Human Anatomy and Physiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology is an in-depth exploration of the structure and function of the human body. This course covers the organization of the body from the cellular to the systemic level, examining the major organ systems such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will learn how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis and support life processes. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical demonstrations, the course provides foundational knowledge essential for health science fields, emphasizing the integration of anatomical structure with physiological function.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Disease 6th Edition by Patton
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25 Chapters
3620 Verified Questions
3620 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Structure and Function of the Body
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121 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dorsal cavity includes the spinal cavity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Cells
A) are more complex than tissues
B) are the first level of organization in the body
C) are the smallest living units of structure and function in the body
D) both B and C
Answer: C
Q3) level made up of groups of tissues working together to perform a task
A)chemical level
B)cellular level
C)tissue level
D)organ level
E)system level
F)organism
Answer: D
Q4) Describe the anatomical position.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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127 Verified Questions
127 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A triglyceride contains two fatty acid molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) An atom with 11 protons,12 neutrons,and 10 electrons has a +1 charge.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) All molecules are not necessarily compounds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Which of the following is not true of proteins?
A) They have water-repelling tails.
B) They are made up of amino acids.
C) They contain nitrogen.
D) They contain peptide bonds.
Answer: A
Q5) Describe the three types of lipids and give the function of each.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are rod-shaped structures that are important in cell division?
A) ribosomes
B) mitochondria
C) Golgi apparatus
D) centrioles
Answer: D
Q2) Pinocytosis comes from the Greek word meaning "cell eating."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Flagella are extremely fine hairlike extensions on the exposed surface of certain cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Microvilli are small hairlike structures on the outer surface of the cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) tissue that has few cells embedded in the intercellular matrix
A)epithelial
B)connective
C)muscle
D)nerve
Q2) There are three types of muscle tissue in the body: skeletal,voluntary,and smooth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) single layer of cells; some are tall and thin and reach the free surface,and others do not
A)simple squamous
B)simple cuboidal
C)simple columnar
D)pseudostratified columnar
E)stratified squamous
F)transitional
Q4) Epithelium is rich with blood supply.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Organ Systems of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances is not carried by the cardiovascular system?
A) lymph
B) hormones
C) carbon dioxide
D) nutrients
Q2) system that produces ova
A)lymphatic and immune systems
B)respiratory system
C)digestive system
D)urinary system
E)male reproductive system
F)female reproductive system
Q3) Hormones are produced by the ductless glands of the endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the organs of the endocrine system and explain how it functions differently than the nervous system.
Q5) The sense organs of the body are part of the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Mechanisms of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a benign tumor that arises from connective tissue is A) osteoma
B) melanoma
C) adenoma
D) lymphoma
Q2) Explain why bacteria that form spores are potentially more dangerous than bacteria that don't form spores.
Q3) The mosquito is necessary for the spread of
A) HIV
B) West Nile virus
C) severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
D) mad cow disease
Q4) An example of a malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is A) osteoma
B) melanoma
C) adenoma
D) lymphoma
Q5) A melanoma is an example of a sarcoma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Integumentary System and Body
Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of the hair that we see is called the hair shaft.
A)True
B)False
Q2) inner layer of the epidermis that is in constant mitosis
A)hypodermis
B)hair papilla
C)dermal papillae
D)Meissner corpuscle
E)stratum corneum
F)lanugo
G)melanin
H)eccrine gland
I)stratum germinativum
J)arrector pili
K)sebaceous gland
L)lunula
M)apocrine gland
N)Pacini corpuscle
Q3) Explain the differences among first-,second-,third-,and fourth-degree burns.
Q4) Describe the connective tissue membranes of the body.
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) bone that joins with the clavicle to make up the shoulder girdle
A)femur
B)radius
C)carpals
D)ischium
E)metacarpals
F)scapula
G)tarsals
H)patella
I)humerus
J)phalanges
K)tibia
L)metatarsals
Q2) There are 28 phalanges in the human skeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cartilage cells are called chondrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and explain the five functions of the skeletal system.
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Chapter 9: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endurance training results in
A) muscle atrophy
B) an increase in blood vessels to a muscle
C) muscle hypertrophy
D) an increase in muscle fibers
Q2) Explain the differences among a sprain,a strain,and a cramp.
Q3) one of the three layered muscles on the side of the abdominal wall
A)external oblique
B)gastrocnemius
C)quadriceps
D)intercostal muscles
E)tibialis anterior
F)hamstring muscles
G)gluteus maximus
H)rectus abdominis
Q4) Unlike skeletal muscles,smooth muscle cells have only one nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define isotonic and isometric contractions and give an example of each.
Q6) Explain how the intercalated disks allow the heart to contract more efficiently.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sympathetic nervous system is also called the cerebrosacral system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pia mater,the arachnoid mater,and the dura mater are part of the meninges.
A)True
B)False
Q3) star-shaped cells that hold neurons and blood vessels close to each other in the brain
A)microglia
B)axon
C)dendrites
D)oligodendrocyte
E)afferent neuron
F)astrocytes
G)efferent neuron
H)interneurons
I)nodes of Ranvier
J)Schwann cells
Q4) Explain the role of oligodendrocytes in multiple sclerosis.
Q5) Describe the structure,location,and functions of the hypothalamus.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Senses
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153 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sense of touch can be considered a
A) general sense
B) special sense
C) chemoreceptor
D) both B and C
Q2) Another name for "ringing in the ear" is otitis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) the middle layer of the eyeball that contains dark pigment
A)rod
B)sclera
C)lens
D)pupil
E)cone
F)choroid
G)iris
H)fovea
I)cornea
J)optic disc
Q4) What is glaucoma and what are some of its signs or symptoms?
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Chapter 12: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first action of some nonsteroid hormones after they attach to their receptors is to cause a change in the cell's ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q2) receptor site for this type of hormone is inside the nucleus of the cell
A)endocrine gland
B)negative feedback
C)target organ cell
D)steroid hormone
E)prostaglandin
F)exocrine gland
G)nonsteroid hormone
H)cyclic AMP
I)positive feedback
Q3) Graves disease and myxedema have the same cause; it just depends on when in life the deficiency occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain and give an example of a negative feedback regulation of a hormone.
Q5) Explain why the hypothalamus,a brain structure,is included in this chapter.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with type A blood has
A) anti-A antibodies
B) A antigens
C) anti-B antibodies
D) both B and C
Q2) An Rh-positive mother should be concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis under which circumstance?
A) If the father is Rh-negative,the Rh-positive mother should be concerned.
B) If this is her second child and she has not taken RhoGAM,Rh-positive mother should be concerned.
C) She should not be at all concerned about erythroblastosis fetalis.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q3) Which clotting disorder is an inherited X-linked disorder?
A) thrombosis
B) thrombocytopenia
C) hemophilia
D) embolism
Q4) Jaundice can be a symptom of aplastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
15
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Chapter 14: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) A stenosed pulmonary semilunar valve slows the blood moving into the artery that leads to the lung.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the conduction system of the heart.
Q3) The thin layer of tissue that lines the chambers of the heart is called the visceral pericardium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) the volume of blood pumped by one ventricle per minute
A)visceral pericardium
B)systole
C)atria
D)stroke volume
E)diastole
F)cardiac output
G)ventricles
H)parietal pericardium
I)sinoatrial node
J)endocardium
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Chapter 15: The Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure in the fetus carries oxygen-rich blood from the mother to the baby?
A) umbilical vein
B) umbilical artery
C) ductus arteriosus
D) ductus venosus
Q2) Which type of shock results from a loss of sympathetic impulses sent to the smooth muscles of the blood vessels?
A) cardiogenic shock
B) neurogenic shock
C) anaphylactic shock
D) septic shock
Q3) Many medications are inactivated by the enzymes in the liver.These medications are almost always given intravenously or by injection into a muscle,not orally.Explain why these medications must be given this way.
Q4) The foramen ovale shunts blood from the right ventricle into the left ventricle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is an aneurysm?
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Chapter 16: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Special clusters of lymph nodes in the intestine are called lacteals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the location and function of the spleen.Describe and give the cause of splenomegaly.
Q3) Both lymph capillaries and blood capillaries are made of endothelium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Being immune from mumps because you had them as a child is an example of artificial active immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) "Lifelong" immunity would most likely be natural or artificial active immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how lymph is formed and how it returns to the blood.
Q7) Give an example of a congenital immune deficiency.
Q8) A person cannot get Dutch elm disease because of an inherited immunity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how the structure of the alveoli increases the efficiency of gas exchange in the lung.
Q2) Describe the conditions of emphysema and asthma.
Q3) the amount of air moved in and out of the lung during normal breathing
A)oxyhemoglobin
B)vital capacity
C)pulmonary ventilation
D)chemoreceptors
E)tidal volume
F)external respiration
G)bicarbonate ion
H)residual volume
I)internal respiration
J)pulmonary stretch receptors
Q4) Describe the structure of the larynx.What is the function of the epiglottis?
Q5) Briefly describe the structure of the nose.Describe the paranasal sinuses and their function.
Q6) The functions of the conchae include warming and humidifying inspired air.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trypsin would be considered a protease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hard palate is made up of two bones,the maxillary and the sphenoid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The cone-shaped structure hanging down from the soft palate is called the
A) frenulum
B) papillae
C) uvula
D) palatine tonsil
Q4) The perfectly smooth walls of the small intestine ensure food moves through it more efficiently.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most gastric and duodenal ulcers result from infection with the bacterium H.pylori.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List and describe the four types of teeth.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even though they are not used for energy or structure,vitamins and minerals are required for proper nutrition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the liver?
A) producing plasma proteins
B) producing bile for the chemical digestion of fat
C) helping maintain the proper blood glucose level
D) All of the above are functions of the liver.
Q3) What is the BMR? What is meant by basal conditions?
Q4) One end product of the anabolic process is energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not true of anabolism?
A) Anabolism releases energy.
B) It is part of metabolism.
C) It builds smaller molecules into larger molecules.
D) All of the above are true of anabolism.
Q6) Explain the role of the hepatic portal system in helping to maintain a constant source of nutrients for the body.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The urinary system consists of two kidneys,two urethras,one bladder,and one ureter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which structure is between the proximal and distal convoluted tubules?
A) Bowman capsule
B) loop of Henle
C) glomerulus
D) renal corpuscle
Q3) Which of the following parts of the kidney is actually an expansion of the upper end of the ureter?
A) renal pelvis
B) renal medulla
C) renal cortex
D) calyx
Q4) Describe the structure and function of the urethra.Explain the differences between the male and female urethra.
Q5) Someone with anuria produces more urine than someone with oliguria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) one mechanism that causes a decrease in the interstitial fluid volume
A)ion
B)dehydration
C)intracellular fluid
D)hypokalemia
E)ADH
F)decrease in capillary blood pressure
G)ANH
H)hypocalcemia
I)drop in blood protein levels
J)electrolyte
K)hyponatremia
L)overhydration
M)aldosterone
N)interstitial fluid
O)edema
Q2) Women tend to have a higher percentage of body water than do men.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the mechanism by which aldosterone helps maintain fluid homeostasis.
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Chapter 22: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define blood acidosis and blood alkalosis.
Q2) condition that is caused by carbonic acid deficit
A)buffer
B)metabolic acidosis
C)acid solution
D)respiratory alkalosis
E)respiratory system
F)metabolic alkalosis
G)alkaline solution
H)kidney system
I)respiratory acidosis
J)neutral solution
Q3) Explain how the buffer system functions to buffer a strong acid.
Q4) When the kidneys have acidified the urine,the level of NaHCO<sub>3</sub> in the blood leaving the kidneys is much lower than the level of NaHCO<sub>3</sub> in the blood entering the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In uncompensated metabolic acidosis,what mechanism removes the excess H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
24
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Chapter 23: The Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outcome of oogenesis is one large egg containing 23 chromosomes and three polar bodies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) involves a collection of symptoms that regularly occur in some women during the secretory phase of their reproductive cycle
A)salpingitis
B)oophoritis
C)amenorrhea
D)ovarian cysts
E)uterine myoma
F)dysfunctional uterine bleeding
G)dysmenorrhea
H)premenstrual syndrome
I)endometriosis
Q3) The function of the acrosome in the sperm is to
A) store mitochondria to supply energy to the sperm
B) store enzymes to help break down the covering of the ovum
C) reduce the number of chromosomes from 46 to 23
D) propel the sperm
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Chapter 24: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) If all other criteria for the Apgar score were equal,a baby who is underweight would have a lower score than a baby of normal weight.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The loss of hair cells in the organ of Corti causes a decline in the hearing ability in older adults.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The period of infancy occurs for
A) 4 weeks after birth
B) a year
C) 18 months
D) 2 years
Q4) What changes or developmental events occur during adulthood?
Q5) The science of the development of the individual before birth is called neonatology. A)True
B)False
Q6) Define and give three examples of a teratogen.
Q7) When is infancy? What changes or developmental events occur during infancy?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Genetics and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of crossing-over helps prevent genetic variation in the offspring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term genetic disease means the same thing as genetic predisposition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All mutations are harmful to the organism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A woman younger than 19 has a higher likelihood of producing a child with Down syndrome than a woman older than 20.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The final step in gene expression is frequently an enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Viruses and bacteria can be mutagens.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Explain the cause and symptoms of cystic fibrosis.
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