Government and Citizenship Exam Review - 1865 Verified Questions

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Government and Citizenship Exam Review

Course Introduction

This course explores the relationship between government institutions and citizens, examining how governments are structured, how they function, and how individuals interact with and influence political systems. Students will analyze the principles of democracy, the roles and responsibilities of citizens, civil liberties and rights, processes of political participation, and the impact of public policy. Integrating case studies from various national and international contexts, the course emphasizes the importance of informed and active citizenship in promoting accountable and responsive governance.

Recommended Textbook

Struggle for Democracy 11th Edition by Benjamin I. Page

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18 Chapters

1865 Verified Questions

1865 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Democracy and American Politics

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46 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) In what type of situation would you recommend direct democracy over representative democracy? Why? Give an example.

Answer: An ideal response will:

1. Note that direct democracy requires that people are able to meet regularly to discuss issues.

2. Discuss how direct democracy may be more appropriate in small communities, areas such as New England towns where participation is encouraged, and schools and local communities. It is more likely that these citizens can meet regularly, and also be reasonably informed on issues.

Q2) Why do some political thinkers believe that democracy is superior to other forms of government?

A) because it encourages dreams that can never be achieved

B) because it is incapable of promoting progress on important decisions

C) because it protects human rights

D) because it is found only in the United States

E) because it subverts the views of the masses

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: The Constitution

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107 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain the process for amending the Constitution.

Answer: An ideal response will:

1. Identify the two processes for proposing an amendment-two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress or national constitutional convention called by Congress at the request of two-thirds of the states.

2. Identify the two processes for ratifying an amendment-by legislatures in three-fourths of the states or by ratifying conventions in three-fourths of the states.

Q2) Which of the following was part of both the Articles of Confederation and the Constitution?

A) Congress

B) the presidency

C) the federal judiciary

D) collection of taxes by the federal government

E) unanimous consent for ratification

Answer: A

Q3) __________ Rebellion exposed weaknesses in the Articles of Confederation. Answer: Shays's

Q4) The __________ Amendment ended involuntary servitude in the United States. Answer: Thirteenth

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Chapter 3: Federalism: States and Nation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The __________ Clause guarantees that the citizens of each state are afforded the same rights as citizens of other states.

Answer: Privileges and Immunities

Q2) What was the dominant form of federalism in the 1960s?

A) dual

B) combined

C) competitive

D) cooperative

E) progressive

Answer: D

Q3) Dual federalism is an interpretation of federalism in which the states and the national government separate jurisdictions and responsibilities.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q4) Analyze the approach of the Rehnquist court to questions of federalism.

Answer: An ideal response will:

1. Explain that the Rehnquist court was consistently committed to the principle of states' rights and reined in federal power.

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Chapter 4: The Structural Foundations of American

Government and Politics

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105 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following makes typical Americans the most nervous?

A) capitalism

B) democracy

C) globalization

D) industrialization

E) mass production

Q2) Militarization, human rights violations, the trade imbalance, currency manipulation, and incursions on intellectual property rights are all issues in the relationship between the United States and __________.

Q3) At more than 16 percent of the population, __________ are currently the largest minority group in the United States.

Q4) Americans are slightly more likely to believe that immigrants strengthen the U.S. through their work and talent rather than think of them as a burden to society because they take jobs and receive public benefits.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Even with the U.S. unemployment rate at stubborn highs, it is the enticement of __________ that brings most modern-day immigrants to the United States.

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Chapter 5: Public Opinion

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Sample Questions

Q1) If findings from a random sample of 1,500 people have a 95 percent chance of accurately reflecting the views of the whole population within 3 percentage points, what percentage of the overall population would favor changing voting day from Tuesday to Sunday if the poll found that 57 percent of those polled favored the change?

A) 54 percent

B) 57 percent

C) 60 percent

D) 54 to 60 percent

E) 57 to 60 percent

Q2) Why should anyone be concerned about a U.S. citizenry that is poorly informed and that has no real opinions about government and politics?

Q3) What do polls with simple "yes-no" or "agree-disagree" answer options fail to measure? How can pollsters avoid problems associated with questions that ask only for simple "yes-no" or "agree-disagree" answers?

Q4) In a real __________, there must be a close match between public opinion and government policies and actions, at least in the long run.

Q5) How do pollsters assess the general mood of the country?

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Chapter 6: The News Media

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Sample Questions

Q1) Under the informal rules of objective journalism, most reporters provide explicit analysis and interpretation of the stories that they cover.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If the media report gross malfeasance in how Medicare pays doctors, the media are acting as watchdogs.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Describe a situation in which the media did not successfully fulfill its watchdog role. What were the consequences of its failure?

Q4) Why does most television news coverage feature predictable events, like news conferences?

A) Predictable events are favored by American media consumers.

B) Predictable events usually have large corporate sponsors.

C) Predictable events allow nuanced reporting over time.

D) Predictable events are easier for the media to cover.

E) Predictable events provide the best opportunity for civic engagement.

Q5) Framing provides a context for ___________ stories.

Q6) Most large media outlets are owned by __________.

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Chapter 7: Interest Groups and Business Organizations

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is lobbying?

A) influencing with government officials to persuade them to support a particular policy position

B) conducting surveys to gauge public opinion on a policy issue

C) convincing potential members to join an interest group by offering them material benefits

D) fundraising for political candidates

E) educating the public about the activities of government

Q2) Membership in labor unions has increased over the last several decades.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In recent years, political action committees (PACs) have declined as vehicles for campaign contributions.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The U.S. Chamber of Commerce is one of the largest and most influential interest groups in the United States, and it is a staunch foe of the minimum wage.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Social Movements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mahatma Gandhi, whose beliefs were borrowed by Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr., advocated which tactic used in social movements?

A) sit-down strikes

B) violent demonstrations

C) massive public rallies

D) civil disobedience

E) massive protests

Q2) Elizabeth Cady Stanton's statement that "all men and women are created equal, endowed with the same inalienable rights" is modeled after a similar statement found in the __________.

Q3) Which movement best represents a large scope of conflict?

A) women's rights movement

B) civil rights movement

C) undocumented immigrants movement

D) Christian conservative movement

E) gay and lesbian movement

Q4) Gays and lesbians were able to convince public officials and local voters to pass antidiscrimination ordinances in California and in __________.

Q5) How people engage in politics-and how often-is in part a function of __________.

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Chapter 9: Political Parties

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Sample Questions

Q1) The awarding of legislative seats to political parties to reflect the percentage of the popular vote each has received in an election is __________.

Q2) Which of the following is one of the contributing factors to the increase in partisanship at all levels of government since the 1980s?

A) the increase of moderates within the political parties

B) tension over the debt ceiling bill introduced into Congress

C) the increase in the number of competitive districts in House races

D) the explosion of advocacy groups that demand unity on issues

E) the gridlock created by extreme views and unwillingness to compromise

Q3) Why does the United States have a two-party system?

A) The Framers wanted competition between political parties.

B) The Framers wanted to avoid the mistakes of Europe.

C) It was a compromise between a unitary system's efficiency and a multiparty system's diversity.

D) It developed in the struggle between slave owners and abolitionists.

E) It developed in the struggle between Federalists and Democratic-Republicans.

Q4) Describe the role of the national party committee, differentiating it from the other main political party organizations. Who comprises it? Where does its main power reside?

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Chapter 10: Voting, Campaigns, and Elections

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108 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The electoral competition model suggests that __________.

A) Democratic candidates will become more liberal as the campaign progresses

B) Republican candidates will become more conservative as the campaign progresses

C) Republican and Democratic candidates will move from moderate positions to more extreme positions as the campaign progresses

D) Republican and Democratic candidates will move toward the median voter as the campaign progresses

E) voters will become more moderate and closer to the position of the median voter as the campaign progresses

Q2) __________ are procedures by which state laws or constitutional amendments proposed by the legislature are submitted to the voters.

A) Initiatives

B) Referenda

C) Objectives

D) Memoranda

E) Legislative goals

Q3) What are 527 and 501 groups, and what is the most significant difference between them?

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Chapter 11: Congress

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which example best demonstrates a legislator acting as a trustee of his or her constituency?

A) A legislator considers public opinion, refining it with information and careful thought.

B) A legislator does whatever is best for his or her reelection.

C) A legislator follows the public opinion of his or her constituency.

D) A legislator heeds public opinion in every case, except in matters of personal conscience.

E) A legislator may follow his or her conscience unless public opinion is clear.

Q2) A conference committee is comprised of members from the House and Senate committees that originally considered the bill.

A)True

B)False

Q3) __________ decides who shall be recognized to speak on the House floor, and rules on points of order (with advice from the parliamentarian), among other responsibilities.

Q4) After the Speaker, the next most powerful person in the House is the __________.

Q5) What is the function of the House Rules Committee? Why is it so important? Be sure to give examples of the rules the committee may use.

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Chapter 12: The Presidency

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is there the potential for conflict over virtually all aspects of government?

A) National legislatures choose the chief executives, so the unified parties need to be in control.

B) All constitutional powers are shared.

C) There is always a divided government.

D) Parties have been ideologically incohesive since the mid-1990s.

E) There are no checks and balances between the executive and legislative branches of government.

Q2) Which is one of the reasons that power and responsibility of the presidency has grown?

A) The presidents' use of the line-item veto has increased their power over the Congress.

B) The United States became a simple free market economy.

C) The budget for government agencies has decreased leaving more responsibility to the president.

D) Modern presidents have to exercise powers as commander in chief, while earlier presidents did not.

E) The United States has increased prominence on the world stage.

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Chapter 13: The Executive Branch

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the president's influence over agency budgets?

A) The president has final say over all department budgets, but has no control of the budgets of independent agencies.

B) The president has final say over the budgets of independent agencies, but has no control of department budgets.

C) The president has sole authority to determine executive administrative budgets.

D) The president has no authority in the budgeting process.

E) The president influences the initial budget proposal, but depends on Congress for appropriations of federal money.

Q2) How does the president exercise control over agencies and departments in the federal bureaucracy?

A) by confirming federal appointees

B) by nominating federal appointees

C) by signing executive agreements

D) by creating or abolishing agencies

E) by conducting oversight hearings

Q3) The most recently-created Cabinet department is the __________.

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Chapter 14: The Courts

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Sample Questions

Q1) Federal judges are appointed to __________ terms.

A) two-year

B) three-year

C) life

D) ten-year

E) twenty-year

Q2) A __________ jury is called to determine guilt or innocence.

Q3) The Supreme Court regularly exercises its original jurisdiction.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A grand __________ brings indictments in federal trial courts.

A) trial

B) punishment

C) judiciary

D) plea

E) jury

Q5) Describe the difference between civil and criminal law.

Q6) If North Dakota sues South Dakota, the case will be heard by the __________.

Q7) Describe the "dual system" of justice in the United States.

Q8) Explain the "rule of four" and its relationship to review in the Supreme Court.

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Chapter 15: Civil Liberties: the Struggle for Freedom

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which clause prevents the national government from sanctioning an official religion?

A) establishment

B) free exercise

C) full faith and credit

D) equal protection

E) due process

Q2) Discuss why selective incorporation is consistent with larger themes in federalism.

Q3) Which of the following considerably narrowed the exclusionary rule?

A) harmless error rule

B) closed container rule

C) inevitable discovery rule

D) confidential informant rule

E) illegal substance rule

Q4) Writs of habeas corpus are laws declaring an act illegal without a judicial trial.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Why is freedom of the press essential to democracy?

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Chapter 16: Civil Rights: the Struggle for Political Equality

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a group of people were systematically discriminated against in the past, which of the following would constitute an affirmative action policy designed as a remedy to help the members of this group overcome the legacy of discrimination?

A) a hiring policy that favors those with relatives working in government

B) a college admissions policy that gives preferential treatment to members of the group

C) a color-blind job application process to give members of this group an equal chance

D) a policy that gives extra weight to votes cast by members of the group

E) requiring all applicants for government jobs to have at least two years of prior experience

Q2) What provision of the Fourteenth Amendment serves as a cornerstone of our understanding of civil rights?

A) the all men are created equal clause

B) the equal protection clause

C) the privileges and immunities clause

D) the Equal Rights Amendment

E) the grandfather clause

Q3) The __________ Amendment guarantees African Americans the right to vote.

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Chapter 17: Domestic Policies

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements plausibly explains why Social Security is a prominent issue in many elections?

A) Young people are likely to follow politics and are likely to vote.

B) Young people are likely to follow politics, but they are unlikely to vote.

C) Seniors are likely to follow politics and are likely to vote.

D) Seniors are likely to follow politics, but they are unlikely to vote.

E) Seniors are unlikely to follow politics, but they do vote.

Q2) Which of these resulted from the Great Depression?

A) The federal government cut Social Security benefits because it lacked adequate funds.

B) The federal government assumed new responsibilities for the management of economic matters.

C) The states assumed new responsibilities for the management of national economic matters.

D) The federal government devolved responsibility for solving the economic crisis to the states.

E) The federal government took a laissez-faire approach when dealing with economic matters.

Q3) A ___________ program distributes benefits on the basis of demonstrated need.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Foreign Policy and National Defense

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is unilateralism? How was it apparent in U.S. foreign policy making in regard to the war in Iraq? How have unilateral actions prompted anti-Americanism around the globe?

Q2) The president traditionally has more influence over foreign policy than does Congress.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Procuring vital raw materials, protecting citizens traveling overseas, keeping trade markets open, and protecting firms operating in other countries are all functions that leaders perform to advance which of the following?

A) democracy

B) free enterprise

C) the national interest

D) American values

E) the global economy

Q4) The secretary of state spearheads U.S. diplomatic efforts on behalf of the president. A)True

B)False

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