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Health and Society explores the complex interactions between health, illness, and social factors, examining how societal structures, cultural norms, economic conditions, and public policy shape the health outcomes of individuals and communities. Through an interdisciplinary approach, this course introduces key concepts in medical sociology, public health, and social epidemiology, discussing topics such as health disparities, the social determinants of health, health care systems, and the role of gender, race, and class in influencing health. Students will critically analyze how social forces impact the distribution of disease and health services, and consider strategies for promoting health equity both locally and globally.
Recommended Textbook
Connect Core Concepts in Health BIG 15th Edition by Paul M. Insel
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Q1) The concept of wellness defines health as the absence of disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A target behavior can best be defined as
A)a behavior that is the focus of your behavior change plan.
B)a friend's behavior that you urge him or her to change.
C)a lifelong habit you want to stop immediately.
D)several bad,interrelated habits in need of change.
Answer: A
Q3) Self-confidence is one characteristic of a person who possesses good emotional health.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Groups who have high poverty rates often have the worst health status.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Q1) Stress has been found to contribute to which of the following conditions?
A)depression
B)schizophrenia
C)autism
D)all of these
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following would be the LEAST effective strategy for coping with stress?
A)denying the existence of the stress
B)exercising regularly
C)improving time-management skills
D)maintaining a social support system
Answer: A
Q3) People who are experiencing stress should avoid or limit caffeine for all the following reasons EXCEPT that caffeine
A)is mildly addictive.
B)is associated with irritability.
C)might cause sleeplessness.
D)acts as a sedative.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Behaviorists analyze behavior in terms of all of the following EXCEPT A)reinforcement.
B)intervention. C)stimulus.
D)response.
Answer: B
Q2) Irrational,repetitive,hard-to-resist actions are called A)delusions.
B)phobias.
C)obsessions.
D)compulsions.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements about fear is FALSE?
A)It is a basic and useful emotion.
B)It is considered to be a problem if it is out of proportion to real danger.
C)Anxiety is a form of fear.
D)It is most useful when it occurs on a daily basis.
Answer: D
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Q1) If you and your partner find that you argue again and again over the same issue,you should
A)seek professional help.
B)end the relationship.
C)accept the differences between you.
D)deal with the issue at another time.
Q2) Researchers have proposed six major qualities that appear in strong families.Identify and explain at least three of these qualities.
Q3) During what time of child development and growth is marital satisfaction most likely to increase?
A)when the last child leaves home
B)when the child is in elementary school
C)during the infant and toddler stage
D)when the child is in high school
Q4) The roots of our identity and sense of self are found in our A)childhood.
B)peer group.
C)profession.
D)community.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Media images of sexuality have little influence on shaping the sexual attitudes and behaviors of adolescents and college students.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The purpose of the seminal vesicles is to
A)lubricate the urethra.
B)allow for an orgasm without ejaculation.
C)serve as an indicator that ejaculation is about to occur.
D)provide nutrients for semen.
Q3) What happens to the corpus luteum if pregnancy occurs?
A)It begins to produce progesterone and estrogen.
B)It degenerates almost immediately,and the levels of estrogen and progesterone decline.
C)It is maintained by human chorionic gonadotropin,so it continues to produce hormones.
D)It forms the placenta for the embryo.
Q4) A common explanation for female genital cutting is to control a woman's sexuality.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Because of the expense of female condoms,doctors recommend that women rinse out and reuse the condoms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Oral contraceptives decrease the risk of all of the following EXCEPT
A)benign breast disease.
B)painful periods.
C)ovarian,colon,and rectal cancers.
D)sexually transmitted infections.
Q3) The Nexplanon implant is effective for how long?
A)one year
B)three years
C)five years
D)eight years
Q4) The Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch slowly releases one hormone (estrogen)into the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the best practices for using a male latex condom,from choosing one in a store to disposing of it after use.
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Q1) Which of the following is a pro-choice view?
A)Adoption is always the best option for women who are pregnant with a child they cannot care for.
B)Abortion has an overall destructive effect on our society.
C)Women who have sex know the potential consequences and need to accept those consequences.
D)A fetus is part of a pregnant woman,and thus she has control over it.
Q2) The methods available for ending a pregnancy primarily depend on
A)what the insurance will cover.
B)what type of facility will do the abortion.
C)how far along the pregnancy is.
D)why the woman wants the abortion.
Q3) The top reason women give for choosing an abortion is A)health concerns.
B)immaturity.
C)the fear of people learning about the pregnancy.
D)the way parenthood changes a person's life.
Q4) Medicaid is available to pay for the abortions of poor women.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The most common individual cause of female infertility is A)hyperthermia from hot tub use.
B)thyroid disease.
C)failure to ovulate.
D)endometriosis.
Q2) A low-birth-weight baby is one that weighs less than 5.5 pounds.
A)True B)False
Q3) The egg that is created from the fertilization of an ovum with a sperm is called a(n) A)embryo.
B)zygote.
C)blastocyst.
D)fetus.
Q4) The Apgar score includes evaluation of the newborn's color,heart rate,muscle tone,respiration,and reflexes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and discuss four factors or issues that partners should consider when deciding whether and when to become parents.
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Q1) For someone to be diagnosed as having a severe substance use disorder,they must meet a minimum of _______________ of the 11 criteria.

C)6 D)9
Q2) The goal of harm reduction strategies is to minimize the negative effects of drug use and abuse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Developing persuasive antidrug education offers little hope for solving the drug problem in the future.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Expressing a persistent desire to cut down or regulate substance use is among the listed symptoms in the DSM-5 criteria for a substance use disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following BEST describes alcoholics in the United States?
A)They are usually poor and homeless.
B)They are usually college students.
C)They often alternate between periods of sobriety and heavy drinking.
D)They usually manage to permanently control their drinking after a frightening problem develops.
Q2) Which of the following statements BEST describes Alcoholics Anonymous?
A)It is based on one-on-one sessions with a mentor.
B)It teaches alcoholics to reach within for the power to conquer their addiction.
C)It often pairs recovering drinkers with a sponsor.
D)It encourages members to stay away from other recovering alcoholics.
Q3) Which of the following statements describes how the drug naltrexone works?
A)It acts as an antidepressant.
B)It decreases the pleasant effects of alcohol.
C)It blocks the intoxicating effects of alcohol.
D)It causes illness when alcohol is consumed.
Q4) Chronic drinkers metabolize alcohol at slower rates than nondrinkers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) White or red patches that appear in the mouth as a result of using spit tobacco are called
A)leukoplakia.
B)gingivitis.
C)dental caries.
D)oral cancer.
Q2) Rates of smoking are consistent across various ethnic groups.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People who are highly educated are more likely to smoke than people who have low educational attainment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following BEST describes the influence of tobacco advertising on young people?
A)It does not appear to affect children until their teen years.
B)Its influence on tobacco use has been overstated.
C)It encourages adolescents to try their parents' cigarettes.
D)It targets users by associating tobacco use with confidence and youth.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?
A)vitamin A
B)vitamin B
C)vitamin D
D)vitamin K
Q2) List the food groups in the USDA's MyPlate.For each group,provide the suggested range of daily servings.
Q3) Spending time in the sun facilitates vitamin D production in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Connie has been evaluating her daily consumption of beverages to improve the overall quality of her diet.Which of the following beverages should Connie choose less often?
A)regular soda
B)unsweetened iced tea
C)water
D)low-fat milk
Q5) Josh is a freshman and is in need of eating strategies to use when he has his meals in the dining hall.List six strategies that will help him establish healthy eating habits.
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Q1) Which of the following statements about athletic injuries is TRUE?
A)If you are careful,you won't get injured.
B)Exercising during high heat and humidity can help prevent injuries.
C)Seek medical attention for minor injuries that do not get better within a reasonable amount of time.
D)All of these statements are true.
Q2) Footwear is an important piece of equipment for almost any activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The key to getting into shape without injury is A)hard work.
B)consistency.
C)taking it easy.
D)having fun.
Q4) For people who need to prevent weight gain,lose weight,or maintain weight loss (based on U.S.Department of Health and Human Services guidelines),30 minutes of physical activity per day may not be enough.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Regular physical activity is essential for maintaining weight loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The eating disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of overeating followed by purging is
A)borderline disordered eating.
B)bulimia nervosa.
C)anorexia nervosa.
D)binge-eating disorder.
Q3) Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)is related to obsessive-compulsive disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Prescription appetite suppressants like Belviq and Qsymia are among the few medications that promote weight loss without side effects.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Complications associated with diabetes include nerve damage and circulatory problems.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT raise triglyceride levels?
A)excess body fat
B)a low-carbohydrate diet
C)cigarette smoking
D)physical inactivity
Q2) Men are more likely than women to have a heart attack in their forties.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common type of heart valve disorder
A)is very likely to cause symptoms.
B)involves the mitral valve.
C)is treated with surgery in most cases.
D)usually reduces exercise ability.
Q4) Which of the following combinations would place someone at greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
A)low HDL and low LDL
B)high HDL and high LDL
C)low HDL and high LDL
D)high HDL and low LDL
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Q1) Oral cancers are primarily the result of tobacco and alcohol use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following statements are TRUE about multiple myeloma,EXCEPT that it
A)is more common in older people.
B)is most common among white women.
C)produces tumors in several sites,particularly in the bone marrow.
D)can lead to anemia,excessive bleeding,and decreased resistance to infection.
Q3) An oncogene is a gene involved in the transformation of a normal cell into a cancer cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Weight gain in early adulthood increases a woman's risk for which two forms of cancer in particular?
A)endometrial and breast cancers
B)oral and endometrial cancers
C)breast and liver cancers
D)None of these answers is correct.
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Q1) Viral meningitis is more dangerous than bacterial meningitis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Histamine production may cause congestion and sneezing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For which of the following diseases would one receive a vaccine made from a pathogen that has already been killed?
A)measles
B)mumps
C)rubella
D)influenza
Q4) Vessels,organs,and structures that pick up excess fluids,then filter out and destroy foreign cells and debris,belong to the _______________ system.
A)digestive
B)antibody
C)lymphatic
D)circulatory
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Q1) Transmission of HIV occurs through which of the following?
A)using the same toilet as someone with HIV
B)sharing eating utensils with someone with HIV
C)unprotected sexual intercourse with someone with HIV
D)all of these
Q2) To help protect herself from contracting an STI,Molly should
A)assume responsibility for learning about the various STIs.
B)avoid becoming intoxicated before entering into a sexual situation.
C)always have her partner wear a condom during intercourse.
D)do all of these.
Q3) Lisa had a risky sexual encounter (sexual intercourse without a condom)while intoxicated.Even though she has no symptoms,she is worried that she may have contracted an STI.What can Lisa do to reduce her risk of serious complications from STIs? What types of tests and treatments might be helpful for her?
Q4) Which of the following causes almost all cervical cancers?
A)syphilis
B)trichomoniasis
C)human papillomavirus
D)pelvic inflammatory disease
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a recommended way to reduce chemical pollution?
A)using nontoxic,nonpetrochemical personal and household products
B)disposing of household hazardous wastes properly
C)storing toxic household products out of the reach of children and pets
D)buying meat,poultry,and produce grown outside your local area
Q2) A major contributor to loss of habitat and species extinction is
A)growing rural populations.
B)nuclear power.
C)tourism.
D)improved farming methods.
Q3) A product that can break down naturally and safely into the raw materials of nature and become a part of the environment again is
A)biodegradable.
B)recyclable.
C)compostable.
D)abiotic.
Q4) The concentration of greenhouse gases is increasing in large part because of the combustion of fossil fuels.
A)True
B)False

21
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Q1) Which of the following would NOT be a purpose or condition for which consumers are likely to turn to complementary and alternative medicine?
A)weight loss
B)chronic joint problems
C)smoking cessation
D)broken bones
Q2) Strategies for good communication with your physician include all of the following EXCEPT
A)making a written list of questions before your appointment.
B)bringing a list of the medications you are taking to your appointment.
C)saving your major concerns until the doctor brings them up.
D)repeating to the doctor what you understand you're supposed to do.
Q3) A person does NOT usually need to check with a physician about symptoms that are A)recurrent.
B)familiar.
C)persistent.
D)severe.
Q4) Physicians sometimes overprescribe drugs in response to pressure from patients.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) All of the following are dangerous pedestrian behaviors EXCEPT
A)walking on busy roads at night.
B)wearing dark clothing.
C)crossing at intersections.
D)hitchhiking.
Q2) Which one of the following types of over-the-counter drugs has been found to impair driving skills as significantly as alcohol intoxication?
A)aspirin
B)antihistamine
C)antifungal medicine
D)decongestants
Q3) Which of the following statements about homicide is FALSE?
A)Black males are at the highest risk of death from homicide.
B)Poverty is a significant factor in homicide.
C)Most homicides are committed against strangers.
D)Most homicides are committed with a firearm.
Q4) The mass media expose audiences of all ages to violence as an acceptable means of solving problems.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Differences in life expectancy between males and females are likely due to all of the following factors EXCEPT
A)different levels of risk-taking.
B)different levels of exercise.
C)different levels of alcohol use.
D)different levels of drug use.
Q2) Nearly 100 percent of all people over 65 have some form of arthritis. A)True B)False
Q3) Alzheimer's disease is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
A)a breakdown of the system that produces acetylcholine.
B)destruction of brain tissue from small strokes.
C)formation of tangles in affected neurons.
D)formation of amyloid plaques between neurons.
Q4) Social Security was intended to serve as a supplement to personal savings. A)True B)False
Q5) The risk of osteoporosis can be assessed through bone mineral density testing. A)True B)False
24
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Q1) Individuals who hold a mature understanding of death commonly hold ideas that have no scientific proof.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The component of a mature understanding of death that recognizes that all living things eventually die is A)nonfunctionality.
B)irreversibility.
C)universality.
D)causality.
Q3) Rosie faces many challenges after Bill's death,including taking on tasks of daily living that Bill had handled,such as managing finances.Those tasks will be part of A)bereavement.
B)the loss-oriented coping with death.
C)the restoration-oriented coping with death.
D)the initial stage of grief.
Q4) Coming to terms with loss means putting the deceased out of one's mind forever.
A)True B)False
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