Health Sciences
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological, social, and behavioral aspects of health, illness, and healthcare. This course introduces students to the foundational principles of human anatomy and physiology, the determinants of health and disease, the structure and function of healthcare systems, and the importance of public health policy. Students will examine current health challenges, prevention strategies, and research methods, preparing them for diverse careers in medicine, allied health professions, research, and healthcare administration. Through a combination of lectures, case studies, and practical experiences, the course aims to develop a holistic understanding of how scientific knowledge and human behavior impact health outcomes at the individual and community levels.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 15th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) To make all subjects think they are receiving the same treatment,patients in the control group can receive a placebo.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Describe the steps associated with the scientific method.
Answer: Observation: New observations are made and previous data are studieD Hypothesis: Input from various sources is used to formulate a testable statement. Experiment/Observation: The hypothesis is tested by experiment or further observations.Conclusion: The results are analyzed,and the hypothesis is supported or rejecteD Scientific Theory: Many experiments and observations support a theory.
Q3) The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be
A) excess stomach acid.
B) the bacterium Helicobacter pylori.
C) drinking too much coffee.
D) extreme stress.
E) diets rich in meat products.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Be has an atomic number of 4 and an atomic mass of 9.How many protons does it have?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 9
D) 13
E) 7
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) galactose
D) maltose
E) None of these are monosaccharides.
Answer: D
Q3) The primary level of protein structure is composed of amino acids in a linear sequence joined by peptide bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the functions of adhesion junctions,gap junctions,and tight junctions in human cells.
Answer: Adhesion junctions serve to mechanically attach adjacent cells to each other.This type of junction allows movement of molecules between connected cells.It forms a porous type of barrier.
Gap junctions serve to communicate information between cells.It forms a channel that allows for the rapid movement of molecules from one cell to the next.
Tight junctions make solid connections between adjacent cells.These form a solid barrier.
Q2) What components make up the ribosomes?
A) proteins and rRNA,
B) proteins and DNA
C) lipids and rRNA.
D) carbohydrates and rRNA
E) proteins and DNA.
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Smooth muscle in the bladder contracts to send urine into the urethra.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What characteristic can be used to differentiate between bone and cartilage?
A) whether the matrix is solid or liquid
B) the presence or absence of cells
C) the flexibility of the matrix
D) the presence of fibers in the matrix
E) whether the tissue is fibrous or specialized connective
Q3) When you put your hand on a hot stove,________ receive signals from sensory receptors or other neurons and ________ conduct nerve impulses.
A) astrocytes, oligodendrocytes
B) axons, dendrites
C) astrocytes, dendrites
D) dendrites, axons
E) dendrites, astrocytes
Q4) List and describe the three types of cartilage.
Q5) There is no matrix in blood because it is a liquid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the pulmonary circuit,veins carry oxygen-_____ blood,and in the systemic circuit,veins carry oxygen-_____ blood.
A) rich; rich
B) poor; poor
C) rich; poor
D) poor; rich
Q2) What is the name of the thick,membranous sac that surrounds and protects the heart?
A) mesothelium
B) endothelium
C) pericardium
D) myocardium
E) epicardium
Q3) The blood from the digestive tract travels through two different veins before reaching the inferior vena cava.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A blood pressure of 90/40 is considered normal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ray is considered a universal donor.His blood type is A)O.
B)A.
C)B.
D)AB.
Q2) List and describe the functions of blood in the human body.
Q3) The two major components of blood are
A) red blood cells and white blood cells.
B) plasma and serum.
C) plasma and red blood cells.
D) formed elements and plasma.
E) platelets and plasma.
Q4) If blood clotting doesn't occur correctly,what could happen?
A) Formed elements and plasma would not remain in the blood.
B) Red blood cells would increase in concentration.
C) The Ca<sup>2+</sup> concentration in the blood would increase.
D) The blood pressure of the individuals would increase.
E) Fluid would accumulate in the body.
Q5) List the steps involved in the formation of a blood clot.When a blood vessel is punctured
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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cells can recognize antigens because they
A) have enzymes which react with antigens.
B) possess specific antigen receptors.
C) produce antibodies.
D) possess fimbrae.
E) become plasma cells.
Q2) In what way are lymphatic vessels unlike veins in the cardiovascular system?
A) one-way system
B) contain valves
C) take up excess tissue fluid
D) dependent upon skeletal muscle contraction
E) transport fluid
Q3) Which autoimmune disease is associated with an inflammatory response that can damage the heart muscle and valves?
A) rheumatic fever
B) rheumatoid arthritis
C) myasthenia gravis
D) AIDS
E) tuberculosis
Q4) List and describe the body's innate defenses.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the "kitchen-sink model" for CD4 T-cell loss,what does the sink's drain represent?
A) the destruction of CD4 T cells by the virus
B) the production of new CD4 T cells
C) the amplification of the virus in the blood
D) the destruction of the virus by the immune system
E) the wide variety of possible opportunistic infections
Q2) There are normally one or two cases of measles per month in a particular city.However,in the month of September,there were 15 cases.Is this an epidemic?
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why might an HIV test be negative within the first two to three weeks of an HIV infection?
A) because there is no HIV in the blood
B) because there are no detectable levels of HIV antibodies in the blood
C) because there are no symptoms
D) because the CD4 T-cell count is above 500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
E) because there are no opportunistic infections yet
Q4) Describe the structure of a typical virus.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of the stomach is to
A) break down fats.
B) store food, churn, and begin digestion.
C) absorb major nutrients.
D) package feces.
E) eliminate water and tissue fluid.
Q2) What is the correct order of the components of the digestive tract?
A) mouth, esophagus, pharynx, small intestine, stomach, large intestine, rectum, anus
B) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, rectum, anus
C) mouth, pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, rectum, large intestine, anus
D) mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus
E) mouth, rectum, large intestine, small intestine, stomach, esophagus, pharynx, anus
Q3) Smooth muscles in the stomach are capable of mechanical digestion.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhalation is another word for inspiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which structure is not part of the inspiration process?
A) lungs
B) larynx
C) trachea
D) bronchioles
E) All of these are part of the inspiration process.
Q3) When the glottis becomes narrower,
A) the pitch of sound goes up.
B) the pitch of sound goes down.
C) all sound ceases completely.
D) the volume of sound increases.
E) the volume of sound decreases.
Q4) Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem and the lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the structures associated with the upper respiratory tract and those associated with the lower respiratory tract.
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Chapter 11: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The success rate for a kidney transplant from even a relative is fairly low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An enlarged prostate gland can lead to kidney stones in males.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is an infection of the urinary bladder called?
A) cystitis
B) urethritis
C) pyelonephritis
D) hemodialysis
E) uremia
Q4) Less than 50% of which molecule is reabsorbed during tubular reabsorption?
A) urea
B) water
C) sodium
D) glucose
E) amino acids
Q5) List the components of the glomerular filtrate and indicate where they can be found.
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Chapter 12: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When you hit your "funny bone," what are you hitting?
A) olecranon process
B) deltoid tuberosity
C) acromion process
D) head of ulna
E) glenoid cavity
Q2) Daniel has a very large deltoid tuberosity.This is probably because Daniel A) is a pianist.
B) spends a lot of time playing video games.
C) lifts heavy weights with his arms.
D) plays basketball.
E) is a runner.
Q3) Which bone(s)is (are)part of the pelvic girdle?
A) coxal bones
B) clavicle
C) femur
D) scapula
E) talus
Q4) List the three types of cartilage found in the body and indicate a function for each.
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Chapter 13: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following injuries is most likely to happen to the ankle?
A) sprain
B) strain
C) convulsion
D) bursitis
E) muscular dystrophy
Q2) What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii?
A) the triceps brachii
B) the trapezius
C) the masseter
D) the pectoralis major
E) the sartorius
Q3) Which of the following does not occur when a muscle fatigues?
A) Its energy reserves are depleted.
B) Stimulation continues.
C) Tetanus is achieved.
D) Acetylcholine is crossing the synaptic cleft.
E) The muscle relaxes.
Q4) List the functions of the skeletal muscles.
Q5) Explain the structural differences between the thick and thin myofilaments.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long term use of heroin is associated with which set of consequences?
A) weight gain, poor cognitive performance, irritability
B) cardiac and/or respiratory arrest, sudden death
C) apathy, euphoria, hallucinations
D) addiction, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, various bacterial infections
E) anxiety, jitters, insomnia, headaches
Q2) Which drug is in the same category as nicotine?
A) cocaine
B) alcohol
C) heroin
D) marijuana
E) none of these
Q3) List the structures associated with the brain stem and indicate their primary function.
Q4) The spinal cord belongs to the
A) peripheral nervous system.
B) central nervous system.
C) axial nervous system.
D) appendicular nervous system.
E) none of these.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a genetic mutation that affects males more than females?
A) astigmatism
B) farsightedness
C) nearsightedness
D) red-green color blindness
E) blindness
Q2) All of the parts of the inner ear are concerned with equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which region of the brain contains the olfactory cortex?
A) temporal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) parietal lobe
D) brain stem
E) pons
Q4) Nociceptors are sensitive to mechanical,thermal,electrical stimuli,and toxic substances.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is it possible that a type 1 diabetic could be hypoglycemic?
A)True
B)False
Q2) The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Jamie suffers from heartburn.Sometimes this can be treated with
A) mineralocorticoids.
B) prostaglandins.
C) aldosterone.
D) thymosin.
E) luteinizing hormone.
Q4) Which of the following is a result of mineralocorticoid release?
A) Glucose is not broken down.
B) The immune cells are suppressed.
C) Inflammation is reduced.
D) Proteins and fat are broken down.
E) Blood volume and pressure increase.
Q5) Describe the characteristics of individuals with type 2 diabetes.
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Chapter 17: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Menstruation occurs during what days of the uterine cycle?
A) days 1-5
B) days 1-13
C) days 6-13
D) days 15-28
E) days 28-32
Q2) The placenta,which sustains the developing embryo and fetus,originates only from maternal tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the following are viral infections,except
A) hepatitis.
B) chlamydia.
C) warts.
D) herpes.
E) HIV/AIDS.
Q4) If fertilization occurs,the progesterone levels fall to almost zero.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the six stages of the ovarian cycle that a follicle will go through.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following defines "aging"?
A) progressive changes from infancy until death
B) the loss of function of various body systems
C) the onset of sexual maturity
D) the development of disease or disability
E) the failure to thrive
Q2) Most birth defects are due to the inheritance of an abnormal number of chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the uterus begins to contract,it is almost time for the baby to be born.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Embryonic development begins with
A) fertilization.
B) the first cell division.
C) the development of the blastocyst.
D) implantation.
E) gastrulation.
Q5) Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of meiosis matches those of mitosis in regards to the events occurring in the cell?
A) anaphase II and anaphase
B) anaphase I and prophase
C) metaphase I and prophase
D) telophase II and telophase
E) None of the phases of meiosis will match up with mitosis.
Q2) In humans,how many of the chromosomes are autosomes?
A) 22 pairs
B) 22
C) 1 pair
D) 46
E) 23 pairs
Q3) List the stages of interphase and the events that occur during each of these stages.
Q4) The centromere is the structure that holds the chromatids together.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the stages of mitosis and explain the key events during each of the stages.
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Chapter 20: Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells?
A) Cancer cells lack differentiation.
B) Cancer cells have abnormal nuclei.
C) Cancer cells use mitosis to divide.
D) Cancer cells have an unlimited potential to replicate.
E) Cancer cells form tumors.
Q2) If someone has no genetic predisposition to cancer,then environmental exposure to carcinogens will not cause them to develop cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a stage of carcinogenesis?
A) initiation
B) promotion
C) progression
D) differentiation
E) angiogenesis
Q4) Antiangiogenic drugs cause cytotoxic T cells to attack tumor cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following disorders is a trinucleotide repeat disorder?
A) Marfan syndrome
B) sickle-cell disease
C) cystic fibrosis
D) Tay-Sachs disease
E) Huntington disease
Q2) If a person with type B blood marries a person with type A blood,what phenotypes can their children be?
A) all type A
B) all type B
C) types A and O
D) types B and O
E) types A, B, O, and AB
Q3) Most of the sex-linked traits are found only on the X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In an X-linked dominant trait,affected males pass the trait only to daughters.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the term "polygenic traits."
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Chapter 22: Dna Biology and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three-base sequence in a mRNA molecule is called a(n)
A) codon.
B) anticodon.
C) initiator.
D) mutation.
E) transposon.
Q2) The bases in DNA are complementary.A always binds with A)A.
B)C.
C)G.
D)T.
E)U.
Q3) Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA?
A) amino acids
B) fatty acids
C) nucleotides
D) carbohydrate rings
E) steroid rings
Q4) List and explain the five steps involved in DNA replication.
Q5) Transcribe and then translate the following DNA code: AATCGGTTCCATCGG
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Chapter 23: Human Evolution
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Q1) Researchers use mitochondrial DNA sequences to study recent evolutionary events because changes occur in mitochondrial DNA more frequently than in nuclear DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the out-of-Africa hypothesis,when did Homo sapiens migrate to Europe and Asia?
A) 1000 years before present
B) 10,000 years before present
C) 100,000 years before present
D) 1 million years before present
E) 5 million years before present
Q3) Which of the following describes the limb anatomy of australopithecines?
A) walked on all fours, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs
B) walked upright, forelimbs longer than hindlimbs
C) walked on all fours, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs
D) walked upright, hindlimbs longer than forelimbs
E) walked on all fours and used their tails for balance
Q4) Describe the four stages of chemical and biological evolution.
Q5) List and explain the elements of the natural selection process.
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Chapter 24: Ecology and the Nature of Ecosystems
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Q1) The ratio between the uptake of carbon dioxide by photosynthesis and the release of carbon dioxide by respiration is approximately
A) 1 (i.e., about the same).
B) 2 (i.e., twice as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration).
C) 5 (i.e., five times as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration).
D) 0.5 (i.e., half as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration).
E) 0.1 (i.e., one-tenth as much carbon dioxide is taken up by photosynthesis as is released by respiration). The transfer rates of these two is about even.
Q2) How is carbon dioxide made availabe to living organisms?
A) by breathing
B) by cellular respiration
C) by photosynthesis
D) by combustion
E) by decay
Q3) List and explain the six steps in the hydrological cycle.
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26
Chapter 25: Human Interactions With the Biosphere
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Q1) Most of the fresh water in the world is used for
A) drinking.
B) bathing.
C) irrigation.
D) watering lawns.
E) industrial needs.
Q2) Which of the following is not an unsustainable practice of society?
A) reduction in population growth rate
B) eating more meat than vegetables
C) using more freshwater resources for agriculture than in homes
D) using large amounts of fossil fuels, fertilizers, and pesticides
E) deforestation and desertification
Q3) What happened to the death rate in LDCs following World War II? Why?
A) It increased due to the loss of infrastructure following the war.
B) It increased due to the spread of disease because of refugees from the war.
C) It decreased because of the introduction of modern medicine.
D) It decreased because people were no longer dying in World War II.
E) It stabilized due to fewer people dying in war.
Q4) Explain the consequences of groundwater depletion.
Q5) List and describe the criteria that are used to measure quality of life.
Page 27
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