Health Professions Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Health Professions Anatomy and Physiology is an introductory course designed to provide students with a comprehensive understanding of the structure and function of the human body, with a specific focus on applications relevant to healthcare careers. The course covers major organ systems, cellular and tissue organization, homeostasis, and physiological processes that underpin health and disease. Emphasis is placed on the interrelationships between anatomical structures and physiological functions, including how these principles apply to clinical practice. Through interactive lectures, laboratory experiences, and case studies, students gain foundational knowledge essential for success in advanced health science courses and professional healthcare programs.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
4487 Verified Questions
4487 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In ________ a stimulus produces a response that amplifies or enhances the original stimulus.
A) negative feedback
B) positive feedback
C) homeostatic equilibrium
D) dynamic equilibrium
E) homeostasis
Answer: B
Q2) Anatomical features that change during illness are studied in ________ anatomy.
A) gross
B) surface
C) microscopic
D) pathological
E) regional
Answer: D
Q3) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each.
Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is A) DNA.
B) adenosine diphosphate.
C) adenosine monophosphate.
D) adenosine triphosphate.
E) RNA.
Answer: D
Q2) AB ? A + B is to decomposition as A + B ? AB is to A) exchange.
B) synthesis.
C) combustion.
D) replacement.
E) metabolism.
Answer: B
Q3) How does the DNA molecule control the appearance and function of a cell?
Answer: The DNA molecule controls the synthesis of enzymes and structural proteins. By controlling the synthesis of structural proteins, the DNA is able to influence the physical appearance of a cell. By controlling the production of enzymes, the DNA is able to control all aspects of cellular metabolism and thus control the activity and biological functions of the cell.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances, in the lungs
A) more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood.
B) more carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood.
C) less carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood.
D) less carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood.
E) the amount of carbon dioxide diffusion will remain unchanged.
Answer: A
Q2) The nucleus is surrounded by the
A) plasma membrane.
B) membranous sac.
C) phospholipid bilayer.
D) nuclear envelope.
E) chromosome shield.
Answer: D
Q3) Differentiate between transcription and translation.
Answer: In transcription, RNA polymerase uses the nucleotide sequence on DNA to construct a complementary strand of mRNA. In translation, ribosomes use information carried by the mRNA strand and tRNA to synthesize the corresponding polypeptide.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissue changes with age include all of the following except
A) less efficient tissue maintenance.
B) proliferation of epidermal cells.
C) thinner epithelia.
D) more fragile connective tissues.
E) decreased ability to repair tissue damage.
Q2) Tissue membranes combine
A) muscle and connective tissue.
B) neural and epithelial tissue.
C) epithelial and connective tissue.
D) neural and muscle tissue.
E) epithelial and muscle tissue.
Q3) The function of ________ is to propagate electrical signals from one place to another.
A) muscle cells
B) neurons
C) transmitter cells
D) teleocytes
E) neuroglia
Q4) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jaundice is indicated by a(n) ________ skin coloration.
A) reddish
B) yellowish
C) orange
D) bluish
E) brown
Q2) The drug tretinoin (Retin-A)
A) reduces the appearance of fine wrinkles.
B) minimizes scarring after surgery.
C) stimulates hair growth.
D) improves night vision.
E) is used to treat dandruff.
Q3) Sensible perspiration is produced by ________ glands.
A) ceruminous
B) apocrine sweat
C) merocrine sweat
D) sebaceous
E) mammary
Q4) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
Q5) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) RANKL or receptor activators of nuclear factor kB
A) are receptors that bind directly to PTH.
B) are found on the surface of osteoclasts.
C) are molecules that cause osteoblasts to lay down bone.
D) is a signal molecule that stimulates osteoclasts development.
E) causes calcium to be excreted by the kidneys.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of bone?
A) The bone matrix is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts.
B) The matrix of the bone contains osteoclasts and chondroblasts.
C) Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for muscle attachment.
D) The matrix of bone is mostly collagen with very little calcium.
E) For strength, compact bone is organized into a meshwork of matrix called trabeculae.
Q3) Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in
A) osteoporosis.
B) osteopenia.
C) rickets.
D) gigantism.
E) dwarfism.
Q4) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hard palate of the roof of the mouth is mostly formed by the A) palatine processes of the maxillae.
B) lesser wings of the sphenoid bone.
C) nasal bones.
D) zygomatic process.
E) palatine bones.
Q2) The large foramen that serves as a passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory nerve (XI)isthe
A) foramen lacerum.
B) foramen rotundum.
C) carotid canal.
D) jugular foramen.
E) foramen magnum.
Q3) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the A) styloid process.
B) mastoid process.
C) palatine process.
D) coronoid process.
E) zygomatic process.
Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to the hand, the foot
A) has more phalanges.
B) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals.
C) has more tarsal bones than the hand has carpal bones.
D) contains arches that help distribute body weight.
E) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones.
Q2) Which of the following is not a tarsal bone?
A) medial cuneiform
B) capitate
C) cuboid
D) navicular
E) talus
Q3) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.
A) distal
B) proximal
C) medial
D) superior
E) lateral
Q4) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
Q5) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments.
A) tibial collateral
B) anterior cruciate
C) posterior cruciate
D) patellar
E) popliteal
Q2) The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint.
A) hip
B) shoulder
C) elbow
D) knee
E) wrist
Q3) Pronation is defined as
A) a rolling of the distal epiphysis of the radius over the ulna.
B) a twisting of the ulna medially.
C) twisting the forearm so that the palms face anteriorly.
D) the shortening of the angle between the radius and the humerus.
E) movement of the mandible anteriorly, as seen when biting the upper lip.
Q4) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ can be described as a broad tendinous sheet.
A) fasciae
B) retinaculum
C) aponeurosis
D) interstitium
E) tympanum
Q2) Identify the structure where ATP is produced.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 1
D) 3
E) 2
Q3) What happens to sarcomere length if the zone of overlap is decreased? (Figure 10-14)
A) sarcomere length decreases
B) sarcomere length stays the same
C) sarcomere length increases
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
Q5) Describe the basic sequence of events that occurs as an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction and is transmitted to the muscle cell.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle is named for either shape or size?
A) pectoralis major
B) latissimus dorsi
C) deltoid
D) vastus lateralis
E) All of the above are named for shape or size.
Q2) The muscle that originates from the superior surface of the pubis around the symphysis is the
A) internal oblique.
B) external oblique.
C) rectus abdominis.
D) transversus abdominis.
E) scalene.
Q3) The muscle(s) that adduct(s) the humerus is/are the
A) coracobrachialis.
B) deltoid.
C) trapezius.
D) latissimus dorsi.
E) coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi.
Q4) How do first-, second-, and third-class levers differ?
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neuron that receives neurotransmitter from another neuron is called
A) the presynaptic neuron.
B) the motor neuron.
C) an oligodendrocyte.
D) a satellite cell.
E) the postsynaptic neuron.
Q2) The ________ division of the nervous system carries motor commands to muscles and glands.
A) spinal
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) efferent
Q3) Which of the following can cause demyelination?
A) arsenic poisoning
B) diphtheria
C) multiple sclerosis
D) mercury exposure
E) Demyelination can be caused by arsenic, diphtheria, multiple sclerosis and mercury.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the ________ muscles.
A) shoulder
B) intercostal
C) abdominal
D) leg
E) facial
Q2) A complex, interwoven network of nerves is called a
A) dermatome.
B) ramus.
C) plexus.
D) ganglion.
E) tract.
Q3) In a(n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.
A) monosynaptic
B) ipsilateral
C) commensual
D) contralateral
E) polysynaptic
Q4) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dural sinuses form between which two layers of the cranial dura mater?
A) pia and arachnoid layers
B) periosteal and endosteal layers
C) meningeal and cranial layers
D) periosteal and meningeal layers
E) superior and inferior sagittal layers
Q2) Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid?
A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma.
B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the lifetime of the person.
C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord.
D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus.
E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis.
Q3) Which of the following is not function of the hypothalamus?
A) produces ADH
B) secrete melatonin
C) regulates body temperature
D) secretes oxytocin
E) controls autonomic centers
Q4) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spinal tract that normally plays a role in the subconscious regulation of the muscles of the arms isthe ________ tract.
A) lateral corticospinal
B) anterior corticospinal
C) rubrospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) vestibulospinal
Q2) Chemoreceptors are located in all of the following except
A) carotid bodies.
B) aortic bodies.
C) the skin.
D) the organs of taste.
E) the organs of smell.
Q3) Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect
A) perception of pain.
B) sight.
C) voluntary motor activity.
D) hearing.
E) balance.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in
A) no change in vessel diameter.
B) a decrease in vessel diameter.
C) oscillation in vessel diameter.
D) a decrease in blood flow through the vessel.
E) an increase in blood flow through the vessel.
Q2) Blocking ________ receptors in the ________ prevents long-term memory formation.
A) serotonin; hypothalamus
B) NMDA; hippocampus
C) NMDA; midbrain
D) serotonin; midbrain
E) norepinephrine; hippocampus
Q3) The ________ nervous system stimulates the arrector pili muscles and gives you "goosebumps."
A) parasympathetic
B) afferent
C) dorsal
D) sympathetic
E) somatic
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The visible spectrum for humans extends between a wavelength of A) 700 and 1000 nm.
B) 100 and 200 nm.
C) 200 and 400 nm.
D) 2000 and 2500 nm.
E) 400 and 700 nm.
Q2) If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can see
A) 20-point font at 15 feet.
B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet.
C) objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet.
D) all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet.
E) objects that are 20 feet or less away.
Q3) A type of farsightedness that results from a loss of lens elasticity with age is A) myopia.
B) hyperopia.
C) emmetropia.
D) presbyopia.
E) diplopia.
Q4) How would blockage of the auditory (Eustachian) tube at its exit in the nasopharynx by lymphatic tissue ("adenoids") affect ear function and health?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is true of the pineal gland except that it
A) is a component of the epithalamus.
B) is a component of the hypothalamus.
C) secretes melatonin.
D) contains pinealocytes.
E) responds to light and darkness.
Q2) If the hypophyseal portal system is destroyed, the hypothalamus would no longer be able to control the secretion of which of the following hormones?
A) TSH
B) ACTH
C) PRL
D) ADH and OXT
E) TSH, ACTH, PRL
Q3) Which hormone may be prescribed in chronic inflammatory disorders such as Lupus?
A) aldosterone
B) cortisol
C) androgens
D) calcitonin
E) insulin
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hematocrit provides information on A) blood type.
B) clotting factors.
C) formed elements abundance.
D) plasma composition.
E) sedimentation rate.
Q2) The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in the A) spleen.
B) kidneys.
C) lymph nodes.
D) red bone marrow.
E) thymus.
Q3) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to A) cause clots to form faster.
B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster.
C) initiate clot formation.
D) recruit platelets to the area.
E) recruit neutrophils to an infection.
Q4) How does Rhogam prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN, hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) A faster-than-normal heart rate is called
A) tachycardia.
B) bradycardia.
C) hypercardia.
D) hypocardia.
E) procardia.
Q2) A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left ventricle so it canpump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume.
A) 85 ml
B) 3.1 ml
C) 5000 ml
D) 165 ml
E) There is not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic volume.
Q3) The visceral pericardium is the same as the
A) mediastinum.
B) parietal pericardium.
C) epicardium.
D) myocardium.
E) endocardium.
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer between the tunica media and the tunica externa in a large artery is the
A) tunica intima.
B) external elastic membrane.
C) tunica media.
D) internal elastic membrane.
E) tunica externa.
Q2) The bronchial arteries branch from the ________ to supply the lung airways.
A) pulmonary arteries
B) thoracic aorta
C) pulmonary veins
D) pleural arteries
E) brachiocephalic trunk
Q3) Which kind of vessel is also called a resistance vessel?
A) artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) venule
E) vein
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen.
A) Immunity
B) Memory
C) Adaptation
D) Tolerance
E) Versatility
Q2) T Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following except
A) the thymus.
B) lymphatic nodules.
C) lymph node organs.
D) the spleen.
E) the brain.
Q3) The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells.
A) NK
B) plasma
C) B
D) helper T
E) suppressor T
Q4) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphatic system.
Page 24
Q5) List and briefly describe the four general properties of adaptive immunity.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________.
A) main bronchi; lobar bronchi
B) lobar bronchi; segmental bronchi
C) segmental bronchi; lobar bronchi
D) trachea; pharynx
E) lobar bronchi; alveolar ducts
Q2) The effect of pH on hemoglobin saturation is known as the
A) Bainbridge reflex.
B) Bohr effect.
C) pulmonary reflex.
D) respiratory effect.
E) Hering-Breuer reflex.
Q3) Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content.
A) 25 percent
B) 50 percent
C) 75 percent
D) 90 percent
E) 100 percent
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp cavity.
E) periodontium.
Q2) The mesocolon is
A) a section of the large intestines between the sigmoid colon and the rectum.
B) a thick mesenteric sheet associated with the small intestines.
C) a ligament that suspends the liver from the diaphragm.
D) a serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity.
E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.
Q3) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would
A) increase intestinal motility.
B) decrease intestinal motility.
C) increase gastric secretion.
D) decrease gastric secretion.
E) interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion.
Q4) Outline the usual pathway for digestion and absorption of triglycerides (fats).
Q5) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a meal, the absorptive state lasts approximately
A) 30 minutes.
B) 2 hours.
C) 4 hours.
D) 8 hours.
E) 12 hours.
Q2) The electron transport system doesn't produce ATP directly instead it uses the hydrogen ion gradient todrive
A) substrate-level phosphorylation.
B) chemiosmosis.
C) anaerobic metabolism.
D) decarboxylation.
E) deamination.
Q3) A T4 assay is used to
A) determine the number of calories in food.
B) directly measure the basal metabolic rate.
C) obtain an index of metabolic activity.
D) monitor the energy efficiency of metabolism.
E) determine the amount of oxygen consumed during metabolism.
Q4) Briefly outline the role of the liver in glucose metabolism.
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does most nutrient reabsorption occur?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Q2) Which of the following components of the nephron is largely confined to the renal medulla?
A) glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
B) distal convoluted tubule
C) collecting ducts
D) proximal convoluted tubule
E) glomerulus
Q3) The ability to form concentrated urine depends on the functions of the A) proximal convoluted tubule.
B) distal convoluted tubule.
C) collecting duct.
D) nephron loop (loop of Henle).
E) nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct.
Q4) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alice has been running a marathon and has only been drinking pure water. Which electrolyte imbalance isshelikely to experience?
A) hyponatremia
B) hypernatremia
C) hypercalcemia
D) hypocalcemia
E) hyperkalemia
Q2) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory alkalosis?
A) consequence of hyperventilation (for example, in fever or mental illness)
B) consequence of prolonged vomiting
C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation (for example, due to COPD)
D) consequence of tissue hypoxia (for example, in ischemic conditions)
E) consequence of strenuous exercise
Q3) Consuming a meal high in salt will
A) drastically increase the osmolarity of the blood.
B) result in a temporary increase in blood volume.
C) decrease thirst.
D) cause hypotension.
E) activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fluid-filled cavity that appears in a secondary follicle is called the A) corpus luteum.
B) cortex.
C) stroma.
D) antrum.
E) corpus albicans.
Q2) The most important androgen is
A) dihydrotestosterone.
B) androstenedione.
C) dehydroepiandrosterone.
D) progesterone.
E) testosterone.
Q3) During the menstrual phase,
A) progesterone levels are high.
B) a new uterine lining is formed.
C) secretory glands and blood vessels develop in the endometrium.
D) the old functional layer is sloughed off.
E) the corpus luteum is most active.
Q4) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?
Q5) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
146 Verified Questions
146 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3103
Sample Questions
Q1) The clear liquid secreted by the mammary glands before milk production begins is called
A) milk.
B) colostrum.
C) serum.
D) plasma.
E) peritoneal.
Q2) Which embryonic germ layer forms the linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts?
A) mesoderm
B) ectoderm
C) trophoderm
D) endoderm
E) epiderm
Q3) The solid ball of cells that has been likened to a mulberry is called a A) chorion.
B) blastula.
C) gastrula.
D) morula.
E) blastocyst.
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