Course Introduction
Health Physics Test
Questions
Health Physics is the study of the principles and practices involved in protecting people and the environment from the potential hazards of ionizing radiation while enabling its beneficial uses. The course covers the sources and types of radiation, mechanisms of radiation interaction with biological systems, radiation detection, measurement techniques, and dosimetry. It also explores regulatory standards, methods of radiation protection, and the design of safety protocols in medical, industrial, and research settings. Emphasis is placed on assessing and managing radiation risks, understanding radiological emergencies, and applying best practices to minimize exposure and ensure public and occupational safety.
Recommended Textbook
Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy 4th Edition by Washington
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954 Verified Questions
954 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cancer: An Overview
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following acts as a radioprotector?
A) Amifostine
B) Actinomycin D
C) Adriamycin
D) Etoposide
Answer: A
Q2) Which classification of chemotherapy agents was the first to be identified as having anticancer activities?
A) Alkylating agents
B) Antimetabolites
C) Antibiotics
D) Hormonal agents
E) Nitrosoureas
F) Vinca alkaloids
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is true of anaplastic tumors?
A) Closely resemble the cells of origin
B) Maintain some resemblance of the cells of origin
C) Do not resemble the cells of origin
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Ethics and Legal Considerations of Cancer Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is most closely associated with the stages of grief?
A) Nel Noddings
B) Elisabeth Kübler-Ross
C) John Mill
D) Immanuel Kant
Answer: B
Q2) Risk management programs may include all except which of the following?
A) Malpractice insurance
B) Employee safety
C) Security
D) Fire safety
Answer: A
Q3) What legal document designates an individual as decision maker for a patient who is no longer capable of making decisions?
A) Scope of practice
B) Informed consent
C) Durable power of attorney
D) Living will
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Principles of Pathology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Etiology is defined as the study of which of the following?
A) Understanding of disease
B) Socioeconomic facts of disease
C) Cause of disease
D) Stratification of disease
Answer: C
Q2) Characteristics of malignant tumors include all except which of the following?
A) They have rapid growth.
B) They are encapsulated.
C) They metastasize frequently.
D) There is frequent vessel invasion.
Answer: B
Q3) The purpose of the staging system for cancer is which of the following?
A) To evaluate the degree of differentiation of tumor
B) To estimate the prognosis of the patient
C) To evaluate the degrees of malignancy
D) To estimate the geographical extent of disease
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Overview of Radiobiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms is used to describe radiation damage to a cell that is not sufficient to kill the cell?
A) Relative biological effect
B) Sublethal damage
C) Tumor lethal dose
D) Lethal dose<sub>50/40</sub>
Q2) Isoeffect curves are most closely associated with which of the following?
A) Oxygen enhancement
B) Radiation syndromes
C) Tolerance doses
D) Fractionation
Q3) Which macromolecule is most radiosensitive?
A) Lipids
B) Carbohydrates
C) Proteins
D) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
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Chapter 5: Detection and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was the leading site of new cancer cases in females in 2013?
A) Lung
B) Colon
C) Cervix
D) Breast
Q2) Mass screening is based on all except which of the following?
A) Specific results obtained
B) Cost-effectiveness
C) Risk to the patient
D) Geographic location
Q3) Lymphadenopathy in the axilla area could be an indication of cancer spread from which of the following?
A) Breast
B) Larynx
C) Lung
D) Thyroid
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Medical Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Components of a modern x-ray tube include which of the following?
A) Cathode filament
B) Rotating anode
C) Glass envelope
D) All of the above
Q2) Three-dimensional imaging using voxels is present in ____________.
A) MRI
B) CT
C) both of the above
D) neither of the above
Q3) Which of the following is responsible for transforming invisible x-rays into energy and then into visible light?
A) Grids
B) Glass envelop
C) Densitometer
D) Intensifying screens
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Chapter 7: Treatment Delivery Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the major components of a linear accelerator?
A) Power supply, modulator, electron gun, accelerating waveguide, head, beryllium target
B) Power supply, modulator, klystron, electron gun, "D"s, beryllium target
C) Power supply, electron gun, accelerating waveguide, head, doughnut accelerator structure
D) Modulator, klystron, electron gun, accelerator structure, waveguide, bending magnet
Q2) When treating with electrons, the carousel rotates to place a _________________ in the beam to spread it out.
A) collimator
B) cone
C) scattering foil
D) flattening filter
Q3) At what rate does the cobalt 60 source decay?
A) 1% per month
B) 2% per month
C) 3% per month
D) 5% per month
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Chapter 8: Treatment Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Safety and care in the assessment of pain, mobility, and other factors affecting the patient's well-being are the responsibility of which of the following?
A) Radiation oncologist
B) Patient's family
C) Radiation therapist
D) Radiation oncology nurse
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a part of the radiation oncology team responsible for the department's quality assurance?
A) Radiation therapist
B) Dosimetrist
C) Radiation oncologist
D) Medical oncologist
Q3) An anterior oblique and posterior oblique treatment field is an example of which of the following?
A) Arc therapy
B) Four-field box or brick
C) Wedge pair
D) Parallel opposed portals (POP)
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Chapter 9: Infection Control in Radiation Oncology Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The person to whom the infectious agent is passed is a(n)_____________.
A) fomite
B) host
C) pathogenic
D) iatrogenic
Q2) All of the following statements describe the use of Standard Precautions except which of the following?
A) Wear gloves when touching blood and body fluids.
B) No hand washing is necessary if using gloves.
C) Use mouthpieces when performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
D) Never recap used needles.
Q3) An OSHA-approved respiratory mask is required for use by health care workers at high risk of being exposed to which of the following?
A) Hepatitis B
B) Hepatitis C
C) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
D) Tuberculosis (TB)
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Chapter 10: Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A general health assessment can include all except which of the following?
A) An interview
B) Taking medical history past and present
C) A self-report
D) Asking when the person last attended church
Q2) Dry desquamation occurs at _________ cGy.
A) 1,600 to 2,000
B) 4,000 to 6,000
C) 2,000 to 3,000
D) 3,000 to 4,000
Q3) ____________ is defined as identifying with the feelings, thoughts, or experiences of another person.
A) Empathy
B) Sympathy
C) Emotionally
D) Willingly
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Pharmacology and Drug Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opioid medications are prescribed for the purpose of which of the following?
A) Preventing nausea and vomiting
B) Treating allergic reactions
C) Reducing inflammation
D) Relieving pain
Q2) Which of the following radioactive isotopes is used in radiation therapy?
A) Strontium 89
B) Technetium 99
C) Fluorine 18
D) Hydrogen 3
Q3) Which of the following are included in the "six rights" of drug safety?
I.Identify the right patient.
II.Identify the right medication and right dose.
III.Identify the right time.
IV.Identify the route.
A) I, II, and III
B) I, III, and IV
C) II, III, and IV
D) I, II, III, and IV
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Applied Mathematics Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many significant figures are there in 6,800?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Unable to determine
Q2) Transposition of numbers in a patient's chart is an example of which type of error?
A) Systematic
B) Random
C) Blunder
D) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following numeric expressions is written in scientific notation?
A) 1222 × 10<sup>1</sup>
B) 122.2 × 10<sup>2</sup>
C) 12.22 × 10<sup>3</sup>
D) 1.222 × 10<sup>4</sup>
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Chapter 13: Introduction to Radiation Therapy Physics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nuclear binding energy is measured in which of the following?
A) keV
B) Amu
C) MeV
D) Coulombs
Q2) An electron's binding energy is the amount of energy required to remove that electron from the atom and is usually measured in __________.
A) MeV
B) keV
C) Coulombs
D) kilograms
Q3) The thickness of some added material required to reduce beam intensity to half its original value is called the __________________.
A) half-life
B) inverse square factor
C) half-value layer (HVL)
D) intensity coefficient
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Chapter 14: Aspects of Brachytherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true regarding cobalt 60?
A) It is a common radionuclide used in brachytherapy.
B) It has a half-life of 5.27 years.
C) Its energy is 3.25 MeV.
D) It was not effective as an external beam source.
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the Quimby system?
A) It is used more often than the Paterson-Parker system.
B) It is adapted into system called the Manchester system.
C) There is a uniform distribution of activity within the implant.
D) The result is a uniform dose distribution.
Q3) What is the purpose of dummy sources used for temporary implants?
A) Localize the tumor in surgery
B) Enable visualization of source placement
C) Give physics residents experience with loading sources
D) Determine dose to the bladder and rectum
Q4) The average or mean life of iridium 192 is __________ days.
A) 51
B) 74
C) 107
D) 148
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Special Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Besides the patient and reference frame being registered, the stereotactic treatment must also ___________________.
A) control motion
B) conform to the fiducial
C) increase target volume
D) reduce treatment time
Q2) The cyber knife can treat anywhere in the body because it uses a(n)___________ technique.
A) nonisocentric
B) repetitive
C) real-time
D) isocentric
Q3) The typical width of the spread-out proton Bragg's peak (SOBP)is
A) 2 to 16 mm
B) 2 to 16 cm
C) 1 to 25 mm
D) 1 to 25 cm
Q4) Cone beam CT, TomoTherapy, and CT-on rails correct for _________ motion.
A) interfraction
B) intrafraction
17
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Chapter 16: Particle Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tumor types treated in the earliest years of proton therapy included those in or near which of the following? (Select two.)
A) Eye
B) Spine
C) Brain
D) Liver
Q2) The water equivalent thickness (WET)of an immobilization device used during proton therapy can affect which of the following attributes of the beam?
A) Linear energy transfer
B) Symmetry
C) Range
D) Energy
Q3) What is the shape of the proton beam as it passes through the transport system?
A) Divergent
B) Conical
C) Fan-shaped
D) Pencil thin
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18
Chapter 17: Radiation Safety and Protection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The annual dose equivalent limit to the lens of the eye for educationally exposed individuals is ____ mSv.
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 5
D) 50
Q2) The annual dose equivalent limit to the lens of the eye for nonoccupationally exposed individuals is ____ mSv.
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 5
D) 50
Q3) Which of the following describes why filters are used in film badges?
A) To discriminate different directions of radiation
B) To discriminate different radiation energies and types
C) To correct for film fogging due to exposure
D) To increase the sensitivity of the measuring device
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Chapter 18: Patient Safety in Radiation Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A culture of safety in the radiation oncology department requires the participation of which of the following?
I.Physicians
II.Physicists
III.Radiation therapists
A) I, II
B) II, III
C) I, III
D) All of the above
Q2) Transformational leaders likely focus on the ______________.
A) tasks to be completed
B) methods for completing tasks
C) rationale for tasks
D) reward and punishment
Q3) The main objective of peer review activities is to __________________________.
A) break down hierarchy
B) enhance quality of performance
C) improve the quality of decisions made during patient setup
D) evenly distribute the workload
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Chapter 19: Quality Improvement in Radiation Oncology
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Q1) Which of the following regulatory agencies is dedicated to improving the quality of care in health care settings and also requires every radiation oncology department to have its own dedicated QI plan?
A) ANSI
B) TJC
C) NCQA
D) NRC
Q2) The tolerance for light/radiation field coincidence on the linear accelerator is _____ mm.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q3) The ASRT have developed practice standards for radiation therapists.They are divided into what three sections?
A) Cognitive, affective, and psychomotor standards
B) Clinical, quality, and professional performance standards
C) Education, professional self-assessment, and ethical behavior standards
D) Patient care, treatment delivery, and Total Quality Management (TQM)standards
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Surface and Sectional Anatomy
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Q1) Where is Rotter's node located?
A) Supraclavicular triangle
B) Infraclavicular fossa
C) Anterior aspect of the neck
D) Axilla
Q2) The adult vertebral column usually consists of _____ bones.
A) 16
B) 25
C) 33
D) 42
Q3) Which of the following is the bony surface landmark that is indicated by dimples above and medial to the buttock, about 5 cm from midline?
A) Coccyx.
B) Iliac crests
C) Coccyx
D) PSIS
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22
Chapter 21: Simulator Design
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Q1) The matrix size is determined by the number of ___________.
A) voxels
B) Hounsfield units
C) detectors on the scanner
D) pixels
Q2) Which of the following represents the path of a photon when it enters the image intensifier?
A) Input phosphor, electrostatic lenses, photocathode, anode, output screen
B) Input phosphor, photocathode, electrostatic lenses, anode, output screen
C) Input phosphor, anode, electrostatic lenses, photocathode, output screen
D) Anode, input phosphor, electrostatic lenses, photocathode, output screen
Q3) Conventional simulators are designed to simulate the ____________, geometric, and optical properties of a variety of treatment units.
A) x-ray
B) mechanical
C) comfort
D) linear design
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23
Chapter 22: Computed Tomography Simulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reconstructed field of view that is displayed on the computer monitor should be large enough to display which of the following?
I.Entire contour
II.Immobilization device
III.Pertinent anatomy only
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) I and II
Q2) A contraindication for administering barium-based contrast to a patient with a history of long-term steroid therapy would be an increased risk of _______________.
A) aspiration
B) colon perforation
C) difficulty in holding an enema
D) allergic reaction
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24
Chapter 23: Photon Dosimetry Concepts and Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tray holding custom blocks is measured as 97 cGy, and the dose without the tray is 100 cGy.What is the tray transmission factor?
A) 1.03
B) 0.97
C) 1.00
D) Not enough information to determine
Q2) Absorbed dose at a given depth divided by the dose in air dose at a fixed reference is the definition of which of the following?
A) TAR
B) TMR
C) TPR
D) PDD
Q3) Mayneord F factor is used in which of the following?
A) Isocentric setups when distance is increased
B) Isocentric setups when field size changes
C) SSD setups when field size changes
D) SSD setups when distance increases
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Chapter 24: Photon Dose Distributions
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Q1) What is the most common field arrangement used in radiation therapy?
A) Single field
B) Parallel-opposed
C) Four-field box
D) Wedged-pair
Q2) The process of identifying structures, target volumes, or normal tissues, by creating contours around them, is often called _____________________.
A) organ segmentation
B) virtual simulation
C) intensity modulation
D) heterogeneity correction
Q3) In which tissue heterogeneity correction method are both the field size and the depth "scaled" to account for the presence of heterogeneities?
A) Power law TAR method
B) Generalized Batho correction
C) Equivalent TAR method
D) Delta volume method
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26
Chapter 25: Electron Beams in Radiation Therapy
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Q1) Which technique is most likely to result in photon contamination of the electron beam?
A) Use of an electron gun
B) Use of a bending magnet
C) Use of a scattering foil
D) Use of a scanning beam
Q2) As the mean energy of an electron beam increases, the _________________________.
A) surface dose decreases
B) surface dose increases
C) percent depth dose decreases
D) practical range depth decreases
Q3) What is the practical range of a 25-MeV electron beam?
A) 12.5 cm
B) 12.5 mm
C) 50 cm
D) 50 mm
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27
Chapter 26: Electronic Charting and Image Management
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Q1) _______ facilitate the use of wireless PDAs, laptops, and other pervasive computing devices at the point of care.
A) LANs
B) WLANs
C) ASPs
D) Mans
Q2) Which of the following does not describe EMR?
A) Digital
B) Paperless
C) Easy accessibility
D) Requires little or no training
Q3) The design of the interface affects the amount of the time the user spends to perform which of the following?
A) Input information
B) Interpret the output
C) Neither a nor b
D) Both a and b
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Chapter 27: Bone, Cartilage, and Soft Tissue Sarcomas
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Q1) Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of patients with bone tumors?
A) Elevated blood count
B) Decreased blood count
C) Pathologic fracture
D) Pain
Q2) Which of the following bone malignancies has the highest incidence?
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Ewing's sarcoma
D) Metastatic bone disease
Q3) Which of the following has the highest incidence of bone tumors?
A) Ewing sarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Metastatic bone lesions
D) Multiple myeloma
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29
Chapter 28: Lymphoreticular System Tumors
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Q1) Which lymph node chain is more likely to be the original site of Hodgkin lymphoma?
A) Pelvic
B) Inguinal
C) Para-aortic
D) Axillary
Q2) Which treatment field for HD includes the retroperitoneal lymph node chain?
A) Mantle
B) Inverted-Y (abdominal portion)
C) Inverted-Y (pelvic portion)
D) All of the above
Q3) The thymus is commonly associated with which of the following blood cell types?
A) Red blood cells
B) B-cell lymphocytes
C) T-cell lymphocytes
D) Macrophages
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Chapter 29: Endocrine System Tumors
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Q1) A common side effect of radioactive Iodine treatment is ______________.
A) diarrhea
B) alopecia
C) fatigue
D) hyperpigmentation
Q2) Radioactive iodine is used to treat cancers of which of the following endocrine glands?
A) Pancreas
B) Pituitary
C) Thyroid
D) Adrenal
Q3) In adults, somatropin-secreting pituitary tumors can present as which of the following conditions?
A) Cushing's syndrome
B) Gigantism
C) Acromegaly
D) Diabetes insipidus
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Chapter 30: Respiratory System Tumors
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Q1) In what part of the lung are primary squamous cell carcinomas usually found?
A) Superior
B) Central
C) Lateral
D) Peripheral
Q2) One symptom associated with superior vena cava syndrome is orthopnea.Orthopnea is ____________________.
A) difficulty breathing
B) a bluish color of the skin
C) difficulty swallowing
D) inability to lie flat
Q3) The clinical symptoms of a Pancoast tumor include ___________.
A) dysphagia
B) hoarseness
C) arm pain
D) persistent cough
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Chapter 31: Head and Neck Cancers
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Q1) What T stage is a glottic tumor that involves only one vocal cord but does impair mobility?
A) T1a
B) T1b
C) T1c
D) T2
Q2) What is the name of the leaf-shaped cartilage that protects the larynx?
A) Glottis
B) Epiglottis
C) Pharynx
D) Larynx
Q3) What is commonly referred to as the voice box?
A) Vestibular folds
B) Epiglottis
C) Pharynx
D) Larynx
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Chapter 32: Central Nervous System Tumors
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Q1) What is the current 5-year survival of patients with glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)?
A) 35%
B) 55%
C) 75%
D) 95%
Q2) Epilation may be permanent when the cranium is treated beyond the threshold dose of ______ cGy.
A) 1000
B) 2000
C) 3000
D) 4000
Q3) What is the 5-year survival rate for all CNS tumors combined?
A) 20%
B) 35%
C) 50%
D) 75%
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Chapter 33: Digestive System Tumors
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Q1) Which of the following methods may reduce the dose to the small bowel during radiation therapy?
I.Supine positioning
II.Prone positioning
III.Full bladder
IV.Empty bladder
A) I and III
B) I and IV
C) II and III
D) II and IV
Q2) Which of the following is the region of the esophagus between thoracic vertebrae 5 and 8?
A) Upper thoracic
B) Middle thoracic
C) Lower thoracic
D) Gastroesophageal junction
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35
Chapter 34: Gynecological Tumors
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diarrhea is a side effect of pelvic irradiation.Patients experiencing this side effect should be advised to adhere to a _________diet.
A) high-calorie
B) low-calorie
C) low-fiber
D) high-fiber
Q2) Bolus may be used when treating which of the following cancers?
A) Ovarian
B) Cervical
C) Vaginal
D) Vulvar
Q3) Ovarian cancer is most closely related to which other cancer(s)?
I.Breast
II.Colon
III.Cervical
A) I only
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Male Reproductive and Genitourinary Tumors
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common form of testicular cancer?
A) Squamous cell carcinoma
B) Germ cell tumors
C) Adenocarcinomas
D) Stromal tumors
Q2) Cancer of which of the following male reproductive system components is most common?
A) Penis
B) Testicle
C) Prostate
D) Urethra
Q3) What is the 5-year survival of all stages of prostate cancer combined?
A) 39%
B) 59%
C) 79%
D) 99%
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Chapter 36: Breast Cancer
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following increases the risk for developing breast cancer?
A) Breast implants
B) Late menarche
C) Early menarche
D) Early oophorectomy
Q2) What T stage is a breast cancer that is a 7-cm tumor in the upper outer quadrant with extension to the skin?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
E) T4
Q3) What stage is a 6-cm breast cancer in the upper inner quadrant?
A) Tis
B) T1
C) T2
D) T3
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Pediatric Solid Tumors
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children are most likely to develop which type of leukemia?
A) ALL
B) AML
C) CLL
D) CML
Q2) Which pediatric brain tumor often mimics medulloblastomas?
A) Ependymomas
B) Low-grade astrocytomas
C) High-grade astrocytomas
D) CNS germ cell tumors
Q3) The most common pediatric cancer is _________________.
A) medulloblastoma
B) retinoblastoma
C) acute leukemia
D) Wilms' tumor
Q4) Rhabdomyosarcomas are cancers of which organ?
A) Kidney
B) Bone
C) Brain
D) Mesenchymal
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Chapter 38: Skin Cancers and Melanoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common form of skin cancer?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Melanoma
D) Kaposi sarcoma
Q2) Pigmentation following therapeutic doses of radiation is caused by which of the following?
A) Dwelling of capillaries of the dermal layer
B) Shedding of the epidermis
C) Increased production of melanin
D) Destruction of cells at the basal layer
Q3) Which layer of the epidermis contains melanocytes?
A) Stratum basale
B) Stratum spinosum
C) Stratum granulosum
D) Stratum corneum
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