Health Sciences
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological, behavioral, and social factors influencing human health and well-being. The course covers foundational topics such as anatomy, physiology, epidemiology, nutrition, public health, and healthcare systems, while emphasizing evidence-based practices and the role of health professionals in disease prevention, diagnosis, and treatment. Students will develop a broad understanding of the determinants of health and acquire essential skills for addressing current and emerging challenges in healthcare delivery, policy, and research.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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79 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brand name of a medication is provided by the:
A) government.
B) pharmaceutical company.
C) biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
D) drug evaluation committee that formally examines all data about medications.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following health professionals can decrease the incidence of polypharmacy?
A) Medical practitioner
B) Pharmacist
C) Nurse
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) It is best to learn about pharmacology with reference to what particular type of medication names?
A) Chemical names
B) Brand names
C) Generic names
D) Proprietary names
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Victoria,midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a health professional's order.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) According to the Standard for the Uniform Scheduling of Medicines and Poisons in Australia,in which drug schedule is a controlled drug classified?
A) Schedule 1.
B) Schedule 2.
C) Schedule 4.
D) Schedule 8.
Answer: D
Q3) After giving a verbal order,the health professional must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the health professional.
D) ensure that a health professional has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client diagnosed with severe coronary artery disease intends to continue with sporting activities (including intense training for competition) without the knowledge or approval of family. Which ethical principles may conflict for health professionals?
Answer: The health professionals encounter conflict between the issues of autonomy and confidentiality.
Q2) The doctor tells the health professional to administer excessive doses of opioid analgesic and sedative drugs to relieve the client's intractable pain,but not to tell the client's family.Which ethical principle would be breached if the health professional gives the drugs but does not tell the family?
A) Veracity
B) Confidentiality
C) Justice
D) Beneficence
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Q2) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following health professionals treat clients having temporary or permanent physical disability by physical treatment modalities (such as exercise,massage,splinting and electrical stimulation)that often require supplementary drug therapy?
A) Prescriber
B) Nurse
C) Physiotherapist
D) Paramedic
Q2) A nurse is allowed by law to administer a lethal dose of analgesic medication,when ordered by a doctor,to alleviate intractable suffering.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The target group for a medication review by pharmacists are individuals who:
A) are at risk of medication misuse due to age, social circumstances, complexity of their medication regimen, their health care status, and knowledge about their medicines.
B) are recommended to have a review by their general practitioner.
C) live in a nursing home.
D) live at home alone.
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The shelf life of a reconstituted penicillin mixture for oral use is:
A) 5 days.
B) 7 days.
C) 9 days.
D) 12 days.
Q2) Following use of a nebuliser unit:
A) dismantle the unit, rinse and shake to allow to dry.
B) pack it away in the client's bedside drawer.
C) dismantle the unit, rinse and towel dry.
D) leave it hanging by the client's bedside.
Q3) Is it problematic to administer heparin via intramuscular injection?
A) No, intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are both safe and effective.
B) No, as long as the dose is appropriate.
C) Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form.
D) Yes, limited blood flow to skeletal muscles causes reduced bioavailability of the drug.
Q4) Nasal preparations are not absorbed systemically.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Q2) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Australia's National Medicines Policy?
A) Timely access to the medicines that Australians need, at a cost individuals and the community can afford
B) Medicines meeting appropriate standards of quality, safety and efficacy
C) Quality use of medicines
D) Consumers and health professionals communicating effectively about medicines management
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medication ordered at particular time intervals should be given on time to:
A) ensure that health professionals provide their care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.
Q2) A nursing student involved in checking blood products should be accompanied to the bedside of the patient by:
A) one registered nurse.
B) two registered nurses.
C) bedside checks are not required if the products and paperwork have been double-checked by two registered nurses.
D) students should never check medications or blood products.
Q3) A health professional is required to practice within the policies and procedures of the health care agency and to follow the legal framework of government legislation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
Q2) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A common adverse drug reaction is hypertension.The drug therapy for treatment of hypertension may include the following EXCEPT:
A) -adrenoreceptor agonists.
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
C) calcium antagonists.
D) -adrenoreceptor antagonists.
Q3) Postural hypotension is an adverse effect often associated with drugs that:
A) block \(\alpha\)-adrenoceptors.
B) stimulate \(\alpha\)-adrenoreceptors.
C) block \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
D) stimulate \(\beta\)-adrenoreceptors
Q4) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin
B) Contrast media
C) Penicillin
D) Transfused blood
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following strategies would NOT be beneficial in communicating risks and benefits to individuals?
A) Offer balanced information.
B) Use specific, descriptive terms for risk.
C) Use a consistent denominator.
D) Use visual aids.
Q2) An example of a medication that has been scrutinised for risk-benefit analysis is:
A) insulin.
B) warfarin.
C) alendronate.
D) prednisone.
Q3) A study examining the risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)finds the number needed to treat with HRT to prevent an osteoporotic fracture is 300.This figure means 300 women need to be treated to prevent:
A) one woman from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
B) five women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
C) 110 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
D) 220 women from experiencing an osteoporotic fracture.
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q2) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
Q3) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
Q2) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Highly lipophilic substances can cross the blood-brain barrier.Which of the following cannot cross the blood-brain barrier in normal circumstances?
A) Alcohol
B) Penicillin
C) Glucose
D) Antihistamines
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15
Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is not excreted by the lungs?
A) Ethanol
B) Salbutamol
C) Isoflurane
D) Metoprolol
Q2) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q3) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
Q4) Drugs are metabolised by the liver to make them more:
A) amphipathic.
B) hydrophilic.
C) lipophilic.
D) hydrophobic.
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Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
Q2) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
Q3) A common drug-food interaction is between grapefruit juice and:
A) aspirin.
B) paracetamol.
C) felodipine.
D) ibuprofen.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme,it:
A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
Q2) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Q3) The extent of binding of a drug to a receptor is termed: A) potency.
B) specificity.
C) affinity.
D) efficacy.
Q4) A drug mechanism that works to neutralise stomach acid is considered to be:
A) an action targeting ion channels.
B) a chemical action.
C) an agonist action.
D) a physical action.
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) The terms side effect and adverse effects are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as:
A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.
Q3) Into which medicines in pregnancy category is a drug assigned that has caused or is suspected of causing fetal harm,but not malformations?
A) Category B
B) Category C
C) Category D
D) Category X
Q4) A protein-bound drug may get displaced by another drug through competition for binding sites on plasma proteins.The displaced drug may then exert toxicity if it has a lower margin of safety.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a person who has an inherited disorder wished to minimise the odds of passing that genetic materials to their offspring,germline therapy will be of no use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Somatic gene therapy uses what form of cells?
A) Sperm cells
B) Psychosomatic cells
C) Somatic cells
D) Ovarian cells
Q3) Which one of the following factors is likely to result in higher plasma drug levels?
A) Taking a water-soluble drug during a meal
B) Administering a drug orally when a client is experiencing an episode of severe diarrhoea
C) Administering the narcotic analgesic morphine to a person with cirrhosis of the liver
D) Administering a drug that is subject to significant metabolism to a person whose occupation involves handling chemicals that induce microsomal enzymes.
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20
Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapies would result in relatively lower plasma drug levels in neonates compared to an older child?
A) Glucocorticoid treatment when the mother received this therapy during late pregnancy
B) Topically administered therapy applied to the skin
C) Orally administered penicillin G
D) Treatment with a fat-soluble drug
Q2) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
Q3) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
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Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Sample Questions
Q1) AZ is a 62-year-old farmer who is brought in to the emergency department for the management of organophosphate poisoning.How should this be managed?
A) Administration of vitamin K
B) Administration of atropine
C) Administration of diphenhydramine
D) Administration of dicobalt edetate
Q2) Which of the following is an iron chelating agent?
A) Disodium edetate
B) Deferasirox
C) d-penicillamine
D) Calcium gluconate
Q3) Which of the following principles of emergency management is matched appropriately
A) Life support-gathering as much information as possible about the poison
B) Clinical assessments-ensuring a clear airway, maintaining effective respiration and circulation and addressing fluid or metabolic imbalances
C) Decontamination and detoxification-reducing the amount of poison absorbed
D)Neutralisation and elimination-providing hydration and electrolyte management
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Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q2) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
Q3) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
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24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q3) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
Q4) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
Q2) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics
Q3) One rationale given for misuse of narcotic agents by sportspeople is to:
A) induce anabolic effects.
B) produce euphoria.
C) promote aggression.
D) increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.
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26
Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parasympathetic division is activated in an emergency or stressful situation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
Q3) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An \(\alpha\) antagonists would be useful in the treatment of:
A) urinary retention.
B) hypotension.
C) overactive bladder.
D) asthma.
Q2) Which of the following adrenergic agonists stimulate both \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) receptors?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Adrenaline
C) Dopamine
D) Both A and B
Q3) Which of the following adrenergic receptors are found abundantly in the myocardium?
A) <sub>1</sub>
B) <sub>2</sub>
C) <sub>1</sub>
D <sub>2</sub>
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which set of drug responses best matches the action of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
A) Feelings of relaxation, increased skeletal muscle tone, increased autonomic tone and the release of catecholamines
B) Bronchoconstriction, increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, increased skeletal muscle tension and bradycardia
C) Tachycardia, facial flushing, decreased gastrointestinal motility, dry mouth and urinary retention
D) Tachycardia, histamine-induced hypotension, muscle relaxation and decreased gastrointestinal motility
Q2) Which enzyme is responsible for the degradation of acetylcholine?
A) Monoamine oxidase
B) Cholinesterase
C) Catechol-O-methyltransferase
D) Both A and B
Q3) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
Q2) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blocking which histamine receptor would help in the management of excessive gastric acid secretion?
A) H<sub>1</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
Q3) Which route of administration is preferred is hypovolaemic shock occurs?
A) Intravenous
B) Oral
C) Rectal
D) Transdermal
Q4) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q2) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for:
A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
Q3) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q3) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the human brain is not considered part of the brainstem?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Cerebrum
Q2) The transmitter that is particularly associated with cognition,memory formation and skeletal muscle activation is:
A) dopamine.
B) noradrenaline.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
Q3) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) noradrenaline.
D) acetylcholine.
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Q1) Which of the following antipsychotic drug groups is associated with photosensitivity,therefore requiring protection from the sun?
A) The butyrophenones
B) The phenothiazines
C) The dibenzodiazepines
D) The thioxanthenes
Q2) Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic agent?
A) Trifluoperazine
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Haloperidol
D) Clozapine
Q3) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
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35
Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q2) Benzodiazepines can induce:
A) amnesia.
B) rage.
C) depression.
D) all of the above.
Q3) More than how many weeks of continuous treatment with benzodiazepines results in dependence and tolerance?
A) One week
B) Two to four weeks
C) Four to six weeks
D) Six to eight weeks
Q4) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements about lithium carbonate is true?
A) It has a high therapeutic index.
B) The body treats it like it is sodium.
C) It enhances the synaptic levels of noradrenaline.
D) It is used in the management of panic disorders.
Q2) The potential role of antiseizure drugs in the management of bipolar disorder is to:
A) elevate the synaptic levels of noradrenaline and serotonin.
B) antagonise the effects of GABA.
C) substitute for sodium ion in neuronal processes.
D) stabilise the erratic firing in pathways associated with mood.
Q3) Which of the following measures does NOT help to avoid the serotonin syndrome associated with the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
A) Co-administration of two SSRI preparations
B) Having a 'washout' period when switching drugs
C) Administering a therapeutic dose of a single SSRI agent
D) Tapering high doses of the SSRI agent
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parkinson's disease is a defect in the function of which transmitter system in the basal ganglia?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
Q2) Excessive glutamine repeats in the protein coded by the HTT gene is associated with:
A) motor neurone disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Huntington's disease.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) Alzheimer's disease is characterised by the lack of which neurotransmitter in the higher centres of the brain?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements regarding status epilepticus is true?
A) This is the medical term given to a person with epilepsy.
B) In this form of epilepsy, the person is affected by a number of different seizure types.
C) In status epilepticus, there is no spontaneous recovery from a seizure.
D) This condition is commonly associated with client compliance with medication.
Q2) Which of the following antiseizure drugs may cause gingivitis and gingival hyperplasia,therefore necessitating the need for meticulous dental care?
A) Phenytoin
B) Carbamazepine
C) Ethosuximide
D) Vigabatrin
Q3) Which of the following antiseizure medications is associated with severe skin reactions?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q2) Behaviour associated with ADD in children includes:
A) forgetfulness.
B) daydreaming.
C) lack of interest.
D) all of the above.
Q3) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid: A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine
B) Methadone
C) Codeine
D) Fentanyl
Q2) Which of the following pain medicines produce a constipating effect?
A) Pethidine
B) Aspirin
C) Morphine
D) Paracetamol
Q3) The opioid tramadol should be avoided in clients with:
A) epilepsy.
B) a heart condition.
C) asthma.
D) liver disease.
Q4) When administering tramadol,it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combined use of salicylates and corticosteroids may lead to ________ and should therefore be avoided.
A) tinnitus
B) renal failure
C) peptic ulceration
D) liver failure
Q2) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
Q3) Aspirin needs to be stopped approximately ________ before planned surgery and some complex dental procedures because of the possibility of increased bleeding.
A) two days
B) seven days
C) two weeks
D) seven weeks
Q4) The propionic acid derivatives ibuprofen and naproxen are useful for children suffering from inflammatory disease because they:
A) are not metabolised in the liver.
B) do not cause gastrointestinal problems.
C) are available as oral liquids so that the exact dose can be administered.
D) do not affect platelet aggregation.
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of ergotamine for migraine prophylaxis?
A) Caffeine enhances its absorption and onset of action.
B) No more than five doses should be taken in any one week.
C) Doses should be closely monitored due to the risk of rebound headaches and dependence.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
Q3) First-line therapy for an acute migraine attack includes:
A) triptans.
B) paracetamol.
C) ergotamine.
D) tricyclic antidepressants.
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43
Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q2) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
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44
Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q2) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q3) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long-term statin therapy has been linked to an increased incidence of:
A) stroke.
B) heart disease.
C) cataract development.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) When timing the dose for the fibrate gemfibrozil,the patient should be advised to take it:
A) at bedtime.
B) upon arising in the morning.
C) with food.
D) half an hour before food.
Q3) An unwelcome but possibly benign effect of nicotinic acid treatment is:
A) petechiae.
B) constipation.
C) loose stools.
D) skin flushes and itching.
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are several factors that determine the best approach for treating hypertension.Which of the following is least likely to be a factor in patient compliance?
A)Cost of medication
B)Patient gender
C)Adverse effects
D)Complicated medical history
Q2) Calcium channel blockers have which of the following effects?
A) Depressed cardiac contractility
B) Depressed cardiac conduction
C) Reduced vascular tone
D) All of the above
Q3) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
Q2) Which of the following nitrate formulations is not used to prevent angina symptoms?
A) Oral isosorbide dinitrate controlled-release tablets
B) Oral isosorbide mononitrate controlled-release tablets
C) Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate
D) Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate
Q3) The form of angina pectoris that is associated with coronary vasospasm is called ________ angina.
A) variant
B) exertional
C) classic
D) stable
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The benefit of ________ for the treatment of thrombosis is that it is clot-specific,thereby reducing the risk of generalised haemorrhage.
A) warfarin
B) urokinase
C) streptokinase
D) tissue plasminogen activator
Q2) When using aspirin as an antiplatelet agent,how many days before any planned surgery or dental procedures should it be stopped?
A) 2 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 21 days
Q3) Which one of the following is an endogenous substance known to inhibit coagulation?
A) cAMP
B) Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
C) ADP
D) von Willebrand factor
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diuretic agents is not recommended to be given with an ACE inhibitor?
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Frusemide
C) Ethacrynic acid
D) Spironolactone
Q2) The purpose of the nephron includes:
A)maintaining homeostasis.
B)eliminate waste.
C)forming filtrate.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The hypokalaemia that may be induced by a loop diuretic can be lessened or prevented by concurrent use of:
A) potassium chloride.
B) an angiotensin II receptor antagonist.
C) an ACE inhibitor.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to guidelines developed by the National Heart Foundation and Cardiac Society of Australia and New Zealand,what is the first medication to consider for heart failure?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Aldosterone antagonist
Q2) To use ivabradine,the patient's heart rate must be at least ________ beats per minute.
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
Q3) Adverse effects such as an unproductive cough and taste disturbances may occur from which category of medicine frequently used for treatment of heart failure?
A) Diuretics
B) Aldosterone antagonists
C) Cardiac glycosides
D) ACE inhibitors
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are mechanisms of action of the class I antidysrhythmics?
A)They have local anaesthesia properties.
B)They have a high affinity for blocking active sodium channels.
C)They affect phase four of the action potential.
D)All of the above.
Q2) Class II antidysrhythmic drugs are also known as what?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibiters
C)Beta blockers
D)Adrenergic agonists
Q3) Which is an example of a prodysrhythmic agent?
A)Fexofenadine
B)Clarithromycin
C)Haloperidol
D)All of the above
Q4) Which electrolyte is not responsible for maintaining a normal heart rhythm?
A)Calcium
B)Potassium
C)Sodium
D)Magnesium
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a potential treatment of severe hyperkalaemia?
A)Peritoneal dialysis
B)Intravenous frusemide
C)Oral ion exchange resin
D)Intravenous glucose with insulin given concurrently
Q2) Which patient would likely have the greatest amount of body fluid?
A)A middle-aged man
B)A teenage girl
C)A toddler
D)A premature infant
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
Q4) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The absorption of iron in the gut may be enhanced by :
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin E.
C) vitamin C.
D) folate.
Q2) Treatment with iron supplementation is usually continued for about ________ to ensure replenishment of iron stores in iron deficiency anaemia.
A) two weeks
B) one month
C) two months
D) three months
Q3) Which of the follow is standard therapy in non-myeloid anaemia?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Folic acid
C) Erythropoietin
D) Parenteral B<sub>12</sub>
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following respiratory illnesses affects approximately 10% of adult Australians?
A) Bronchial asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Emphysema
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q2) Drugs included in the class of leukotriene receptor antagonist include:
A)montelukast.
B)fexofenadine.
C)albuterol.
D) macular degeneration.
Q3) Premature babies receiving long-term oxygen therapy are at risk of:
A) otitis media.
B) ototoxicity.
C) retinal damage.
D) macular degeneration.
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Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
Q2) Which substances are responsible for the symptoms of upper respiratory illnesses?
A)Prostaglandins and mast cells
B)Prostaglandins and histamine
C)Antihistamines and mast cells
D)Antihistamines and leukotrienes
Q3) Hyoscine is contraindicated in patients with:
A) glaucoma.
B) depression.
C) heart failure.
D) diabetes.
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause an increase in stomach acid secretion? Select all that apply.
A) Chocolate
B) Smoking
C) Citrus
D) Mild alcoholic drinks
E) Acetaminophen
Q2) Once ingested,how does sucralfate work?
A) It neutralises stomach acid.
B) It slows gastric emptying.
C) It creates a paste-like substance to coat the gastric mucosa.
D) It affects the proton pump.
Q3) The use of cisapride in the treatment of upper gastrointestinal tract conditions is restricted due to its ability to produce:
A) renal failure.
B) liver failure.
C) potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias.
D) respiratory failure.
Q4) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
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Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of diarrhoea with diphenoxylate may cause:
A) constipation.
B) dysphagia.
C) gastric reflux.
D) increased bowel sounds.
Q2) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q3) A first line therapy for chronic constipation would be:
A) stimulant laxatives such as senna.
B) faecal softeners such as docusate.
C) osmotic laxatives such as glycerol.
D) lubricants such as liquid paraffin.
Q4) In perianal disease,________ laxatives should be used to prevent straining.
A) stimulant
B) lubricant
C) bulk
D) softener
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The coating of the gastric mucosa to protect it from acid and pepsin can be achieved with the use of:
A) cimetidine.
B) sucralfate.
C) misoprostol.
D) omeprazole.
Q2) The advantage of domperidone over metoclopramide is that it:
A) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so it has more central side effects.
B) doesn't readily cross the blood-brain barrier so it has fewer central side effects.
C) crosses the blood-brain barrier readily so a smaller dose is required for the same antiemetic effects.
D) is safe for pregnant women in the first trimester.
Q3) It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:
A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.
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Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a suitable strategy to manage a large return of gastric aspirate in a person receiving nasogastric feeding?
A) Lower the head of the person's bed.
B) Use a hyperosmolar feed.
C) Select a feed with a higher fat content.
D) Decrease the rate of infusion.
Q2) What finding must be present in order to proceed with enteral feedings?
A) Bowel sounds
B) Normal blood sugar
C) Normal faeces
D) Sufficient kidney function
Q3) What is a suitable strategy to manage a large return of gastric aspirate in a person receiving nasogastric feeding?
A) Lower the head of the person's bed.
B) Use a hyperosmolar feed.
C) Select a feed with a higher fat content.
D) Decrease the rate of infusion.
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bromocriptine is no longer recommended for inhibition of postpartum lactation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which one of the following actions is not associated with high doses of vasopressin?
A) It stimulates sodium excretion.
B) It stimulates coagulation.
C) It may lower blood pressure.
D) It reduces blood loss associated with haemorrhage.
Q3) Which of the following drugs stimulates gonadotrophin release?
A) The follitropins
B) Goserelin
C) Clomiphene
D) Tetracosactrin
Q4) In cases of growth hormone hyposecretion,therapy involves the use of:
A) a somatostatin analogue.
B) tetracosactrin.
C) somatropin.
D) the ergot alkaloids.
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally,L-thyroxine is preferable to liothyronine as therapy in hypothyroid states because:
A) it has a longer duration of action.
B) it is less cardiotoxic.
C) levels are easier to monitor.
D) all of the above.
Q2) What purpose do \(\beta\)-blockers serve in treating thyroid disease?
A) They directly lower thyroid levels.
B) They are only used for well-controlled patients.
C) They are used to alleviate symptoms caused by adrenergic stimulation.
D) They have no clinical indication in treating thyroid disease.
Q3) Which of the following is true about the action of iodide solutions for hyperthyroid states?
A) High doses of iodide cause an immediate reduction in the release of thyroid hormone.
B) Iodide reduces the blood supply to the thyroid gland and makes it firmer.
C) Iodide has a long half-life and greatly reduces the release of thyroid hormone for up to one month.
D) Both A and B.
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62
Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the oral hypoglycaemic drug groups acts by inducing the release of endogenous insulin?
A) The thiazolidinediones
B) The glucosidase inhibitors
C) The sulfonylureas
D) The biguanides
Q2) Glycosylated haemoglobin level (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)is an indicator of:
A) insulin overdose.
B) normal growth in children with diabetes mellitus.
C) stress.
D) longer-term glycaemic control.
Q3) An ideal glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)level is ________ per cent or less.
A) 7.0
B) 8.0
C) 9.0
D) 10.0
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the oral dose exceeds mg daily of prednisolone or equivalent dose,the person will benefit from receiving gastric acid-suppressive therapy.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 10
D) 15
Q2) During spironolactone therapy,the blood levels of ________ should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
Q3) A specific immune-related effect associated with glucocorticoid action is:
A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of the lymph nodes and spleen.
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64
Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) A major consideration associated with the progestogen-only contraceptive pill is:
A) that it cannot be used in women who are breastfeeding.
B) it increases the risk of breast cancer.
C) it has an increased failure rate compared to the oestrogen-progestogen combinations.
D) if you are intolerant to an oestrogen-progestogen combination, you cannot use this preparation either.
Q2) What is the efficacy rate for emergency contraception when used within 72 hours?
A) 70 per cent
B) 80 per cent
C) 90 per cent
D) 100 per cent
Q3) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Vitamin D deficiency may occur due to:
A) hypercalcaemia.
B) use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
C) inadequate sun exposure.
D) use of calcipotriol.
Q2) Which of the following foods inhibit absorption of calcium due to high phytic acid content?
A) Unrefined cereals
B) Green vegetables
C) Strawberries
D) Cow's milk
Q3) Which factors play a role in calcium absorption in women? Select all that apply.
A) Minimal dietary calcium
B) Menopause
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
E) Diabetes
Q4) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) Which of the following tests is undertaken before using colchicine for gout prophylaxis?
A) A complete blood count
B) A liver function test
C) An electrocardiogram
D) An exercise tolerance test
Q2) A characteristic of gout is that:
A) it manifests as a form of arthritis.
B) it is more prevalent in women.
C) the risk of developing it can be reduced by eating foods such as sardines or offal.
D) it is not associated with any genetic predisposition.
Q3) When commencing a uricosuric agent such as probenecid,the person should be advised to:
A) cease all other medications to reduce drug interactions.
B) ensure adequate fluid intake to reduce kidney stone formation.
C) avoid direct sunlight.
D) avoid urine alkalising preparations.
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates feeding?
A) Serotonin
B) Noradrenaline
C) Peptide YY
D) Neuropeptide Y
Q2) In humans,there are two feeding centres located in the:
A) brain stem.
B) thalamus.
C) hypothalamus.
D) pons.
Q3) For maximum benefit from the anorectic agent orlistat,the dose should be taken:
A) with three main meals daily.
B) with the morning meal.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q4) an overview of obesity
A) Statistics show 25 per cent of Australian children are obese.
B) The World Health Organization has declared obesity an epidemic.
C) Australia ranks third in obesity, behind New Zealand and the United States.
D) All of the above statements are true.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) It is recommended that surgical prophylaxis with antibiotics is not undertaken with a: A) mastectomy.
B) coronary bypass surgery.
C) splenectomy.
D) large bowel resection.
Q2) An antimicrobial agent with a narrow spectrum of activity reflects a drug that has:
A) only a weak antibiotic action.
B) effectiveness against a relatively small number of microbes.
C) a low potency.
D) a narrow margin of safety.
Q3) An antimicrobial drug mechanism of action generally regarded as bacteriostatic is one that:
A) interferes with metabolic processes.
B) inhibits cell wall synthesis.
C) promotes protein synthesis.
D) disrupts cell membranes.
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
Q2) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q3) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) Which serious adverse effect is associated with long term use of nitrofurantoin?
A) Iridescent yellow urine
B) Drowsiness
C) Paraethesia
D) Gastrointestinal upset
Q2) What medication regimen is ineffective in treating microorganisms that are part of the ESCAAPPM group?
A) A carbapenem agent
B) A penicillin agent
C) An aminoglycoside agent
D) A fluoroquinolone agent
Q3) Administration of the antibacterial agent ________ may cause prolongation of the QT interval and development of serious ventricular dysrhythmias.
A) erythromycin or clarithromycin
B) benzylpenicillin or amoxycillin
C) tetracycline or doxycycline
D) gentamicin or tobramycin
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) The 'cardinal signs' of Hansen's disease are: (Select all that apply)
A) positive skin smear.
B) skin lesions.
C) cough.
D) optic nerve damage.
E) peripheral nerve involvement.
Q2) Mrs Debere,suffering from tuberculosis,noticed a deterioration in visual acuity.This was most likely related to:
A) ethambutol.
B) streptomycin.
C) isoniazid.
D) rifampicin.
Q3) An unusual consequence of rifampicin antituberculotic therapy is that:
A) faeces turn black.
B) faeces turn white.
C) urine turns red.
D) urine turns bright yellow.
Q4) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
72
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q2) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q3) What is the indication of topical silver preparations?
A) Burns
B) Acne
C) Eczema
D) Warts
Q4) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) Tapeworms are:
A) cestodes.
B) nematodes.
C) cathodes.
D) trematodes.
Q2) The species of malaria that causes the most infections is:
A) P. ovale
B) P. malariae
C) P. vivax
D) P. falciparum
Q3) When using the anthelmintic albendazole to treat intestinal parasites,the person should be advised to take it:
A) with meals.
B) after meals.
C) with milk.
D) before meals.
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74
Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of HIV treatment with the viral protease inhibitor atazanavir?
A) Photosensitivity
B) Nausea or vomiting
C) Diarrhoea
D) Lipodystrophy
Q2) What is a key difference between the common cold and influenza?
A) Influenza is a respiratory tract infection.
B) There is a vaccine for influenza.
C) The symptom of a headache is typical of influenza only.
D) The common cold can be treated with antiviral medications.
Q3) The action of reverse transcriptase,the enzyme used by retroviruses,is:
A) transcription from DNA to RNA.
B) blockage of transcription.
C) increased transcription in the host cell.
D) lysis of the host cell.
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the antifungal terbinafine is administered orally for more than six weeks for a fungal nail infection,the person should be advised to have:
A) blood cholesterol levels monitored.
B) liver enzyme levels and blood count monitored.
C) respiratory function monitored.
D) aural function monitored.
Q2) Systemic candidiasis can be treated with parenteral:
A) amphotericin.
B) griseofulvin.
C) itraconazole.
D) terbinafine.
Q3) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication would NOT be used to prevent organ rejection?
A) Mycophenolate
B) Leflunomide
C) Cyclosporine
D) Tacrolimus
Q2) In regard to the adverse effects associated with vaccination,a significant concern is:
A) that convulsions and brain damage are relatively common consequences.
B) there is no prophylactic treatment for the febrile state and local reactions that commonly develop.
C) the onset of anaphylactic reactions.
D) there is no information readily available to families about the risks of this treatment.
Q3) When administering non-human antisera to provide temporary immunity for viral or bacterial infection,make sure that ________ is available in case of anaphylaxis.
A) hydrocortisone
B) promethazine
C) noradrenaline
D) adrenaline
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) All vinca alkaloids are administered:
A) orally.
B) intravenously.
C) intrathecally.
D) intramuscularly.
Q2) Tretinoin is closely related to which vitamin?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A
Q3) Which is NOT an expected adverse effect of cytotoxic agents?
A) Alopecia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea
D) Mucositis
Q4) Why would erythropoietin be given to a patient undergoing cancer treatment?
A) To counteract anaemia
B) To minimise nausea
C) To control pain
D)To protect against bone loss
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Q1) The mechanism of action of the counterirritant capsaicin is thought to involve:
A) vasoconstriction of skin blood vessels.
B) a stimulation of opioid receptors.
C) an interference in the release of substance P.
D) a softening and loosening of the outer layers of the skin.
Q2) Botulinum toxin is indicated in the treatment of which skin disorder?
A) Hyperhidrosis
B) Rosacea
C) Eczema
D) Psoriasis
Q3) Which drug is absolutely prohibited in pregnancy?
A) Tetracycline
B) Azelaic acid
C) Metronidazole
D) Isotretinoin
Q4) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Q1) Which one of the following reactions is NOT a common adverse reaction to topical application of ophthalmic drugs?
A) A stinging sensation
B) Altered colour vision
C) Oedema
D) A burning sensation
Q2) Which oral medication can cause a disturbance in colour vision?
A)Digoxin
B)Chloroquine
C)Thimerosal
D)Azelastine
Q3) Drugs related to the antiviral agent aciclovir are used in the management of ophthalmic conditions such as:
A) trachoma.
B) CMV-induced retinitis.
C) Candida albicans infection.
D) purulent bacterial infections.
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Prolonged use of zinc may lead to:
A) hepatolenticular degeneration.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) hypertension.
D) copper deficiency and anaemia.
Q2) Aloe vera has been used for:
A) burns.
B) constipation.
C) general skin care.
D) all of the above.
Q3) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
Q4) If a woman is using evening primrose oil for premenstrual syndrome,it should be consumed:
A) a few days before menstruation.
B) during menstruation.
C) all throughout the menstrual cycle.
D) the first four days following the onset of menstruation.
Q5) Powdered ginger is less effective than ginger ale.
A)True
B)False
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