Human Anatomy and Physiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology provides an in-depth exploration of the structure and function of the human body. The course covers the organization of the body from cellular to system levels, examining major systems such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students learn the interrelationships between anatomical structures and physiological processes, gaining a comprehensive understanding of how the body maintains homeostasis, responds to stimuli, and adapts to environmental changes. Emphasis is placed on clinically relevant concepts and the application of anatomical and physiological knowledge to health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person lying face down is in the ________ position.
Answer: prone
Q2) The diaphragm muscle separates the ________ from the ________.
A)pleural cavity; mediastinum
B)thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
C)pericardial cavity; pleural cavity
D)abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
E)pericardial sac; pericardial cavity
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following study methods are useful for anatomy and physiology courses?
A)Read the lecture sections before class.
B)Devote a block of time for study.
C)Do not procrastinate.
D)Develop memorization skills.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q4) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs,heart,trachea,esophagus,thymus,major blood vessels connected to the heart
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms,a(n)________ occurs.
A)single covalent bond
B)double covalent bond
C)triple covalent bond
D)polar covalent bond
E)hydrogen bond
Answer: D
Q2) Atoms of the same element whose nuclei contain the same number of protons,but different numbers of neutrons,are called ________.
Answer: isotopes
Q3) All fatty acids contain a functional group at one end called the ________.
Answer: carboxylic acid group
Q4) Carbohydrate molecules
A)are the building blocks of cellular membranes.
B)form the regulatory molecules known as enzymes.
C)are the body's most readily available source of energy.
D)are composed of C,H,O,and N atoms.
E)contain the genetic information found in cells.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of the cell cycle has the most variable duration?
A)S phase
B)G phase
C)G phase
D)G phase
E)V phase
Answer: B
Q2) A)What are the similarities between facilitated diffusion and active transport?
B)What are the differences?
Answer: A)Both processes use carrier proteins and exhibit saturation.B)Facilitated diffusion is driven by a concentration gradient,does not consume ATP,and so is "passive," whereas active transport is active,consumes ATP,and moves a substance up its concentration gradient.
Q3) When activated,lysosomes function in
A)formation of new cell membranes.
B)synthesis of proteins.
C)digestion of foreign material.
D)synthesis of lipids.
E)cell division.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two major types of cell layering in epithelia are
A)simple and proper.
B)stratified and pseudostratified.
C)squamous and simple.
D)simple and stratified.
E)cuboidal and columnar.
Q2) Functions of epithelia include all of the following,except
A)providing physical protection.
B)controlling permeability.
C)absorption.
D)producing specialized secretions.
E)supporting muscle cells.
Q3) Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by A)keratin.
B)interfacial canals.
C)a basal lamina.
D)a reticular lamina.
E)proteoglycan.
Q4) Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A full-thickness burn injury can be life threatening.A physician treating a burn victim would likely order all of the following,except
A)IV (intravenous)fluids and electrolytes.
B)ice packs applied to the burn area.
C)a high-calorie diet.
D)skin grafts.
E)antibiotics.
Q2) The ________ in keratinocytes protects the epidermis and dermis from the harmful effects of sunlight.
A)sebum
B)hemoglobin
C)melanin
D)carotene
E)keratin
Q3) The combination of fibrin clot,fibroblasts,and extensive capillary network that is formed in injured skin is called ________.
Q4) Explain why the rate of dehydration is greater when a person is immersed in seawater than when in fresh water.
Q5) A bruise turns "black and blue" because of ________ in the dermis.
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause.During a checkup,a bone scan reveals the beginnings of osteoporosis.Her physician suggests hormone therapy.What hormone might she prescribe for her patient?
A)thyroid hormone
B)growth hormone
C)estrogen
D)parathyroid hormone
E)calcitonin
Q2) The superficial membrane of a bone is called the ________.
Q3) The humerus is an example of a(n)________ bone.
A)long
B)short
C)flat
D)irregular
E)sesamoid
Q4) A(n)________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone.
Q5) The process of depositing calcium into a tissue is called ________.
Q6) The narrow region between the head and shaft of a long bone is called the ________.
Q7) A(n)________ or closed fracture does not break the skin.
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of A)transverse processes.
B)transverse foramina.
C)facets for the articulation of ribs.
D)notched spinous processes.
E)costal cartilages.
Q2) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense(s)of A)balance.
B)hearing and balance.
C)smell and taste.
D)vision.
E)touch.
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?
A)skull
B)false ribs
C)sternum
D)hyoid
E)pelvic girdle
Q4) The condition in which distortions of the skull occur due to the premature closure of fontanelles is called ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trochlea is located on the ________.
Q2) Identify the bone labeled "1."
A)talus
B)calcaneus
C)cuneiform V
D)cuboid
E)metatarsal
Q3) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux.What part of his anatomy is injured?
A)his hand
B)his foot
C)his ankle
D)his knee
E)his hip
Q4) When standing normally,most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the
A)distal ends of the metatarsals and calcaneus.
B)talus and proximal metatarsals.
C)calcaneus and talus.
D)talus and cuneiforms.
E)calcaneus and proximal metatarsals.
Q5) The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An extension past the anatomical position is known as A)double-jointed.
B)extension.
C)flexion.
D)rotation.
E)hyperextension.
Q2) A freely movable joint is a(n)
A)synarthrosis.
B)diarthrosis.
C)amphiarthrosis.
D)syndesmosis.
E)symphysis.
Q3) The glenoid fossa is rimmed by the fibrocartilaginous ________.
Q4) The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a(n)________ joint.
A)saddle
B)gliding
C)condylar
D)hinge
E)pivot
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?
A)Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons and aponeuroses.
B)Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control.
C)Smooth muscle cells are uninucleate.
D)Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres.
E)The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies.
Q2) Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?
A)produce movement
B)maintain posture
C)maintain body temperature
D)guard body entrances and exits
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Muscular force can be adjusted to match different loads by
A)varying the frequency of action potentials in motor neurons.
B)recruiting larger motor units.
C)recruiting more motor units.
D)involving more muscle fibers in the contraction.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) An infection by the bacterium Clostridium tetani can cause the disease called
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ covers the anterior surface of the neck.
A)buccinator
B)epicranium
C)occipitofrontalis
D)orbicularis oris
E)platysma
Q2) Which of the following originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
A)flexor carpi radialis
B)flexor carpi ulnaris
C)palmaris longus
D)pronator teres
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The scalenes have their origin on the
A)transverse and costal processes of cervical vertebrae.
B)inferior border of the previous rib.
C)superior border of the next rib.
D)cartilages of the ribs.
E)thoracodorsal fascia and iliac crest.
Q4) The four prominent muscles on the anterior thigh comprise the ________ muscle group.
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Chapter 12: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter
A)norepinephrine.
B)adrenalin.
C)serotonin.
D)acetylcholine.
E)GABA.
Q2) If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function,all of the following occur,except
A)the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase.
B)the neuron will slowly depolarize.
C)the membrane will slowly lose its capacity to generate action potentials.
D)the inside of the membrane will have a resting potential that is more positive than normal.
E)the intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase.
Q3) Which of the following is true about threshold for an action potential?
A)It is more positive than the resting potential.
B)Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to close.
C)Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to open.
D)The membrane begins to hyperpolarize.
E)Threshold for a typical neuron is approximately -30 mV.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "5."
A)autonomic nerve
B)autonomic ganglion
C)rami communicantes
D)dorsal root ganglion
E)ventral root
Q2) In meningitis,
A)inflammation of the meninges occurs.
B)bacteria can be the cause.
C)viruses can be the cause.
D)CSF flow can be disrupted.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The obturator nerve is distributed to the
A)adductors of the hip.
B)skin over the perineum.
C)extensors of the hip.
D)skin over buttocks.
E)biceps femoris.
Q4) The most complicated spinal reflexes are called ________.
Page 15
Q5) In a(n)________ reflex,a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Higher-order functions
A)can be adjusted over time based on experience.
B)involve complex interactions among areas of the cortex.
C)combine both conscious and unconscious information processing.
D)occur in the cerebrum.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is (are)true of the epithalamus?
A)contains the mamillary body
B)forms the roof of the diencephalon
C)processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum
D)forms the cerebrum
E)creates the lateral ventricles
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A)olfactory bulb
B)optic chiasm
C)oculomotor nerve
D)infundibulum
E)mamillary body
Q4) The optic nerve crosses at the ________.
Q5) The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching array called the ________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Neural Integration I: Sensory Pathways and the
Somatic Nervous
System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis.Which descending tract is most likely affected?
A)corticospinal tract
B)tectospinal tract
C)rubrospinal tract
D)corticobulbar tract
E)reticulospinal tract
Q2) The cerebellum relies on information from
A)the eyes.
B)the inner ear as movements are underway.
C)proprioceptive sensations.
D)motor commands from upper motor neurons.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) A receptor potential may
A)increase neurotransmitter release.
B)decrease neurotransmitter release.
C)be a hyperpolarization.
D)be a depolarization.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Ascending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information.
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Chapter 16: Neural Integration Ii: the Autonomic Nervous System
and
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest."
A)sympathetic
B)parasympathetic
C)thoracolumbar
D)visceral
E)somatomotor
Q2) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic region are called ________ ganglia.
A)intramural
B)collateral
C)chain
D)paravertebral
E)suprarenal
Q3) Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the A)lateral gray horns of the cervical cord.
B)anterior gray horns of the cervical and thoracic spinal cord.
C)lateral gray horns of segments T to L of the spinal cord.
D)anterior gray horns of segments T to L of the spinal cord.
Page 18
E)lateral gray horns of T to S of the spinal cord.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Photoreceptor that convey our ability to see color are ________.
Q2) Low frequency sounds stimulate hair cells on which part of the basilar membrane?
A)area close to the round window
B)the entire membrane
C)the distal end
D)the middle region
E)area close to the oval window
Q3) The elevated ridges within the ampullae of the semicircular canals that support the hair cells are known as a ________.
Q4) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate.They synapse on neurons in the
A)medulla oblongata.
B)medial geniculate.
C)cerebral cortex.
D)olfactory bulb.
E)olfactory tract.
Q5) When ________,the visual system becomes extremely sensitive to stimulation.
Q6) The olfactory receptors are highly modified ________.
Q7) The secretion commonly called earwax is produced by ________ glands.
Page 19
Q8) Photoreceptor cells that are most useful in dim light are ________.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The suprarenal medulla produces A)androgens.
B)glucocorticoids.
C)mineralocorticoids.
D)catecholamines.
E)corticosteroids.
Q2) Which gland is called the "emergency gland" and helps the body adjust to stress?
A)thyroid
B)adrenal (suprarenal)
C)pituitary
D)pancreas
E)thymus
Q3) The pituitary hormone that causes the kidney to reduce water loss is A)TSH.
B)FSH.
C)MSH.
D)STH.
E)ADH.
Q4) Receptors for ________,peptide hormones,and eicosanoids are found in the cell membranes of target cells.
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins in the blood for defense are called ________.
Q2) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by A)platelets.
B)megakaryocytes.
C)the liver.
D)the kidneys.
E)the spleen.
Q3) The average life span of a red blood cell is A)24 hours.
B)1 month.
C)4 months.
D)about 1 year.
E)many years.
Q4) Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn:
A)mother Rh positive,baby Rh negative
B)mother Rh negative,baby Rh negative
C)mother Rh negative,baby Rh positive
D)mother type A+,baby type O+
E)None of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient's resting cardiac output is 5.6 l/min and on a stress test she elevated her heart rate to a maximum of 176 beats/min with a stroke volume of 115 ml/beat,what is her cardiac reserve? Show your work.
Q2) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show which of the following?
A)switch to anaerobic metabolism
B)release of enzymes into the circulation
C)release of troponin T and I into the circulation
D)release of CK-MB into the circulation
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of
A)cardiac muscle cells.
B)chondrocytes.
C)epitheliocytes.
D)fibrocytes.
E)smooth muscle cells.
Q4) The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the ________.
Q5) The ________ is shared by the two ventricles.
Q6) The amount of blood returning to the heart is the ________.
Q7) As the heart rate slows,________ gets longer.
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some of the fluid that is forced out of capillaries is returned to the blood by the:
A)muscular arteries
B)liver
C)hepatic portal vein
D)venules
E)lymphatic system
Q2) The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called
A)arteries.
B)arterioles.
C)capillaries.
D)venules.
E)veins.
Q3) Veins of the upper arm include the ________ vein(s).
A)basilic
B)cephalic
C)brachial
D)ulnar
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Blood from the brain is drained by the ________.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and may activate antibody production are
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.
Q2) In an experimental situation,a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies.These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease.This is an example of A)innate immunity.
B)active immunization.
C)passive immunization.
D)natural immunity.
E)alloimmunity.
Q3) Hormones that make a cell and its neighbors resistant to virus infection are called
Q4) The attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment is called
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Decompression sickness is a painful condition that develops when a person is exposed to a sudden drop in atmospheric pressure.Bubbles of ________ gas are responsible for the problem.
A)nitrogen
B)oxygen
C)carbon dioxide
D)helium
E)carbon monoxide
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A)olfactory organ
B)oropharynx
C)nasopharynx
D)internal nares
E)nasal sinus
Q3) Secondary bronchi supply air to the
A)lungs.
B)lobes of the lungs.
C)lobules of the lungs.
D)alveoli.
E)alveolar ducts.
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pancreas produces
A)lipases and amylase.
B)nucleases.
C)peptidases and proteinases.
D)sodium bicarbonate.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Brunner glands are characteristic of the A)stomach.
B)duodenum.
C)jejunum.
D)ileum.
E)colon.
Q3) The greater omentum is A)the entrance to the stomach.
B)attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature.
C)important in the digestion of fats.
D)a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
E)a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.
Q4) Upon swallowing,food moves from the mouth into the ________.
Q5) The middle segment of the small intestine is called the ________.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen is an important molecule in which of the following:
A)citric acid cycle and ETS
B)glycolysis,citric acid cycle,and ETS
C)citric acid cycle only
D)glycolysis only
E)ETS only
Q2) The term ________ refers to an unhealthy state resulting from inadequate intake of one or more nutrients that becomes life-threatening as the deficiencies accumulate.
Q3) Lipoproteins that carry mostly cholesterol to peripheral tissues are called
Q4) The strategy of eating starchy foods for several days before an athletic event is known as
A)carbohydrate craving.
B)the Atkins diet.
C)carbohydrate loading.
D)glycolysis reaction.
E)overeating.
Q5) Inorganic ions released through the dissociation of electrolytes are called
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) The following is a list of the blood vessels that carry blood to the kidney. 1. afferent arteriole
2) arcuate artery
3) interlobar artery
4) renal artery
5) glomerulus
6) cortical radiate artery
7) efferent arteriole
8) peritubular capillary
The proper order in which blood passes through these vessels is
A)4,6,2,3,1,5,7,8.
B)4,3,2,6,1,5,7,8.
C)4,3,2,6,7,5,1,8.
D)4,6,2,3,7,5,1,8.
E)4,3,6,2,1,5,7,8.
Q2) In glomerulonephritis,the normal filtration barrier is damaged and becomes far more permeable to plasma proteins,such as albumin along with other solutes.How would that affect glomerular filtration?
Q3) The amount of filtrate produced by the kidneys each minute is called the
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Chapter 27: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Will hyperventilation raise or lower pH?
Q2) Which of the following will stimulate thirst?
A)drying the mucosa of the mouth and pharynx
B)angiotensin II acting on the hypothalamus
C)an increase in the osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid within the hypothalamus
D)stimulation of osmoreceptors
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) A chemical that minimizes changes in the pH of a body fluid by releasing or binding hydrogen ion is called a(n)
A)electrolyte.
B)acid.
C)alkali.
D)compensation.
E)buffer.
Q4) Fred has chronic emphysema.Blood tests show that his pH is low but almost normal but his bicarbonate levels are elevated significantly.How can this be? What would urinalysis show?
Q5) A ________ consists of a combination of a weak acid and its associated anion.
Q6) A ________ acid is an acid that cannot leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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196 Verified Questions
196 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34537
Sample Questions
Q1) A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for A)follicle maturation.
B)menstruation.
C)ovulation.
D)menopause.
E)atresia.
Q2) A sample of a woman's blood is analyzed for reproductive hormone levels.The results indicate a high level of progesterone,relatively high levels of inhibin,and low levels of FSH and LH.The female is most likely experiencing ________ of the uterine cycle.
A)the proliferative phase
B)menses
C)the secretory phase
D)menarche
E)menopause
Q3) Impotence is defined as an inability to achieve or maintain an ________.
Q4) Primary spermatocytes are produced by mitosis of cells called ________.
Q5) The ________ is the part of the sperm that contains the DNA.
Q6) The most important androgen is ________.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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140 Verified Questions
140 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34538
Sample Questions
Q1) The term ________ refers to the time spent in prenatal development.
Q2) The extraembryonic membrane that forms a fluid-filled sac is the A)yolk sac.
B)amnion.
C)allantois.
D)chorion.
E)decidua.
Q3) ________ is the medical specialty that focuses on postnatal development from infancy to adolescence.
A)Geriatrics
B)Orthopedics
C)Pediatrics
D)Psychiatrics
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q4) Identify the stage labeled "12."
A)zygote
B)early morula
C)blastocyst
D)trophoblast
E)late morula
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