Health Assessment
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Health Assessment is a foundational course designed to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary for comprehensive health evaluation across the lifespan. The course covers techniques for collecting patient histories, performing physical examinations, and utilizing diagnostic tools to assess physical, psychological, and social aspects of health. Emphasis is placed on developing clinical reasoning, effective communication, and cultural sensitivity while analyzing normal and abnormal findings. Through a blend of theory, demonstration, and practical application, students gain confidence in identifying health risks and formulating appropriate care plans, forming a critical basis for advanced clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Seidels Guide to Physical Examination 9th Edition by
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Page 2
Jane W. Ball
Chapter 1: The History and Interviewing Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) When taking a history, the nurse should:
A) ask the patient to give you any information he or she can recall about his or her health.
B) start the interview with the patient's family history.
C) use a chronologic and sequential framework.
D) use a holistic and eclectic structure.
Answer: C
Q2) When are open-ended questions generally most useful?
A) During sensitive area part of the interview
B) After several closed-ended questions have been asked
C) While designing the genogram
D) During the review of systems
Answer: A
Q3) When interviewing older adults, the examiner should:
A) speak extremely loudly, because most older adults have significant hearing impairment.
B) provide a written questionnaire in place of an interview.
C) position himself or herself facing the patient.
D) dim the lights to decrease anxiety.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cultural Competency
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Sample Questions
Q1) The attitudes of the healthcare professional:
A) are largely irrelevant to the success of relationships with the patient.
B) do not influence patient behavior.
C) are difficult for the patient to sense.
D) are culturally derived.
Answer: D
Q2) Mr. Jones is a 45-year-old patient who presents to the office. A person's definition of illness is likely to be most influenced by:
A) race.
B) socioeconomic class.
C) enculturation.
D) age group.
Answer: C
Q3) An example of a cold condition is:
A) a fever.
B) a rash.
C) tuberculosis.
D) an ulcer.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Examination Techniques and Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The infant should be placed in which position to have his or her height or length measured?
A) Vertically, with the examiner's hands under the infant's axillae
B) Supine on a measuring board
C) Prone on a measuring board
D) In the lateral position, with the toes against a measuring board
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following are the causes of hyperreflexia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cold stirrups
B) Standard scale
C) Insertion of a speculum
D) Fever
E) Pressure during bimanual examination
Answer: A, C, E
Q3) Auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the:
A) neck area.
B) heart.
C) lungs.
D) abdomen.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Clinical Reasoning
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Sample Questions
Q1) New findings of unknown causes are:
A) problems to be noted on the problem list.
B) deferred for subsequent visits.
C) diagnosed before physical examination.
D) reserved for specialists.
Q2) When utilizing a joint approach with the patient, which factors are likely to be considered? (Select all that apply.)
A) Consultations
B) Laboratory studies
C) Assistive technology
D) Patient education
E) Practitioner background
Q3) Which is an accepted method of making a diagnosis?
A) Relying on intuition
B) Making maximal use of laboratory tests
C) Using first assumptions
D) Using algorithms
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Chapter 5: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks:
A) are methods for recording locations of findings.
B) are used for noting disease progression.
C) are ways for recording laboratory study results.
D) should not be used in the legal record.
Q2) George Michaels, a 22-year-old patient, tells the nurse that he is here today to "check his allergies." He has been having "green nasal discharge" for the last 72 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?
A) GM is a 22-year-old male here for "allergies."
B) GM came into the clinic complaining of green discharge for the past 72 hours.
C) GM, a 22-year-old male, states that he has allergies and wants them checked.
D) GM is a 22-year-old male here for having "green nasal discharge" for the past 72 hours.
Q3) Which is an example of a problem that requires recording on the patient's problem list?
A) Common age variations
B) Expected findings
C) Problems needing further evaluation
D) Minor variations
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perception of pain:
A) is the same across cultures.
B) can be easily assessed in neonates.
C) is predictable with the same circumstances.
D) is affected by emotions and quality of sleep.
Q2) In a syndrome in which regional pain extends beyond this specific peripheral nerve injury, you would notice which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Allodynia
B) Sleep disturbance
C) Blood flow changes
D) Numbness
E) Edema
Q3) The fifth vital sign is:
A) pain.
B) orientation.
C) waist-to-hip ratio.
D) body mass index (BMI).
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Chapter 7: Mental Status
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 69-year-old truck driver presents with a sudden loss of the ability to understand spoken language. This indicates a lesion in the:
A) temporal lobe.
B) Broca area.
C) frontal cortex.
D) cerebellum.
Q2) Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible?
A) Delirium
B) Dementia
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
Q3) The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to:
A) determine the cause of decreased consciousness.
B) diagnose disorders that alter level of consciousness.
C) quantify consciousness.
D) predict response to stimulant medications.
Q4) The examiner should be concerned about neurologic competence if a social smile cannot be elicited by the time a child is _________ old.
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Chapter 8: Growth, Measurement, and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a preventive healthcare visit, Ms. G, an older patient, states that she is getting shorter. She says that her son mentioned that her change in stature became noticeable to him during his last visit with her. Her posture appears straight and aligned. When addressing Ms. G.'s present concerns, it is most important to inquire about:
A) the number of pregnancies.
B) her parents' heights.
C) a history of scoliosis.
D) her usual height and weight.
Q2) Mrs. Layton is a 33-year-old patient who is obese. Most adult obesity begins:
A) in adolescence.
B) in childhood.
C) after the skeletal growth is completed.
D) once sexual maturation is complete.
Q3) Round face, preauricular fat, hyperpigmentation, and "buffalo hump" in the posterior cervical area are associated with:
A) infantile hydrocephalus.
B) acromegaly.
C) Cushing syndrome.
D) achondroplasia.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Skin, Hair, and Nails
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age spots are also called:
A) seborrheic keratoses.
B) solar lentigines.
C) cutaneous horns.
D) acrochordon.
Q2) Mrs. Britton is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of skin rashes. You have noted a 4.3-cm, rough, elevated area of psoriasis. This is an example of a:
A) plaque.
B) patch.
C) macule.
D) papule.
Q3) You are inspecting the lower extremities of a patient and have noted pale, shiny skin of the lower extremities. This may reflect:
A) systemic disease.
B) a history of vigorous exercise.
C) peptic ulcer disease.
D) mental retardation.
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Chapter 10: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The harder and more discrete a node, the more likely that there is a(n):
A) innocent cause.
B) infection.
C) malignancy.
D) metabolic disease.
Q2) An organ that is essential to the development of protective immune function in the infant but has little or no demonstrated function in the adult is the:
A) spleen.
B) liver.
C) thymus.
D) pancreas.
Q3) Serum sickness is usually characterized first by the appearance of: A) lymph node enlargement.
B) joint pain.
C) urticaria.
D) fever.
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Chapter 11: Head and Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Donaldson is a 64-year-old patient with complaints of headaches. As the examiner, you are palpating his head during your physical examination. Which of the following would be your first step?
A) Palpate the patient's hair, noting texture, color, and distribution.
B) Palpate the temporomandibular joint.
C) Palpate the skull from front to back.
D) Palpate the temporal artery.
Q2) Observation during history taking is the best way to examine for:
A) head position.
B) scalp lice.
C) thyroid size.
D) tracheal alignment.
Q3) Mr. Johnson presents with a freely movable cystic mass in the midline of the high neck region, at the base of the tongue. This is most likely a:
A) parotid gland tumor.
B) branchial cleft cyst.
C) Stensen duct stone.
D) thyroglossal duct cyst.
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Chapter 12: Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. C's visual acuity is 20/50. This means that he:
A) can see 50% of what the average person sees at 20 feet.
B) has perfect vision when tested at 50 feet.
C) can see 20% of the letters on the chart's 20/50 line.
D) can read letters while standing 20 feet from the chart that the average person could read at 50 feet.
Q2) The criterion for determining the adequacy of a patient's visual field is:
A) the ability to discriminate primary colors.
B) the ability to discriminate details.
C) correspondence with the visual field of the examiner.
D) distance vision equal to that of an average person.
Q3) Which finding, when seen in the infant, is ominous?
A) Difficulty tracking objects with the eyes
B) Appearing to have better peripheral than central vision
C) Blinking when bright light is directed at the face
D) White pupils on photographs
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Chapter 13: Ears, Nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hairy tongue with yellowish brown to black elongated papillae on the dorsum:
A) is indicative of oral cancer.
B) is sometimes seen following antibiotic therapy.
C) usually indicates vitamin deficiency.
D) usually indicates anemia.
Q2) You are interviewing a parent whose child has a fever, is pulling at her right ear, and is irritable. You ask the parent about the child's appetite and find that the child has a decreased appetite. This additional finding is more suggestive of:
A) acute otitis media.
B) otitis externa.
C) serous otitis media.
D) middle ear effusion.
Q3) Mrs. Donaldson is a 31-year-old patient who is pregnant. In providing Mrs. Donaldson with healthcare information, you will explain that she can expect to experience:
A) more nasal stuffiness.
B) a sensitive sense of smell.
C) drooling.
D) enhanced hearing.
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Chapter 14: Chest and Lungs
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Sample Questions
Q1) As you take vital signs on Mr. Barrow, age 78 years, you note that his respirations are 40 breaths/min. He has been resting, and his mucosa is pink. In regard to Mr. Barrow's respirations, you would:
A) document his rate as normal.
B) do nothing because his color is pink.
C) note that his rate is below normal.
D) report that he has an above-average rate.
Q2) Ms. Rudman, age 74 years, has no known health problems or diseases. You are doing a preventive healthcare history and examination. Which symptom is associated with intrathoracic infection?
A) Barrel chest
B) Cor pulmonale
C) Funnel chest
D) Malodorous breath
Q3) In which patient situation would you expect to assess tachypnea?
A) Patient who is depressed
B) Patient who abuses narcotics
C) Patient with metabolic acidosis
D) Patient with myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 15: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. O, age 50 years, comes for his annual health assessment, which is provided by his employer. During your initial history-taking interview, Mr. O mentions that he routinely engages in light exercise. At this time, you should:
A) ask if he makes his own bed daily.
B) have the patient describe his exercise.
C) make a note that he walks each day.
D) record "light exercise" in the history.
Q2) To hear diastolic heart sounds, you should ask patients to:
A) lie on their back.
B) lie on their left side.
C) lie on their right side.
D) sit up and lean forward.
Q3) Which of the following information belongs in the past medical history section related to heart and blood vessel assessment?
A) Adolescent inguinal hernia
B) Childhood mumps
C) History of bee stings
D) Previous unexplained fever
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Chapter 16: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are palpating bilateral pedal pulses and cannot feel one of the pulses. The feet are equally warm. You find that both great toes are pink, with a capillary refill within 2 seconds. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Immediate emergency surgery is indicated.
B) Pedal pulses are not always palpable.
C) Unilateral pulses are never normal.
D) Venogram studies will be needed.
Q2) In infants or small children, a capillary refill time of 4 seconds:
A) is normal.
B) indicates hypervolemia.
C) indicates dehydration or hypovolemic shock.
D) indicates renal artery stenosis.
Q3) When examining arterial pulses the thumb may be used:
A) especially if vessels have a tendency to move.
B) never for palpating pulses.
C) checking the jugular venous pressure.
D) during the Allen test.
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Chapter 17: Breasts and Axillae
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Sample Questions
Q1) Montgomery tubercles are most prominent in the breasts of:
A) adult males.
B) patients with lung disease.
C) pregnant women.
D) pubertal females.
Q2) Male gynecomastia associated with illicit or prescription drug use can be expected to:
A) lessen when the body becomes accustomed to the drug.
B) resolve after the drug is discontinued.
C) leave permanent breast enlargement when the drug is discontinued.
D) cause purulent drainage if left untreated.
Q3) You are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. Her breasts are symmetric, with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely movable and with well-defined borders. You recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with:
A) fibroadenoma.
B) Paget disease.
C) cancer.
D) fibrocystic changes.
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Chapter 18: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. Little is a 44-year-old patient who presents to the office with abdominal pain and fever. During your examination, you ask the patient to raise her head and shoulders while she lies in a supine position. A midline abdominal ridge rises. You document this observation as a(n):
A) small inguinal hernia.
B) large epigastric hernia.
C) abdominal lipoma.
D) diastasis recti.
Q2) A mother brings her 2-year-old child for you to assess. The mother feels a lump whenever she fastens the child's diaper. Nephroblastoma is a likely diagnosis for this child when your physical examination of the abdomen reveals a(n):
A) fixed mass palpated in the hypogastric area.
B) tender, midline abdominal mass.
C) olive-sized mass of the right upper quadrant.
D) nontender, slightly movable, flank mass.
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Chapter 19: Female Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure is located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice?
A) Skene glands
B) Clitoris
C) Perineum
D) Bartholin glands
Q2) The female patient should ideally be in which position for the pelvic examination?
A) Fowler
B) Prone
C) Lateral supine
D) Lithotomy
Q3) Pregnancy-related cervical changes include:
A) flattening and lengthening.
B) thinning and reddening.
C) hardening and pallor.
D) softening and bluish coloring.
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Chapter 20: Male Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cancer in young men ages 15 to 30 years is:
A) testicular.
B) penile.
C) prostate.
D) anal.
Q2) The male with Peyronie disease will usually complain of:
A) painful, inflamed testicles.
B) deviation of the penis during erection.
C) lack of sexual interest.
D) painful lesions of the penis.
Q3) The most common type of hernia occurring in young males is:
A) hiatal.
B) incarcerated femoral.
C) indirect inguinal.
D) umbilical.
Q4) A cremasteric reflex should result in:
A) testicular and scrotal rise on the stroked side.
B) penile deviation to the left side.
C) bilateral elevation of the scrotum.
D) immediate erection of the penis.
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Chapter 21: Anus, Rectum, and Prostate
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rectal past medical history of all patients should include inquiry about:
A) bowel habits.
B) dietary habits.
C) hemorrhoid surgery.
D) laxative use.
Q2) Equipment for examination of the anus, rectum, and prostate routinely includes gloves and:
A) a hand mirror and gauze.
B) a lubricant and penlight.
C) slides and normal saline.
D) swabs and culture medium.
Q3) The posterior surface of the prostate can be located by palpation of the:
A) anal canal and perineum.
B) anterior wall of the rectum.
C) lateral wall of the anus.
D) lower abdomen and perineum.
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Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temporalis and masseter muscles are evaluated by:
A) having the patient shrug his or her shoulders.
B) having the patient clench his or her teeth.
C) asking the patient to fully extend his or her neck.
D) passively opening the patient's jaw.
Q2) The type of joint that has the widest range of motion in all planes is the:
A) ball-and-socket.
B) condyloid.
C) gliding.
D) saddle.
Q3) The wrist moves in: (Select all that apply.)
A) eversion and inversion.
B) proximal radius and ulna articulation.
C) flexion and extension
D) adduction and abduction.
Q4) Expected normal findings during the inspection of spinal alignment include:
A) asymmetric skin folds at the neck.
B) slight right-sided scapular elevation.
C) concave lumbar curve.
D) the head positioned superiorly to the gluteal cleft.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area of body surface innervated by a particular spinal nerve is called a:
A) dermatome.
B) nerve pathway.
C) spinal accessory area.
D) cutaneous zone.
Q2) Normal changes of the aging brain include:
A) increased velocity of nerve conduction.
B) diminished perception of touch.
C) increased total number of neurons.
D) diminished intelligence quotient.
Q3) At what age should the infant begin to transfer objects from hand to hand?
A) 2 months
B) 4 months
C) 7 months
D) 10 months
Q4) The parasympathetic nervous system maintains the day-to-day function of: A) digestion.
B) response to stress.
C) lymphatic supply to the brain.
D) lymphatic drainage of the brain.
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Chapter 24: Sports Participation Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation?
A) Asthma
B) Fever
C) Controlled seizures
D) HIV-positive status
Q2) Your 15-year-old patient is athletic and thin. Radiography of an ankle injury reveals a stress fracture. You should question this patient about her:
A) sleep patterns.
B) salt intake.
C) aerobic workouts.
D) menstrual cycles.
Q3) A child has a poorly controlled seizure disorder. He has restricted sports participation but would be able to engage in:
A) archery.
B) swimming.
C) weight lifting.
D) badminton.
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Chapter 25: Putting it All Together
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Sample Questions
Q1) At your first meeting with a patient, it is usually best to say:
A) "Let's get to the point."
B) "I hope you will learn to trust me."
C) "Let me tell you what I can do for you."
D) "Tell me about yourself."
Q2) What is the "brown-bag approach" in regard to examining an older adult?
A) The patient's stool sample is brought to the examination in a brown bag.
B) The patient's medications are brought to the examination in a brown bag.
C) The patient's change of clothes is brought to the examination in a brown bag.
D) The patient's assistive device is brought to the examination in a brown bag.
Q3) Which patient characteristic is most likely to limit patient reliability during history taking?
A) The patient's measured IQ is above average.
B) The patient is alert and oriented to time and place.
C) The patient is depressed.
D) The patient speaks the same language as examiner.
Q4) Ms. Stein visits the nurse practitioner for an annual examination. The nurse practitioner tests Ms. Stein's tongue for movement and strength. The nurse practitioner is assessing CN _______.
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Chapter 26: Emergency or Life-Threatening Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Cushing triad includes:
A) tachycardia.
B) irregular respirations.
C) tachypnea.
D) constricted pupils.
Q2) During injury assessment, one of the most crucial historical components is:
A) number of siblings.
B) history of prior fractures.
C) mechanism of injury.
D) past and current occupational exposure.
Q3) The approximate expected systolic blood pressure for a child older than 1 year is:
A) 120 + child's age in years.
B) 80 + child's age in years.
C) 120 ?- child's age in years.
D) 80 + (the child's age in years).
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