Health Sciences Fundamentals Exam Review - 2281 Verified Questions

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Health Sciences Fundamentals

Exam Review

Course Introduction

Health Sciences Fundamentals provides an essential introduction to the core concepts, disciplines, and practices within the health sciences field. Covering the biological, behavioral, social, and environmental factors that influence individual and population health, this course examines the roles of various health professionals and explores key systems and policies shaping healthcare delivery. Students gain foundational knowledge in topics such as human anatomy and physiology, medical terminology, epidemiology, and public health, preparing them for further study and diverse careers in health-related fields.

Recommended Textbook

The Human Body in Health and Illness 6th Edition by Barbara Herlihy

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27 Chapters

2281 Verified Questions

2281 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which group is incorrect?

A)Cavities : dorsal,ventral

B)Ventral cavities : thoracic,abdominopelvic

C)Organ systems : circulatory,digestive,respiratory,brain

D)Organs : heart,stomach,lungs,liver

Answer: C

Q2) The medial canthus (corner) of the eye is

A)located near the nose.

B)located near the ear.

C)superior to the eyebrow.

D)inferior to the eyelid.

Answer: A

Q3) Which of the following is superior to the umbilicus?

A)Groin

B)Popliteal area

C)Sternal area

D)Pelvic cavity

Answer: C

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3

Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following carries no net electrical charge?

A)An anion

B)A cation

C)A polar molecule

D)An ion

Answer: C

Q2) What kind of ion would have 8 protons in its nucleus and 9 electrons in its orbits?

A)Cation

B)Electrolyte

C)Acid

D)Anion

Answer: D

Q3) An electrolyte

A)dissociates into ions.

B)yields only cations.

C)always yields H<sup>+</sup> and lowers pH.

D)always removes H<sup>+</sup> and increases pH.

Answer: A

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Chapter 3: Cells

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell?

A)Mitochondrion

B)Nucleus

C)Lysosome

D)Centriole

Answer: B

Q2) Oxygen moves from the lungs (high concentration) into the blood (low concentration) in response to

A)filtration.

B)osmosis.

C)diffusion.

D)endocytosis.

Answer: C

Q3) Which process describes phagocytosis and pinocytosis?

A)Facilitated diffusion

B)Endocytosis

C)Filtration

D)Exocytosis

Answer: B

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) This substance is composed of glycerol and three fatty acids.

A)Glycogen

B)Polypeptide

C)Steroid

D)Triglyceride

Q2) Which of the following is true of base sequencing?

A)Occurs within the mitochondrion

B)Occurs along the ribosome

C)Stores the genetic code

D)Is a function of the Krebs cycle

Q3) Starch is classified as a(n)

A)lipid.

B)fatty acid.

C)amino acid.

D)polysaccharide.

Q4) Gluconeogenesis is a process that makes

A)glucose from glycogen.

B)glucose from protein.

C)protein from glucose.

D)protein from fat.

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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following refers to a process that destroys all living organisms?

A)Nosocomial

B)Commensal

C)Sterilization

D)Colonization

Q2) Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum?

A)Causes syphilis

B)Classified as a bacterium

C)Is most often spread by the fecal-oral route

D)Is a spirochete

Q3) Which disease is caused by a sporozoan carried by a mosquito?

A)Typhoid fever

B)Tetanus

C)Malaria

D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Q4) A mycotic infection is caused by a(n)

A)parasite.

B)bacterium.

C)fungus.

D)arthropod.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (e.g. ,urinary bladder)?

A)Transitional epithelium

B)Loose connective tissue

C)Adipose tissue

D)Simple squamous epithelium

Q2) Stratified means

A)flat and shiny.

B)layered.

C)striped.

D)hard.

Q3) Which group is incorrect?

A)Appearance of muscle: striated and smooth

B)Types of cartilage: hyaline,elastic,fibrocartilage

C)Types of epithelial membranes: cutaneous,mucous,serous

D)Types of connective tissue: tendons,ligaments,fat,glia

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8

Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true of sebaceous glands?

A)They are exocrine glands.

B)They are primarily responsible for temperature regulation.

C)They secrete melanin in response to ultraviolet radiation.

D)They secrete vitamin D in response to ultraviolet radiation.

Q2) Eccrine glands

A)are sweat glands.

B)secrete sebum.

C)are active only after puberty.

D)arise within the hypodermis.

Q3) Which action is most likely to lower body temperature?

A)Shivering

B)Vasoconstriction

C)Cyanosis

D)Vasodilation

Q4) The normal body temperature

A)is 96.8°.

B)is highest at 7 AM and gradually decreases over the 24 hours.

C)is maintained through thermoregulatory mechanisms.

D)is 40°C.

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Chapter 8: Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which bone is formed by the ischium,ilium,and pubis?

A)Sacrum

B)Cranium

C)Coxal bone

D)Breastbone

Q2) At which joint do the femur and coxal bone meet?

A)Hip

B)Knee

C)Ankle

D)Wrist

Q3) Which group is incorrect?

A)Spinal curvatures: cervical,thoracic,lumbar,sacral

B)Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis,kyphosis,lordosis

C)Types of ribs: true,false,floating

D)Types of freely movable joints: hinge,ball-and-socket,and suture

Q4) Which of the following word(s) is (are) related to the ribs?

A)Acetabulum

B)True,false,and floating

C)Supination and pronation

D)Fontanels

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Chapter 9: Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The orbicularis oculi

A)encircles the eye.

B)is the kissing muscle.

C)purses the lips.

D)lifts the eyelid.

Q2) What is the name of the cord of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone?

A)Ligament

B)Tendon

C)Linea alba

D)Aponeurosis

Q3) To which contractile protein does calcium bind?

A)Troponin

B)Tropomyosin

C)Actin

D)Thick filament

Q4) Muscle relaxation

A)is a response to the binding of ACh to the receptor.

B)occurs when calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

C)is a response to the inactivation of acetylcholinesterase by ACh.

D)occurs when the tendons lengthen.

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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) The inside of the unstimulated neuron is negative; this electrical charge is caused by the outward leak of potassium and is called A)depolarization.

B)the action potential.

C)the resting membrane potential.

D)the refractory period.

Q2) The resting neuron

A)is polarized.

B)has an internal (+) charge.

C)has an internal negativity because of the outward leak of Na+.

D)has an internal negativity because of the inward leak of K+.

Q3) The repolarizing phase of the action potential

A)means that the inside of the cell is becoming more positive.

B)is caused by the movement of sodium (Na+) into the cell.

C)is caused by the movement of potassium (K+) out of the cell.

D)is caused by the Na+/K+ pump located in the membrane.

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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves

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Sample Questions

Q1) An intramuscular injection into the buttocks is given in the upper outer quadrant in an attempt to avoid injuring which nerve?

A)Common peroneal

B)Phrenic

C)Femoral

D)Sciatic

Q2) Ptosis of the eyelid and dilated and fixed pupils reflect pressure on which nerve?

A)Optic

B)Vagus

C)Oculomotor

D)Facial

Q3) A "dilated and fixed" pupil indicates pressure on which cranial nerve?

A)Cranial nerve II

B)Olfactory nerve

C)Cranial nerve III

D)Vestibulocochlear

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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true of AChase,MAO,and COMT?

A)Terminate adrenergic receptor activation

B)Are enzymes that degrade neurotransmitters

C)Are adrenergic neurotransmitters

D)Are neurotransmitters that activate nicotinic receptors

Q2) Muscarinic receptors are associated with

A)paravertebral ganglia.

B)preganglionic parasympathetic fibers.

C)postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.

D)all fibers that secrete ACh.

Q3) Which of the following is not an effector organ for the autonomic nerves?

A)Skeletal muscle

B)Visceral smooth muscle

C)Glands

D)Cardiac muscle

Q4) Which of the following is descriptive of a panic attack?

A)Muscarinic activation

B)Vagomimetic

C)Fight or flight

D)All of the above

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Sensory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pain,proprioception,touch,and pressure are

A)general senses.

B)experienced only in the frontal lobe.

C)experienced largely in the brain stem.

D)dependent on intact pyramidal and extrapyramidal tracts.

Q2) Which ossicle picks up vibrations from the tympanic membrane?

A)Stapes

B)Malleus

C)Stirrup

D)Incus

Q3) Which of the following is most related to the stapes?

A)Cerumen

B)Semicircular canal

C)Organ of Corti

D)Middle ear ossicle

Q4) Which of the following structures is located outside the eye?

A)Conjunctiva

B)Ciliary body

C)Lens

D)Vitreous humor

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Chapter 14: Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Testosterone is best described as

A)virilizing.

B)lactogenic.

C)adenohypophyseal.

D)pancreatic.

Q2) Hypocalcemic tetany

A)is a consequence of a deficiency of calcitonin.

B)is caused by a lack of TSH.

C)is caused by osteoclastic activity.

D)develops in response to a deficiency of parathyroid activity.

Q3) Obesity

A)antagonizes insulin.

B)elevates blood glucose levels.

C)increases blood pressure.

D)All of the above are true.

Q4) Iodine,colloid,and goiter refer to which gland?

A)Pancreas

B)Parathyroid

C)Thyroid

D)Neurohypophysis

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) An antithrombin agent

A)causes jaundice.

B)prevents blood coagulation.

C)fights infection.

D)stimulates the synthesis of hemoglobin.

Q2) A hematocrit of 35% (male) is most often indicative of A)dehydration.

B)the body's response to exercise-induced heavy sweating.

C)the physiological response to chronic lung disease (e.g. ,hypoxemia).

D)deficiency of RBCs as in anemia.

Q3) Stickiness,plug,and hemostasis are terms that are most related to A)neutrophils.

B)phagocytes.

C)platelets.

D)albumin.

Q4) Which of the following is common to all forms of anemia?

A)Elevated WBC count

B)Thrombocytopenia

C)Low hematocrit

D)Leukocytosis

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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is most related to "lubb" (of the lubb-dupp duo)?

A)Called S

B)Caused by the closure of the AV valves

C)Occurs in response to ventricular contraction

D)All of the above

Q2) Which of the following is true of the myocardium?

A)Is nourished by the coronary arteries

B)Contracts in response to electrical signals

C)Is thicker in the left ventricle than in the right ventricle

D)All of the above

Q3) Which of the following is a result of ventricular contraction?

A)The AV valves open.

B)The semilunar valves close.

C)Blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta.

D)Blood flows back into the atria.

Q4) Which of the following is true regarding the mediastinum?

A)It is located within the pleural cavity.

B)The lungs are located within the mediastinum.

C)The mediastinum is located to the right of the midline of the sternum.

D)The mediastinum is a space between the lungs.

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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) The amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of its resting phase is the A)end-diastolic volume (EDV).

B)amount of blood in the ventricle at the end of its resting phase.

C)preload.

D)All of the above are true.

Q2) Which of the following is not the result of the firing of the sympathetic nerves on the heart?

A)(+) Inotropic effect

B)(+) Chronotropic effect

C)Increased heart rate

D)Vagally induced bradycardia

Q3) Increased return of blood to the heart stretches the heart muscle,thereby

A)stimulating the vagus nerve.

B)increasing stroke volume.

C)closing the atrioventricular valves.

D)increasing coronary blood flow.

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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special

Circulations

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Sample Questions

Q1) The correct flow of blood is: axillary vein subclavian vein brachiocephalic vein superior vena cava

A)inferior vena cava.

B)hepatic vein.

C)right atrium.

D)pulmonary veins.

Q2) Which of the following veins drains blood that is rich in digestive end products specifically from the small intestine and first part of the large intestine?

A)Portal vein

B)Inferior mesenteric vein

C)Splenic vein

D)Superior mesenteric vein

Q3) Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the aortic arch to the kidney?

A)Thoracic aorta

B)Descending aorta

C)Ascending aorta

D)Renal artery

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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Baroreceptors

A)are found in all arterioles and sense plasma levels of CO .

B)affect respiratory rate.

C)monitor [H+] and therefore regulate blood pH.

D)are located in the carotid sinus and aortic arch and sense changes in blood pressure.

Q2) A patient has hemorrhaged 1 liter of blood; he is diaphoretic (profuse perspiration),oliguric (decreased urinary output),and tachycardic.Physiologically,what is happening?

A)The patient has lost so much plasma protein (albumin) that fluid has shifted into his tissue spaces.

B)In response to the blood loss and declining blood pressure,the baroreceptor reflex has kicked in,causing a sympathetic discharge.

C)The shock-induced low blood pressure has caused a vagal discharge.

D)The shock-induced hypotension has inactivated all autonomic receptors.

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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System

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Sample Questions

Q1) An overly active spleen may prematurely remove platelets from the circulation,thereby predisposing a person to

A)arteriolar vasospasm and hypertension.

B)granulocytopenia and infection.

C)thrombocytopenia and bleeding.

D)hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.

Q2) Lymph is

A)pumped by the left heart into the systemic circulation.

B)formed when fluid is filtered across the subclavian veins into the tissue spaces.

C)formed from tissue fluid.

D)red,like blood.

Q3) The inguinal lymph nodes

A)line the entrance of the spleen.

B)are the Kupffer cells within the liver.

C)are located in the groin.

D)are part of the hepatic portal circulation.

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Chapter 21: Immune System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following words are least characteristic of phagocytes?

A)IgG,IgA,IgM,and IgE

B)Motile and fixed

C)Diapedesis and chemotaxis

D)Neutrophils,monocytes,and macrophages

Q2) This is a group of proteins secreted by virally infected cells; the proteins prevent viral replication.

A)Pyrogens

B)Antigens

C)Complement protein

D)Interferons

Q3) Which of the following is most associated with a low plasma level of antibodies?

A)The "booster" response

B)The primary response

C)An autoimmune response

D)Anaphylaxis

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Chapter 22: Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cartilaginous rings

A)prevent the collapse of the trachea.

B)surround each alveolus.

C)are innervated by the phrenic nerve.

D)attach the diaphragm to the thoracic wall.

Q2) The collection of mucus in the lower airways is most likely to cause

A)laryngospasm.

B)pneumothorax.

C)atelectasis.

D)pharyngitis.

Q3) In which structure is the PO 104 mm Hg?

A)Pulmonary artery

B)Alveolus

C)Right ventricle

D)Vena cava

Q4) Boyle's law states the relationship between volume and A)O .

B)CO .

C)pressure.

D)H O.

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Chapter 23: Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chyle and bile are most related to

A)glucose,fructose,and galactose.

B)intrinsic and extrinsic factor.

C)fat and lacteal.

D)trypsin and pepsin.

Q2) Which of the following is least related to fat digestion?

A)Trypsin

B)Bile

C)Cholecystokinin

D)Lipase

Q3) Which of the following is least characteristic of glucose?

A)Monosaccharide

B)Carbohydrate

C)An end-product of digestion by a disaccharidase

D)Trypsin

Q4) Which of the following is caused by portal hypertension?

A)Cholecystitis

B)Jaundice

C)Esophageal varices

D)Cirrhosis of the liver

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Chapter 24: Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true of urea?

A)Is an excretable form of nitrogen

B)Is synthesized by the kidneys

C)Is converted to ammonia by converting enzyme in the lungs

D)Is a pancreatic proteolytic enzyme

Q2) Most diuretics work by

A)increasing blood flow to the kidneys.

B)increasing the urge to urinate.

C)stimulating the contraction of the detrusor muscle.

D)blocking the tubular reabsorption of Na+.

Q3) Which of the following is caused by prolonged hypotension?

A)Oliguria

B)Albuminuria

C)Cystitis

D)Glomerulonephritis

Q4) What is the meaning of an elevated serum creatinine?

A)The kidneys are making too much creatinine.

B)Too much creatinine is being reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries.

C)The kidneys are not filtering creatinine; this is a sign of kidney failure.

D)The kidneys are excreting too much urine.

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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hypocalcemia is most likely to

A)cause blood volume expansion (hypervolemia).

B)be treated with IV potassium.

C)cause tetany.

D)be caused by excess parathyroid hormone activity.

Q2) A drug that decreases the synthesis of aldosterone

A)decreases blood pressure.

B)causes hypernatremia.

C)causes hypokalemia.

D)does all of the above.

Q3) Which of the following is (are) true of Na ?

A)Is the chief extracellular anion

B)Helps regulate extracellular volume

C)Is regulated by ADH

D)All of the above

Q4) Which of the following is true of dehydration?

A)Is characterized by poor skin turgor and "tenting"

B)Is accompanied by an decrease in urine specific gravity

C)Causes a shift of water from the vasculature into the interstitium

D)Is generally treated with a diuretic

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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) The cervix,fundus,and body

A)are contents of the scrotum.

B)are parts of the ovary.

C)secrete estrogen and progesterone.

D)are parts of the uterus.

Q2) The oviduct or fallopian tube

A)is located between the cervix and the vagina.

B)is the site of fertilization.

C)is an anatomical extension of the ovary.

D)connects the fundus with the cervix.

Q3) Which cells secrete testosterone?

A)Prostate gland

B)Prepuce

C)Interstitial cells

D)Seminiferous tubules

Q4) The corpus luteum

A)is located within the uterus.

B)is a placental structure.

C)secretes gonadotropins.

D)secretes large amounts of progesterone.

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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is true of parturition?

A)The fetus becomes a neonate

B)Refers to the birth process

C)Can only occur after 36 weeks of pregnancy

D)Both A and B are true.

Q2) What "lives" in the fallopian tube for a brief period of time?

A)An embryo

B)A fetus

C)A blastocyst

D)A zygote

Q3) Which of the following is true regarding lactation?

A)Suckling causes the alveolar glands to secrete oxytocin.

B)Suckling stimulates the sensory nerves of the milk let-down reflex.

C)Flow of milk through the lactiferous ducts is the sensory response to suckling.

D)Prolactin is secreted in response to suckling.

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