
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Geography is the study of the Earth's landscapes, environments, and the relationships between people and their environments. This course explores both the physical aspects of the planet, including landforms, climate, and ecosystems, as well as human geography, which examines population distribution, urban development, cultures, and the impact of human activity on the natural world. Through the integration of spatial analysis, mapping technologies, and case studies, students will develop a comprehensive understanding of how geographical factors shape global issues and local experiences.
Recommended Textbook
Geosystems An Introduction to Physical Geography 9th Edition by Robert W. Christopherson
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the prime meridian?
A) It is used to determine latitude using lines that run east and west.
B) It was first used in the 1500s at the time of initial circumnavigation voyages.
C) It was not established until 1884 and is centered on an observatory near London.
D) It is that place on Earth where the days officially change.
Answer: C
Q2) If it is 10:00 PM on July 3rd at 30° west, what date and time is it at 15° east?
A) July 3rd; 11 P.M.
B) July 3rd; 9 P.M.
C) July 3rd; 6 P.M.
D) July 4th; 1 A.M.
E) July 4th; 2 A.M.
Answer: D
Q3) Observers in the southern hemisphere use the North Star (Polaris) to determine their latitude.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The magnetosphere deflects the solar wind toward Earth's two poles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The subsolar point is at the Tropic of Cancer on December 21.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following is true of Quito, Ecuador (0° 15' N, 78° 35' S)?
A) Quito experiences days and nights of equal lengths throughout the year.
B) During the June Solstice, Quito experiences 24 hours of darkness because it is completely outside of the circle of illumination.
C) At noon on June 21st, the sun is directly overhead in Quito.
D) Quito is at a latitude that is never the subsolar point.
Answer: A
Q4) The Sun's radiant energy is composed primarily of visible light and infrared wavelengths.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) Political leaders in the United States worked swiftly to pass legislation banning CFCs.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which country burns more coal and emits more CO than any other country on Earth?
A) The United States
B) China
C) Germany
D) India
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is true of nitrogen?
A) The human body obtains the nitrogen it needs from the air.
B) There is very little nitrogen in the atmosphere.
C) The nitrogen the human body needs is derived from food-not the air.
D) Nitrogen is a variable gas.
Answer: C
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Q1) Discuss the similarities and differences of cloud-albedo forcing and cloud-greenhouse forcing.
Q2) The energy received in just 35 minutes at the surface of the United States exceeds the amount of energy derived from the burning of fossil fuels in a year.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true of differences in latitudinal energy?
A) There is an energy balance between energy gains and losses around 36° latitude.
B) There is year-round energy deficit at the Tropic of Capricorn.
C) The equator has an energy balance in the summer, but a deficit in the winter.
D) Energy imbalances betweens the tropics and the poles are negligible.
Q4) Latent heat transfer and convection are examples of nonradiative energy transfer from the Earth's surface.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the different methods of heat transfer.
Q6) Discuss the components of the surface energy budget.
Q7) Describe the components of net radiation (NET R).
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Q1) Which of the following is true?
A) Northern Hemisphere temperatures are more strongly dominated by continentality than are Southern Hemisphere temperatures.
B) Southern Hemisphere temperatures are more strongly dominated by continentality than are Northern Hemisphere temperatures.
C) The Northern and Southern hemispheres are dominated equally by maritime influences.
D) The Northern and Southern hemispheres are dominated equally by continentality.
Q2) During the day, clouds ________ insolation, lowering daily maximum temperatures; at night, clouds ________ longwave energy, thereby raising minimum nighttime temperatures.
A) absorb; reflect
B) scatter; refract
C) reflect; absorb and reradiate
D) reflect; scatter
Q3) Discuss several ways in which global temperatures affects humans and how humans affect global temperatures.
Q4) How does wind affect the wind-chill factor and the heat index?
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Q1) Sometimes the polar jet stream and the subtropical jet stream merge for brief episodes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As of 2012, which country had the highest installed wind energy capacity?
A) Germany
B) The United States
C) Ethiopia
D) China
E) El Salvador
Q3) The intertropical convergence zone is characterized by
A) convergence and uplift of warm surface air.
B) convergence and subsidence of cold surface air.
C) divergence and uplift of warm surface air.
D) divergence and subsidence of cold surface air.
Q4) Examine in detail the various ways in which wind speed and direction are determined by the pressure gradient force, the Coriolis force, and friction.
Q5) The Coriolis force is greatest at the equator and weakest towards the poles.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The phase changes water and other substances undergo are based on
A) gravitational energy stored within the electron orbitals of atoms.
B) the amount of motion of molecules and the strength of the bonds between them.
C) nuclear fusion processes between atoms of a substance.
D) nuclear fission processes between atoms of a substance.
E) diabatic forces acting on the molecules.
Q2) List several of water's unique properties.
Q3) Vertically developed puffy and globular clouds are classed as A) cumumliform.
B) cirroform.
C) stratiform.
Q4) Which of the following phase changes decreases the temperature of the air?
A) water to ice
B) ice to water
C) steam to water
D) steam to ice
Q5) When water freezes, its density
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains the same as in the liquid state.

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Q1) Which of the following is false regarding air masses?
A) An air mass initially reflects the characteristics of its source region.
B) They are homogenous in terms of temperature and humidity.
C) They may dominate half the depth of the troposphere.
D) Air masses tend to maintain their original characteristics as they migrate from their source regions.
Q2) The dry leeward side of a mountain is often termed a (n)
A) rain shadow.
B) chinook.
C) front.
D) orogeny.
Q3) Weather prediction will soon be almost 100 percent accurate because weather systems act in a linear fashion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Thunderstorms and hail are associated with cumulonimbus cloud development.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How do air masses form? What are their general characteristics?
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Q1) Sea-level change caused by glacial activity is known as glacioeustasy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Population growth and wasteful water usage threaten to produce water shortages in many nations of the world.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is normally true of a hot desert?
A) Potential evapotranspiration exceeds actual evapotranspiration.
B) Actual evapotranspiration exceeds potential evapotranspiration.
C) Potential evapotranspiration equals actual evapotranspiration.
D) It is impossible to say what the normal relationship between potential and actual evapotranspiration would be in a desert.
Q4) Center pivot agriculture which pumps water from an aquifer is an example of instream water use.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Draw and label a diagram of the hydrologic cycle.
Q6) Describe the hydrological cycle, including its different components.
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Q1) Climates can be stable over several human generations, and also change over longer time periods (thousands to millions of years).
A)True
B)False
Q2) A climate classification based on moisture using a water budget approach is an example of a(n)
A) empirical classification.
B) genetic classification.
C) combined classification.
Q3) Humid subtropical hot summer climates in ________; typically experience
A) Asia; dry winters due to monsoonal conditions
B) Asia; wet summers due to cyclonic storm tracks
C) North America; dry winters due to cold ocean currents
D) North America; wet summers due to monsoonal conditions
Q4) The two principle climate components are
A) temperature and pressure.
B) temperature and precipitation.
C) precipitation and pressure.
D) pressure and wind speed.

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Q1) Scientists use ________ to study past climates, using ________ to reconstruct climates that extend back further than our present instrumentation allows.
A) proxy methods; climate proxies
B) direct measurements; historical records
C) indirect evidence; conjecture
D) computer models; algorithms
Q2) Which of the following is not considered an important carbon sink?
A) the oceans
B) rocks
C) forest and soils
D) farmlands
Q3) Since 1880, the two years with the highest land surface temperature were
A) 1990 and 2000.
B) 2005 and 2010.
C) 1985 and 1992.
D) 1900 and 1940.
Q4) The Earth's axial tilt varies from 21.5° to 24.5° during a 41,000 year period.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are some examples of positive and negative climate feedback loops?
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Q1) The continuous alteration of Earth materials from one rock type to another is known as the
A) geologic cycle.
B) rock cycle.
C) hydrologic cycle.
D) tectonic cycle.
Q2) The majority of the Earth's volume is within the A) crust.
B) inner core.
C) mantle.
D) outer core.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an intrusive, igneous rock formation?
A) volcano
B) pluton
C) dome
D) lava flow
Q4) Rock assemblages from the east coast in South America and west coast of Africa provide supporting evidence of the theory of plate tectonics.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Discuss the process and causes of folding, and distinguish between anticline and syncline.
Q2) Compare and contrast explosive and effusive eruptions. Include their locations, the chemical composition of the magma, and the landforms they typically produce.
Q3) A topographic region that is characterized by local relief of less than 100 m (325 ft.) is considered a
A) plain.
B) high tableland.
C) hill or low tableland.
D) depression.
Q4) The presence of grabens and horsts indicates the occurrence of A) volcanic activity.
B) rift activity.
C) collision activity.
D) strike-slip activity.
Q5) Radon gas emissions and changes in the magnetic field are some of the phenomena that often occur prior to a quake.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The angle of repose typically ranges from 15° to 30° from horizontal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fence posts and utility poles leaning downslope is indicative of slump.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Karst topography involves the chemical weathering of granite landscapes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A translational slide involves
A) rotational movement of surface material.
B) movement of surface material along a planar surface.
C) unconsolidated flow of material.
D) mudflow.
Q5) The maximum angle at which soil, sediment, and rock will remain without moving downslope (e.g. a stable slope) is the
A) height of the slope.
B) angle of repose.
C) mass movement gradient.
D) the speed of the particles.
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Q1) A perennial stream can go months and even years between flow events.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nickpoints migrate downstream.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following best describes the relationship of deforestation to sediment load?
A) Trees provide dissolved sediments to the stream; as trees are removed, the dissolved loads are diminished.
B) Trees roots help "anchor" soil; as the trees are removed, the soil more readily erodes into the river channels.
C) Forestry waste is often dumped in streams, contributing to the suspended loads.
D) The loss of trees along banks of streams increases stream velocity.
Q4) John Wesley Powell put forward the idea of base level, which refers to
A) the amount of discharge in a particular reach of a stream.
B) a level below which a stream cannot erode its valley.
C) an evolutionary cycle of landscape development from fluvial action.
D) the average height of a stream channel.
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Q1) Describe the three main zones of the ocean.
Q2) On average, the beach zone spans the area
A) between high and low spring tides.
B) from several meters above high tide to several meters below low tide.
C) between high and low neap tides.
D) from the high tide line during a spring tide to the low tide line during a neap tide.
Q3) The major erosional processes in the desert are eolian.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A longshore current involves all of the following except
A) effective wind direction.
B) effective wave direction.
C) waves of transition.
D) transportation of large amounts of sand and coastal materials.
Q5) The salinity of seawater averages 35 .
A)True
B)False
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Q6) How do barrier islands form? What are the hazards associated with them? Why is it generally unwise for humans to inhabit them?
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Q1) About half of Arctic sea-ice volume has disappeared since 1970 due to warming throughout the region.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lengthy ridges of till along each side of an alpine glacier are ________ moraines.
A) ground
B) terminal
C) medial
D) lateral
Q3) A glacier's mass balance is determined by
A) accumulation.
B) ablation.
C) both accumulation and ablation.
D) neither accumulation nor ablation.
Q4) Ice regelation incorporates rock debris into a glacier.
A)True
B)False

Page 19
Q5) Differentiate between alpine and continental glaciers, ice caps and ice fields.
Q6) What is the importance of the Pleistocene ice age epoch to the modern day?
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Q1) Most of the glacially derived till and outwash materials from New York through the Appalachians are
A) Spodosols.
B) Histosols.
C) Inceptisols.
D) Gelisols.
Q2) The southeast United States is dominated by which soil order?
A) Ultisols
B) Alfisols
C) Oxisols
D) Mollisols
Q3) The branch of soil science that studies soil as a medium for sustaining the growth of higher plants is known as
A) pedology.
B) edaphology.
C) geology.
D) geomorphology.
Q4) Entisols are the least developed soils in the world.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Different patches across a landscape may be at different successional stages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mistletoe (Phoradendron) infest many taxa of plants, often causing the branches of the host species to become swollen and distorted and making the trees more susceptible to insect infestations. This is an example of which symbiotic relationship?
A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) commensalism
D) amensalism
Q3) What is biogeography? What subjects do biogeographers study? What is ecology? How does biogeography vary from ecology?
Q4) The gaseous oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere was produced as a by-product of A) volcanic outgassing.
B) photochemical reactions breaking down ozone (O ) to form oxygen (O ).
C) photosynthesis.
D) decay of organic matter.
Q5) Using outside forces, describe the limiting factor of an organism and how it affects this organisms distribution.
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Q1) The largest areas of tropical savanna occur in South America, particularly in Venezuela.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Biogeographic regions (realms) are delineated based on species assemblages and their evolutionary history.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Despite widespread tropical deforestation, tropical rain forests are able to quickly regenerate owing to the extremely fertile conditions in the biome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The boundary zone between adjacent biomes in which traits from both biomes may be found is called the
A) ecotone.
B) boundary layer.
C) edge effect.
D) transitional matrix.
Q5) What are the important factors used in defining a biogeographic realm?
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