulate muscle tone,posture and balance?
A)Indirect pathway
B)Direct pathway
C)Reflex arc
D)Somatic arc
E)Muscle spindles
Q2) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.
Q3) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q4) Which of the following lists the connective tissue coverings of the axons,fascicles,and entire nerve in the correct order?
A)endoneurium,perineurium,epineurium
B)endoneurium,epineurium,perineurium
C)perineurium,epineurium,endoneurium
D)epineurium,endoneurium,perineurium
Q5) Name and describe the locations of the four major plexuses of spinal nerves.
Q6) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc.
Q7) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Hand preference when writing or throwing is an example of A)cranial nerve damage.
B)hemispheric lateralization.
C)damage to the olfactory nerve.
D)damage to the Broca's area.
E)None of these choices.
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the structure of the blood-brain barrier that provides its functional characteristics?
A)Processes of astrocytes wrap tightly around capillaries in the brain.
B)Tight junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain.
C)Gap junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain.
D)Spot desmosomes tightly link capillary endothelial cells together.
E)The basement membrane of capillaries in the brain contains extremely small pores.
Q3) The cerebellar cortex consists of folia,which are
A)parallel folds of white matter.
B)found in the vermis only.
C)portions of the pyramids.
D)parallel folds of gray matter.
E)used in the RAS system.
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic prevertebral ganglion?
A)Celiac ganglion
B)Ciliary ganglion
C)Superior mesenteric ganglion
D)Inferior mesenteric ganglion
E)All are prevertebral ganglia
Q2) Explain why the sympathetic division of the ANS has more widespread and longer-lasting effects than the parasympathetic division.
Q3) Interoceptors are found in
A)blood vessels
B)visceral organs
C)muscles
D)all of these choices
E)none of these choices
Q4) The largest autonomic plexus is called the
A)superior mesenteric plexus.
B)renal plexus.
C)cardiac plexus.
D)celiac plexus.
E)hypogastric plexus.
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Q1) You are sitting on a sunny Florida beach experiencing the sensation of warmth.Describe the anatomical structures and physiological events that allow you to perceive the warmth of the sun.
Q2) Synesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality results in perception of another.One man reportedly tastes shapes.Many synesthetic people hear colors.Based on what you know about sensation,propose a physiological mechanism that explains the phenomenon of synesthesia.
Q3) Which of the following does NOT occur during sleep?
A)Sympathetic division of ANS is stimulated.
B)Decreased heart rate.
C)Decreased blood pressure.
D)Skeletal muscle tone decreases.
E)Dream during REM sleep.
Q4) A viral infection has damaged a patient's tectospinal tract.What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?
Q5) What are the three types of sensory receptors categorized based on their location and the origin of stimuli that activate them? What is the nature of the stimuli that cause their excitation?
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Q1) How many days after fertilization do the ears begin to develop?
A)5
B)150
C)10
D)22
E)55
Q2) The smell receptors that actually bind the odorants and begin signal transduction are located on
A)olfactory hairs.
B)glial cells.
C)basal stem cells.
D)Bowman's glands.
E)gustatory receptor cells.
Q3) From which of the following layers of the developing embryo do the eyes develop?
A)endoderm
B)mesoderm
C)ectoderm
D)more than one layer contributes
E)none of these choices
Q4) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System Unit Iv: Maintenance of the Human Body
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Q1) Which of the following statements does NOT describe a step in the synthesis and secretion of T<sub>3</sub> and T<sub>4</sub>?
A)Iodide trapping
B)Oxidation of iodide
C)Coupling of T<sub>1</sub> and T<sub>2</sub>
D)Synthesis of calcitonin
E)Iodination of tyrosine
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a common response of the body to long-term stress?
A)Increased lipolysis
B)Increased glycogenesis
C)Increased gluconeogenesis
D)Increased digestive activities
E)Increased breakdown of proteins
Q3) Leptin is a hormone produced by the A)placenta.
B)ovaries.
C)testes.
D)pituitary gland.
E)adipose tissue.
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Q1) The process by which the formed elements of the blood develop is called A)hematospermia.
B)hemopoiesis.
C)thrombocytosis.
D)hemostasis.
E)polycythemia.
Q2) Describe the negative feedback loop that controls the rate of erythropoiesis.Under what circumstances would you expect the rate of erythropoiesis to increase? How would it be possible to tell if the rate of erythropoiesis is elevated?
Q3) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Q4) Reduced vitamin B<sub>12</sub> absorption from the small intestine due to reduced intrinsic factor production in the stomach results in condition called A)hemorrhagic anemia.
B)aplastic anemia.
C)megaloblastic anemia.
D)pernicious anemia.
E)iron deficiency anemia.
Q5) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Q1) Which part of the brain contains the cardiovascular center that regulates heart rate?
A)Midbrain
B)Cerebrum
C)Medulla oblongata
D)Cerebellum
E)Thalamus
Q2) Which of the following would lead to a decreased heart rate?
A)Increased norepinephrine release
B)Increased thyroid hormone release
C)Increased potassium levels in plasma
D)Increased calcium levels in plasma
E)Increased sympathetic stimulation
Q3) Which structure in the heart initiates action potentials that stimulate contraction of the heart at constant rate of about 100 beats per minute?
A)Cardiac accelerator nerves
B)Atrioventricular node
C)Cardiovascular center
D)Sinoatrial node
E)Bundle of His
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) Which of the following effectors would NOT be activated as described below in response to hypovolemic shock?
A)Adrenal cortex releases aldosterone.
B)Kidneys conserve salt and water.
C)Heart rate increases.
D)Systemic arterioles vasodilate.
E)Heart contractility increases.
Q2) In resting individuals,which vessels serve as a large blood reservoir from which blood can be quickly diverted to other vessels as needed?
A)Arteries and arterioles
B)Arterioles and capillaries
C)Venules and capillaries
D)Veins and venules
E)Aorta and veins
Q3) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
Q4) What is the main difference between the pulmonary and systemic circulations with respect to their autoregulatory response to changes in blood O<sub>2</sub> level?
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is an effect of stress on the immune system?
A)Increased activity of T lymphocytes
B)Increased activity of B lymphocytes
C)Activation of the immune system
D)Inhibition of the immune system
E)Increased production of antibodies
Q2) Natural exposure to an infectious agent leads to:
A)Passive immunity
B)Active immunity
C)Both of these choices
D)None of these choices
Q3) Which type of immunity defends against any type of invader?
A)Nonspecific
B)Specific
C)Cell mediated
D)Antibody mediated immunity
E)None of these choices
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
Q5) List the five actions of antibodies.
Page 24
Q6) Describe the barriers used in innate defense.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which structure prevents food or water from entering the trachea?
A)Arytenoid cartilage
B)Epiglottis
C)Nasopharynx
D)Thyroid cartilage
E)Paranasal sinus
Q2) Which of the following is an inhalation followed by many short convulsive exhalations during which the rima glottidis remains open and the vocal folds vibrate,accompanied by characteristic facial expressions?
A)sneezing
B)yawning
C)hiccupping
D)laughing
E)Valsalva maneuver
Q3) Which of the following are cells of the alveoli that produce surfactant?
A)Type I alveolar cells
B)Type II alveolar cells
C)Type III alveolar cells
D)Surface cells
E)Macrophages
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts on peptide bonds?
A)Chymotrypsin
B)Amylase
C)Pepsin
D)Phosphatase
E)Nucleosidase
Q2) Which structure of the stomach allows greater distension for food storage?
A)Cardia
B)Fundus
C)Pylorus
D)Rugae
E)Sphincter
Q3) Which of following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
Q4) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism
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Q1) Glycogenolysis is _____ and stimulated by _____.
A)Anabolic,Insulin
B)Catabolic,Epinephrine
C)Catabolic,Insulin
D)Anabolic,Epinephrine
E)Metathesis,Insulin
Q2) Which of the following is the key regulator of the rate of glycolysis?
A)ATP
B)NADH
C)Phosphofructokinase
D)Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
E)FAD
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a postabsorptive state reaction?
A)Breakdown of liver glycogen
B)Lipogenesis
C)Gluconeogenesis using lactic acid
D)Gluconeogenesis using amino acids
E)None of these choices
Q4) Identify the different types of lipoproteins and describe the function of each.
Q5) What is the difference between a complete protein and an incomplete protein?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) What is the normal specific gravity range of urine in humans?
A)2)350 - 3.700
B)0)002 - 1.000
C)4)6 - 8.0
D)1)001 - 1.035
E)1)04 - 2.60
Q2) Stress,causing excessive amounts of epinephrine secretion which stimulates glycogen breakdown,indicates which condition? This condition can also indicate diabetes mellitus.
A)albuminuria
B)glucosuria
C)urobilinogenuria
D)hematuria
E)bilirubinuria
Q3) Describe the structural features of the renal corpuscle that enhance its blood filtering capacity.
Q4) Trace the flow of a water molecule through the nephrons from the afferent arteriole to the minor calyx.
Q5) Describe the flow of blood through the kidneys.
Q6) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Homeostasis
Unit V: Continuity
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Q1) Which cells of the kidney are the most important for regulation of pH of body fluids?
A)Glomerular podocytes
B)Principal cells
C)PCT cells
D)DCT cells
E)Intercalated cells
Q2) Which of the following makes up the largest single component of the human body?
A)Skin
B)Water
C)Blood
D)Organs
E)Electrolytes
Q3) Which of the following is a function of an electrolyte in the body?
A)Controlling osmosis between compartments
B)Maintaining acid-base balance
C)Carry electrical currents
D)Serve as cofactors
E)All of these choices
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which structure is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicle and the ampulla of the vas deferens?
A)Urethra
B)Spermatic cord
C)Inguinal canal
D)Ejaculatory duct
E)Prostate
Q2) Which structure is the site of sperm production?
A)Vas deferens
B)Seminiferous tubules
C)Albuginea
D)Epididymis
E)Raphe
Q3) What structure attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall?
A)Broad ligament
B)Mesovarium
C)Ovarian ligament
D)Suspensory ligament
E)Hilum
Q4) Describe the functions of testosterone.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
75 Verified Questions
75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67112
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the time from the onset of labor to the complete dilation of the cervix?
A)Stage of dilation
B)Stage of expulsion
C)Placental stage
D)Gestation
E)Effacement
Q2) Which condition listed gives rise to individuals that are: somewhat mentally disadvantaged,sterile males with undeveloped testes,scant body hair,and enlarged breasts?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)Breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q3) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Q4) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
Q5) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
Q6) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
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