Health Assessment
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Health Assessment is a foundational course that introduces students to the systematic process of collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data about a patient's physical, psychological, and social health. Emphasizing both theoretical knowledge and practical skills, the course covers techniques such as patient interviews, health histories, and comprehensive physical examinations. Students learn to use assessment tools and apply critical thinking to identify normal and abnormal findings across the lifespan. This course prepares learners to effectively communicate assessment results and contribute to clinical decision-making in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Health Assessment and Physical Examination 5th Edition by Mary Ellen Zator Estes
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27 Chapters
1242 Verified Questions
1242 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Critical Thinking And The Nursing Process
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When evaluating a patient's progress toward targeted outcomes,the nurse must always explore which of the following?
A) staff's perception of whether goals were met or not, and to what degree
B) patient's perception of whether goals were met or not, and to what degree
C) family's perception of whether goals were met or not, and to what degree
D) physician's perception of whether goals were met or not, and to what degree
Answer: B
Q2) A nursing student has just completed the examination of an assigned patient and approaches the instructor to discuss the results.The student tells the instructor that the patient said he has been experiencing fatigue when mowing the lawn or when climbing the stairs.The nursing instructor asks the student,"What source data has the client's statement provided you?" The instructor is attempting to determine if the student understands which of the following?
A) Objective data
B) Subjective data
C) Supplemental data
D) Testable data
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Communication Techniques And The Patient
Interview
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You should minimize the risk of aggression from a patient with a history of violence by doing all of the following,EXCEPT
A) positioning your chair between the patient's chair and the door.
B) using limit setting and refocusing.
C) leaving the door to the interview room open.
D) confronting the patient.
Answer: D
Q2) In many rural areas,advance practice nurses are using telenursing to elicit a patient's history.Which physical exam skill would the nurse be able to perform with the use of an electronic stethoscope? Select all that apply.
A) Lung sounds
B) Temperature
C) Bowel sounds
D) Cardiac sounds
E) Urine specific gravity
F) Blood type
Answer: A,C,D
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Chapter 3: The Complete Health History Including Documentation
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After completing the examination of a newly admitted patient,the nurse would document the patient's chief complaint in terms of A) signs and symptoms.
B) associated manifestations.
C) the health care provider's own words.
D) the nurse's own words.
Answer: A
Q2) In a genogram,a square that is blackened represents a A) living female.
B) living male.
C) deceased female.
D) deceased male.
Answer: D
Q3) To assess the quality of pain,you would ask the patient
A) "Where are you feeling the pain?"
B) "What does this pain feel like?"
C) "What does it mean to you to have this pain?"
D) "How disabling is this pain?"
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Developmental Assessment
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Freud,the major conflict of children between the ages of 6 and 12 years is
A) identifying with the same-sex parent.
B) resolving the Oedipus-Electra complex.
C) developing self-assurance and self-esteem.
D) establishing meaningful relationships with peers.
Q2) An inability to achieve the physical and psychosocial skills for a particular developmental stage results in
A) possible delays or incomplete mastery of subsequent developmental skills.
B) the inability to progress to the next developmental stage.
C) chronic physical and psychological illnesses.
D) lowered life expectancy.
Q3) A stressful life event commonly faced by adults in the early middle-adult years includes
A) facing an "empty nest" as children move away.
B) being diagnosed with a chronic health problem such as cancer.
C) adjusting to the possible or actual death of parents and /or life partner.
D) reviewing the experiences, relationships, and events of one's life and accepting one's life and accompanying life choices and outcomes in their entirety (a life review).
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Cultural Assessment
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following societal changes are leading to many different nontraditional families and family configurations? Select all that apply.
A) Increasing rates of divorce and remarriage
B) Increasing support for and recognition of same-sex unions
C) Poor job market and having to move in with their parents
D) Increasing numbers of families facing a poor job market
E) Decreasing numbers of single people choosing to have or adopt children
F) Decreasing numbers of couples in which both parents need to work
Q2) Approaches for overcoming language barriers include
A) speaking slowly and loudly.
B) avoiding the use of gestures or pictures.
C) using a culturally sensitive interpreter.
D) speaking to the interpreter rather than to the patient.
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to shared cultural,social,and linguistic heritage?
A) beliefs
B) culture
C) socialization
D) ethnicity
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Chapter 6: Spiritual Assessment
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When conducting a spiritual assessment,you should obtain information about the patient's spiritual beliefs and how those beliefs might
A) conflict with the policies of the health care agency or institution.
B) affect the patient's views of health, illness, and health care.
C) lead to spiritual distress.
D) differ from your personal beliefs.
Q2) Parish nursing is often called which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Spiritual nursing
B) Religious nursing
C) Catholic nursing
D) Ministry nursing
E) Congregational nursing
F) Faith community nursing
Q3) The belief that after physical death a person lives another life on Earth in another body is called ____________________.
Q4) Buddhism views treatment for infertility and _____________________ as unnatural and therefore discourage these practices.
Q5) An individual who is unsure that God exists is called a(n)____________________.
Q6) Solemn and ceremonial acts that reinforce faith are called
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Chapter 7: Nutritional Assessment
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55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male patient has a waist of 42 inches and hips that are 35 inches.What would be your conclusion about his waist to hip ratio?
A) He has a "pear" distribution of body fat.
B) It is associated with the adverse morbidity and mortality of obesity, cardiovascular disease, and diabetes.
C) It is normal.
D) It is associated with bulimia nervosa.
Q2) The nurse assesses an infant for possible dehydration.Which of the following findings would reveal dehydration? Select all that apply.
A) Sunken eyes
B) Excess urine output
C) Inability to produce tears
D) Urine specific gravity <1.035
E) History of inadequate fluid intake
F) Tongue with furrows and fissures
Q3) The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that infants receive breast milk instead of formula feedings for the first ___________________ months of life.
Q4) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is lack of ___________________.
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Chapter 8: Physical Examination Techniques
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medical products contain latex? Select all that apply.
A) Syringes
B) Thermometers
C) Wound drains
D) Tourniquets
E) Blood pressure cuffs
F) Rubber stoppers on medication vials
Q2) The more air-filled a structure is,the
A) higher its pitch, the softer its intensity, and the shorter its duration.
B) higher its pitch, the louder its intensity, and the shorter its duration.
C) lower its pitch, the louder its intensity, and the shorter its duration.
D) lower its pitch, the louder its intensity, and the longer its duration.
Q3) Percussion is a useful examination technique to determine the size,shape,and position of organs as well as to
A) determine the density (air, fluid, or solid) of a structure.
B) detect an abnormal deep mass (over 5 cm deep).
C) listen to body organs to gather information on the patient's clinical status.
D) determine the skin moisture and texture with your hands.
Q4) Standard precautions are used to prevent the exchange of ____________________ and ____________________.
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Chapter 9: General Survey, vital Signs, and Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Listening carefully to the Korotkoff sounds as you deflate the blood pressure cuff,you detect the first sound at 146.It continues until 94,when the sounds are muffled,and eventually the sounds disappear at 40.Using the recommended method,you record this blood pressure as
A) 146/94.
B) 146/40.
C) 146/94/40.
D) 94/40/0.
Q2) A patient's blood pressure is 168/102 in the left arm and 175/104 in the right arm.According to The Joint National Committee's seventh report,in which BP classification category would this patient be?
A) normal
B) prehypertension
C) stage 1 hypertension
D) stage 2 hypertension
Q3) A variation between a patient's standing blood pressure reading of 104/64 and a supine reading of 138/88 is most likely because the patient has
Q4) A weak,thready pulse can be caused by ____________________ shock.
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Chapter 10: Skin, hair, and Nails
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of hair? Select all that apply.
A) Warmth
B) Moisture
C) Protection
D) Circulation
E) Sensation
F) Cooling
Q2) The reticular lay of the dermis is composed of which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Nerves
B) Small elastic fibers
C) Lymphatic tissue
D) Loose connective tissue
E) Extensive network of capillaries
F) Dense bed of vascular connective tissue
Q3) The fine hair that covers the majority of the body is called ____________________ hair.
Q4) A white cast to the skin resulting from a congenital inability to form melanin is known as ____________________.
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Chapter 11: Head, neck, and Regional Lymph Nodes
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Sample Questions
Q1) You detect a nonmobile fatty mass with a smooth circular edge when palpating deeply in a patient's scalp.This is most likely a
A) hematoma.
B) lipoma.
C) metastatic carcinoma.
D) subcutaneous emphysema.
Q2) The face of a patient with Parkinson's disease typically
A) has sunken eyes and hollow cheeks.
B) is immobile and expressionless, with a staring gaze.
C) is thin, with sharply defined features and prominent eyes.
D) has a dusky blue discoloration beneath the eyes, with creases in the lower eyelids.
Q3) When conducting a physical examination on your patient,you determine that which of the following is a normal finding of lymph node examination?
A) nontender, fixed, hard nodes
B) nonmobile, rubbery, erythematous nodes
C) small, discrete, movable nodes
D) enlarged node in the left supraclavicular area
Q4) A(n)_____________________ headache is an example of a vascular headache.
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Chapter 12: Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding from an examination of the external eye,eyelids,and lacrimal apparatus is normal?
A) an area of white sclera appears between the upper lid and limbus
B) the eyelids cover the upper portion of the iris
C) both lower eyelids turn outward
D) redness is present in the temporal portion of both eyelids
Q2) To examine for accommodation,you would first instruct the patient to look at a distant object for 30 seconds and then note the size and reaction of the pupils when you
A) ask the patient to close the eyes for 10 seconds and then look at you.
B) ask the patient to look at an object about 10 cm away.
C) shine a penlight into the patient's eyes.
D) cover first one eye and then the other.
Q3) Your examination of a patient reveals bilateral dilated pupils with absent reaction to light and accommodation.These findings most likely indicate which of the following?
A) anisocoria caused by disturbance of the neurophthalmic pathways
B) Argyll Robertson pupils caused by encephalitis or brain tumor
C) increased intracranial pressure from severe head trauma
D) the effects of topical application of miotic drops
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14
Chapter 13: Ears, nose, mouth, and Throat
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The large parotid glands,located in the cheeks,secrete amylase-rich fluid through which of the following?
A) Wharton ducts
B) Stensen's ducts
C) Sulcus terminalis
D) Semicircular canals
Q2) Which structures of the middle ear are involved in movement of the ossicles?
A) vestibule and stapedius
B) tensor tympani and stapedius
C) stapedius and eustachian tube
D) eustachian tube and tensor tympani
Q3) You observe redness,swelling,and narrowing of the external ear,which most likely indicate acute otitis ____________________.
Q4) The eustachian tubes are located in the ____________________ ear and equalize air pressure.
Q5) Thin,pearly white lesions that coalesce and are palpable on the sides of the tongue are characteristic of ____________________.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Breasts And Regional Nodes
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which regional nodes are easily accessible to palpation? Select all that apply.
A) Central axillary nodes
B) Pectoral nodes
C) Subscapular nodes
D) Internal mammary nodes
E) Lateral nodes
F) Rotter's nodes
Q2) Findings upon palpation of lymph nodes that are indicative of a systemic infection include which of the following?
A) fixed firm, immobile, irregular nodes
B) enlarged nodes less than 1 cm in diameter
C) enlarged, nontender, firm nodes
D) enlarged, tender, or painful nodes that are matted together
Q3) When examining a patient who has undergone a left simple mastectomy,the nurse should do which of the following?
A) examine the right breast first
B) omit palpating the lymph nodes on the left side because they were removed
C) turn her to her right side before palpation
D) omit palpating the left nipple because it was removed
Q4) The pigmented area surrounding the nipple is called the
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Thorax And Lungs
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Sample Questions
Q1) To examine the posterior thorax,percuss two or three strikes,starting at the right lung apex along the top of the shoulder,and
A) repeat at the left lung apex, comparing the sounds from both.
B) move down 5 cm, repeat the percussion, and compare the sounds.
C) repeat at the right base, comparing the sounds.
D) repeat at each rib, comparing the sounds.
Q2) Which respiratory condition reported by a patient when you obtain the family health history is not considered to be a familial disease?
A) lung cancer
B) tuberculosis
C) pneumonia
D) alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency
Q3) Your patient states that he is sitting upright because he has difficulty breathing when lying down.You determine that the patient has A) dyspnea.
B) agonal respirations.
C) bradypnea.
D) orthopnea.
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Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) S<sub>1</sub> is loudest,and therefore best heard,in the:
A) tricuspid area.
B) mitral area.
C) midprecordium area.
D) aortic area.
Q2) The normal pacemaker of the heart is the
A) S-A node at 120 bpm.
B) A-V node at 60 bpm.
C) S-A node at 70 bpm.
D) A-V node at 40 bpm.
Q3) A healthy adult heart pumps up to ____________________ liters of blood per minute.
Q4) A pulsation in the aortic area,discovered upon inspection,is considered
A) normal, due to blood pulsating against the aortic wall.
B) abnormal, possibly caused by an aortic root aneurysm.
C) abnormal, possibly caused by right ventricular hypertrophy.
D) abnormal, possibly caused by aortic regurgitation.
Q5) An obstruction in the left main coronary artery is often referred to as a(n)____________________ because of its lethal effect.
Q6) The bicuspid valve is also known as the ____________________ valve.
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Chapter 17: Peripheral Vasculature And Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much lymph is transported through the lymphatic vessels each day?
A) 2 liters/day
B) 3 litersl/day
C) 4 liters/minute
D) 5 liters/minute
Q2) Which of the following best describes lymphadenopathy?
A) occurs when lymph nodes become infected
B) group of cancers that originate in the lymphatic system
C) inherited condition whereby lymphatic vessels are impaired or missing
D) inflammation of the lymph node(s) related to a bacterial infection of the node tissue
Q3) Possible causes of pulse paradox include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Cardiac tamponade
B) Pericardial effusion
C) Constrictive pericarditis
D) Restrictive cardiomyopathy
E) Superior vena cava obstruction
F) Severe chronic obstructive lung disease
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Chapter 18: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located?
A) right upper quadrant
B) right lower quadrant
C) left upper quadrant
D) left lower quadrant
Q2) You should be particularly careful when performing deep palpation of the abdomen in patients with suspected
A) cancer of the bowel to prevent metastasis.
B) ascites to prevent fluid shifting and electrolyte loss.
C) enlarged spleen to prevent rupture.
D) fecal impaction or severe diarrhea to prevent pain.
Q3) Palpation of the abdominal aorta reveals an aorta width of 5 cm and lateral pulsation.This finding suggests a(n)
A) normal finding.
B) ruptured aorta.
C) abdominal aortic aneurysm.
D) coarctation of the aorta.
Q4) The most commonly used abdominal examination approach is the ____________________ technique.
Q5) ____________________ bowel sounds indicate decreased motility.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Numbness and paresthesia in the palmar aspect of the hand and the first three fingers occurring after maintaining wrist flexion of 90° for 1 minute is a positive
A) Phalen's test.
B) Tinel's sign.
C) Trendelenburg test.
D) tunnel test.
Q2) You note that your patient's gluteal cleft is lateral to the imaginary line you drew from her head straight down her spine.This finding indicates A) structural scoliosis.
B) kyphosis.
C) a list.
D) functional scoliosis.
Q3) A patient has hard,nontender enlargements on his distal interphalangeal joints.These are called A) ganglion cysts.
B) Bouchard's nodes.
C) tophi.
D) Heberden's nodes.
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21
Chapter 20: Mental Status And Neurological Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tapping the Achilles tendon just above its insertion in the heel normally results in contraction of the gastrocnemius,soleus,and plantaris muscles and A) extension of the leg.
B) flexion of the leg.
C) plantar flexion of the foot.
D) dorsiflexion of the foot.
Q2) Your patient has a chief complaint of right-sided facial pain,which is exacerbated by shaving and chewing.While testing you patient's corneal reflex,you observe a normal response,which is the
A) blinking of his right eye.
B) constriction of his right pupil.
C) bilateral blinking of his eyes.
D) tearing of his right eye.
Q3) A glove-and-stocking pattern of anesthesia most likely is caused by A) polyneuritis.
B) spinal cord lesion.
C) brain lesion.
D) hysteria.
Q4) Memory storage and recall are associated with the _____________________.
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Chapter 21: Female Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area located between the two skin folds of the labia minora is known as the
A) labia majora.
B) perineum.
C) mons pubis.
D) vestibule.
Q2) The function of the labia majora is to ____________________ the components it surrounds.
Q3) After the fertilized ovum is implanted,the corpus luteum is maintained by the presence of which hormone(s)?
A) estrogen and progesterone
B) follicle-stimulating hormone
C) human chorionic gonadotropin
D) luteinizing hormone
Q4) The uterus is comprised of the
Q5) The beginning of the female reproductive cycle,or onset of menstruation,is called
Q6) Menstrual blood does not clot,because it lacks ____________________.
Q7) The urinary meatus is located in the __________________.
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Chapter 22: Male Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple piercings up the penile shaft is known as which of the following?
A) Prince Albert
B) frenum ladder
C) dydoe
D) ampallang
Q2) Palpation of a patient's scrotum reveals a normal testicle on the right,but the left testicle cannot be palpated.You suspect that he has cryptorchidism and
A) ask him about recent trauma to his scrotum.
B) ask him about recent viral infections such as mumps.
C) palpate his left inguinal canal to locate the testicle.
D) prepare him for emergency surgery.
Q3) The enlargement of the scrotum that occurs with a hydrocele is the result of A) blocked ductules resulting in sperm-filled cysts.
B) dilated veins of the spermatic cord.
C) accumulation of fluid between the layers of the tunica vaginalis.
D) edema caused by an inguinal hernia.
Q4) The pouchlike structure supporting the testes is called the ____________________.
Q5) The testicles are suspended by the ____________________.
Q6) Sperm production occurs at approximately age ____________________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Anus, rectum, and Prostate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rectal prolapse is best assessed with the patient placed in which position?
A) lying on the stomach
B) squatting
C) knee-chest
D) Sims'
Q2) The stool of a patient with obstructive jaundice typically is
A) black and tarry.
B) pale yellow and greasy.
C) gray or tan.
D) brown, containing mucus.
Q3) Rectal prolapse is associated with which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Viral infection
B) Fecal incontinence
C) Neurological disease
D) Chronic straining at stool
E) Traumatic damage to the pelvis
F) Poor tone of the pelvic musculature
Q4) Rectal polyps are most often diagnosed by ____________________.
Q5) The function of the Houston's valves are to retain ____________________.
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Chapter 24: The Pregnant Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) After careful examination,you are unable to determine the outline of your patient's fetus.This result may be associated with A) the need for cesarean section.
B) polyhydramnios or maternal obesity.
C) severe fetal malformations.
D) uterine tumor or hydatidiform mole.
Q2) Cocaine use during pregnancy can lead to an addicted newborn and is associated with a higher incidence of A) fetal anomalies and hemorrhage.
B) low infant birth weight and stillbirth.
C) microcephaly and cardiovascular defects.
D) abruptio placentae and preterm delivery.
Q3) Erythematous plaques that develop into vesicular lesions and may later become pustular are known as A) chloasma or melasma.
B) herpes lesions.
C) papular dermatitis.
D) prurigo.
Q4) Melasma,or chloasma,is better known as the _____________________.
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Chapter 25: The Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who displays the characteristics of genu varum has a distance between the two medial condyles of
A) less than 2 inches.
B) more than 2 inches.
C) less than 1 inch.
D) more than 1 inch.
Q2) You completed an Apgar score on a newborn baby.The newborn's score was 7 at 5 minutes after birth.These results indicates he is
A) in good condition.
B) mildly depressed.
C) moderately depressed.
D) severely depressed and needs immediate resuscitation.
Q3) Children in which age group typically gain 3 to 6 pounds and grow 1 to 2 inches (2.5-5 cm)per year?
A) 12-24 months
B) 2-6 years
C) 6-12 years
D) 13-18 years
Q4) Rapid growth in an adolescent is called a(n)____________________.
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Chapter 26: The Older Adult Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ethnic older adult may experience a loss of self-worth when the nurse
A) informs the patient about ethnic support services.
B) allows a patient to rely on ethnic health beliefs and practices.
C) has to use an interpreter to provide explanations and teaching.
D) emphasizes that a therapeutic diet does not allow ethnic foods.
Q2) When the nurse is taking a nursing history on a patient,the patient mentions,"I slipped on a wet spot on the way to the bathroom." Which of the following is a priority for the nurse to ask?
A) "Have you been feeling excessively weak recently?"
B) "Do you drink caffeinated beverages?"
C) "Have you started on any new medications?"
D) "Have you experienced any incontinent episodes?"
Q3) Depression is often caused by decreases in the neurotransmitters ____________________ and _____________________.
Q4) The elderly patient may experience a decrease in height resulting from A) muscle atrophy.
B) loss of bone density.
C) a narrowing of the intervertebral disk.
D) thoracic kyphosis.
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Chapter 27: The Complete Health History And Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is recommended for improving the examination of a bedridden patient?
A) obtaining the help of an assistant
B) conducting examinations with less frequency
C) obtaining the patient's health history from a family member
D) permitting the patient to restore the room to its original condition at the end of the examination
Q2) Nail bed color and capillary refill are assessed during which part of the assessment?
A) heart
B) height and weight
C) upper extremities
D) assessed only if patient is short of breath
Q3) You would assess for costovertebral angle tenderness while assessing the A) anterior thorax.
B) back, and posterior and lateral thorax.
C) neck.
D) upper extremities.
Q4) Femoral pulses are palpated and auscultated when you are assessing the