Genomics in Health Care Exam Answer Key - 432 Verified Questions

Page 1


Genomics in Health Care

Exam Answer Key

Course Introduction

Genomics in Health Care explores the application of genomic science and technology in medical practice, focusing on how genetic information influences health, disease prevention, and patient management. The course covers fundamental principles of genomics, the integration of genomic data into clinical decision-making, and the ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic testing and personalized medicine. Students will learn about advances in genome sequencing, genetic counseling, pharmacogenomics, and the use of genomics to inform diagnosis and therapeutic strategies across a variety of healthcare contexts.

Recommended Textbook

Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition by Theresa A. Beery

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20 Chapters

432 Verified Questions

432 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/201

Page 2

Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which condition or statement exemplifies the concept of genomics rather than genetics?

A)The gene for insulin is located on chromosome 11 in all people.

B)Expression of any single gene is dependent on inheriting two alleles.

C)Sex-linked recessive disorders affect males more often than females.

D)One allele for each gene is inherited from the mother, and one is inherited from the father.

Answer: A

Q2) What is the result of normal DNA replication?

A)Formation of two new daughter cells

B)Formation of two identical sets of DNA

C)Disappearance of the original parent cell

D)Activation and attachment of spindle fibers

Answer: B

Q3) What is the most outstanding feature of a mature haploid cell?

A)It is usually homozygous.

B)The sex chromosomes are missing.

C)Only one chromosome of each pair is present.

D)DNA synthesis occurs after mitosis instead of before.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about the introns within one gene is correct?

A)These small pieces of DNA form microRNAs that regulate gene expression.

B)They are part of the desert DNA composing the noncoding regions.

C)When expressed, they induce posttranslational modifications.

D)The introns of one gene may be the exons of another gene.

Answer: D

Q2) Which DNA segment deletion would cause a frameshift mutation?

A)TCT

B)GAGTC

C)TACTAC

D)GCATGACCC

Answer: B

Q3) Which factor has the greatest influence on protein tertiary structure?

A)The presence of a poly-A tail

B)The specific amino acids that are in close proximity to each other

C)Bond formation between amino acids that are distant from each other

D)The number and position of additional proteins needed to form the complex structure

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Genetic Influence on Cell Division, Differentiation,

and

Gametogenesis

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32 Verified Questions

32 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which event characterizes embryonic commitment?

A)Meiotic cell division

B)Selective loss of genes

C)Increased suppressor gene activity

D)Progressive increase in nuclear size

Answer: C

Q2) Which mechanism allows cell differentiation in embryonic tissue?

A)Increased expression of oncogenes

B)Decreased expression of suppressor genes

C)Selected expression of individual structural genes

D)Enhanced expression of promitotic transcription factors

Answer: C

Q3) Which cell in the process of oogenesis has the most chromosomes?

A)Mature ovum

B)Primary oocyte

C)Secondary oocyte

D)Polar body

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance

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36 Verified Questions

36 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the significance of a shift to the left in the threshold value of liability in a threshold of liability model for the expression of a complex health problemwith genetic influences?

A)The threshold required for disease expression increases as the population ages.

B)The number of affected individuals within the population has decreased.

C)The population examined for the potential problem is getting larger.

D)The threshold required for disease expression is lower.

Q2) Why are dizygotic twins less likely to show concordance for a monogenic trait than monozygotic twins?

A)Dizygotic twins share fewer allele sequences in common than monozygotic twins.

B)It is possible for dizygotic twins to have different fathers, and monozygotic twins always have the same father.

C)Gene expression in monozygotic twins is less influenced by environmental factors than that of dizygotic twins.

D)Because of their identical appearance, monozygotic twins are more likely to be raised together and share a common environment than are dizygotic twins.

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6

Chapter 5: Epigenetic Influences on Gene Expression

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Sample Questions

Q1) In fragile X syndrome, only noncoding regions within the gene for a protein that directs and maintains brain development are heavily methylated, resulting indecreasedcognitive ability and behavioral problems. What is the most likely mechanism of this abnormal expression?

A)Increased microRNA molecules reducing the synthesis of the gene product

B)Failure of the methylated regions to undergo translation

C)Suppression of the "splicing out" action for introns

D)Suppression of promoter function

Q2) By which mechanism does microRNA "silence" gene expression?

A)Preventing cytoplasm from coming into contact with the gene

B)Surrounding mRNA and preventing attachment of ribosomes

C)Binding to mRNA and keeping it double stranded

D)Substituting a thymine for uracil

Q3) Which term or phrase is used to describe the ability of the environment to cause different phenotypes to develop from the same genotype?

A)Developmental plasticity

B)Histone modification

C)Phenotype variability

D)Nutrigenomics

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Autosomal Inheritance and Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the best explanation of a child having the physical phenotype of Down syndrome but having a totally normal karyotype on chromosomal analysis of blood?

A)Mosaicism of trisomy 21 in various tissues

B)Inaccurate technique for chromosomal analysis

C)Uniparental disomy for somatic cells but not for germ cells

D)Selective chromosome loss during meiosis II of gametogenesis

Q2) Why does an embryo with a balanced translocation have the same chance for normal development that an embryo with a normal karyotype has?

A)The translocation stimulates DNA repair mechanisms to correct the problem before commitment occurs.

B)The embryo's somatic cells are unaffected, expressing a normal karyotype; only germline cells express the translocation.

C)Although the location of the genetic material is abnormal with a balanced translocation, there are no missing or extra alleles.

D)When a zygote with a balanced translocation reaches the embryo stage without a spontaneous abortion, the risk for abnormal development decreases.

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Chapter 7: Sex Chromosome and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the function of the FMR1 gene?

A)Promoting brain development and maintaining neuronal synapses

B)Ensuring the expression of all other genes present on the X chromosome

C)Preventing amyloid plaque deposits and formation of neuronal tangles in the brain

D)Maintaining the structural integrity of the histone proteins surrounding the X chromosome

Q2) Which single physical feature is most often associated with a 47,XXX karyotype?

A)Infertility

B)Large breasts

C)Female-pattern baldness

D)Height greater than siblings

Q3) At what specific location on an X chromosome is a break most likely to occur in fragile X syndrome?

A)The centromere

B)End of the p arm

C)End of the q arm

D)Within the nucleosome

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Family History and Pedigree Construction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lois has Alzheimer's disease. She and her daughter Linda provided care for Lois's mother Leona when she had severe Alzheimer's disease. Now Linda, age 57, is showingsigns of impaired memory. Linda's daughter Lucy is pregnant with her first child and has contacted a genetic counselor to discuss Alzheimer's risk in her family. Who in this family is the proband?

A)Leona

B)Lois

C)Linda

D)Lucy

Q2) How are twins indicated on a pedigree?

A)The two gender symbols are placed on top of each other.

B)Each of the gender symbols is surrounded by an inward-facing set of brackets.

C)The vertical lines to each twin begin at the same point on the parents' horizontal mating line.

D)The one born first has a vertical line connected to the parents' horizontal mating line; the twin born second has a vertical line extending down from the first twin's gender symbol.

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Chapter 9: Congenital Anomalies, Basic Dysmorphology, and

Genetic Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most important action to take when assessing an infant for possible dysmorphic features?

A)Assess the phenotypes of first-degree relatives.

B)Count the number of minor anomalies present.

C)Use an atlas that includes globally diverse populations.

D)Determine whether an identified dysmorphic feature is a malformation or a deformation.

Q2) Which anomaly constitutes clinodactyly?

A)An extra toe on one foot

B)A laterally curved fifth finger

C)Complete absence of fingers and toes

D)Fusion of two fingers on the right hand

Q3) Which condition in a newborn should be described as a deformation if it is the only abnormal finding?

A)A unilateral clubfoot

B)A sealed (imperforate) anus

C)The absence of a thyroid gland

D)The presence of six toes on each foot

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Chapter 10: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most common cause of death among individuals with vascular Ehlers-Danlos (Ehlers-Danlos type IV)?

A)Respiratory impairment from kyphosis

B)Skin cancer (melanoma)

C)Intestinal rupture

D)Liver failure

Q2) Why does a person with Hurler syndrome have an enlarged abdomen?

A)The excess mucopolysaccharides accumulate inside the lysosomes within the liver cells.

B)The excess mucopolysaccharides accumulate inside the cells of the liver and the spleen.

C)The excess glycosaminoglycans weaken the muscles of the abdomen, and all contents move forward.

D)The excess glycosaminoglycans cause the person to develop type 2 diabetes, with greatly increased abdominal fat.

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12

Chapter 11: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders

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34 Verified Questions

34 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What health advantage does sickle cell trait or disease confer on the person who has it?

A)Decreased risk for type 1 diabetes mellitus

B)Decreased risk for hypercholesterolemia

C)Decreased risk for fulminating cholera

D)Decreased risk for malaria

Q2) What is the explanation for creatine kinase (CK) levels in a 14-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy being much lower now than they were 5 years ago?

A)His disease is improving.

B)He now performs passive rather than active exercise.

C)Most of the muscle tissue has already been destroyed.

D)The disease is probably Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) rather than Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

Q3) Which ethnic group has the highest incidence of cystic fibrosis (CF)?

A)Asian Americans

B)African Americans

C)Hispanic Americans

D)European Americans

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Chapter 12: Common Adult-Onset Disorders

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25 Verified Questions

25 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is predictive testing for Huntington disease avoided for a 4-year-old child who has one grandparent with the disorder?

A)Unless one of the parents is positive for the gene mutation, a negative finding would be noninformative.

B)The Huntington disease mutation is poorly penetrant and may never be expressed even when inherited.

C)A 4-year-old child cannot understand or participate in the genetic counseling process.

D)There are no effective primary or secondary prevention strategies for this disorder.

Q2) Which autoimmune disorder has the greatest environmental contribution?

A)Stickler syndrome

B)Rheumatoid arthritis

C)Multiple sclerosis

D)Systemic lupus erythematosus

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14

Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Disorders

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which physical finding in a 30-year-old man suggests the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia?

A)Lipomas

B)Xanthomas

C)Osteoarthritis

D)Hemangiomas

Q2) What do the known monogenic disorders that result in the expression of hypertension have in common?

A)An error in the ability of vascular smooth muscle to contract

B)An error in the ability of vascular smooth muscle to relax

C)Excessive kidney reabsorption of sodium

D)Excessive kidney excretion of potassium

Q3) What is the most accurate classification of the common forms of coronary artery disease and hypertension?

A)Secondary disorders caused by lifestyle choices

B)Sequential genetic disorders related to age, ethnicity, and gender

C)Complex disorders resulting from gene-environment interactions

D)Primary disorders with an autosomal-dominant pattern of inheritance

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15

Chapter 14: The Genetics of Cancer

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30 Verified Questions

30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which characteristic(s) is/are associated with an inherited predisposition for a cancer type?

A)Cancers tend to appear at an earlier age than do "sporadic" cancers.

B)These cancers are not picked up by routine cancer screening methods.

C)The carcinogenesis stage of "promotion" is not required for cancer development.

D)They are passed on only to the children of the same gender as the parent with the predisposition.

Q2) Which of these qualities is common to cancer cells?

A)Apoptosis of damaged cancer cells occurs at a high rate.

B)Telomeres of cancer cells have pronounced shortening.

C)Their production of cell adhesion molecules is excessive.

D)They continue to grow even when surrounded by other cells.

Q3) Which feature is associated exclusively with sporadic cancer?

A)The cause is unknown.

B)It usually affects both bilateral organs.

C)It occurs at the same frequency within a kindred as in the general population.

D)It is more likely to occur in younger people with few environmental risks than in older people.

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Page 16

Chapter 15: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which condition or behavior suggests attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A)A 5-year-old who does not want to go to bed at 8:00 p.m. and begs to be allowed to stay up later

B)An 8-year-old who can hop on one foot but cannot ride a bicycle without training wheels

C)A 9-year-old who does not focus on a favorite story or game for longer than 3 minutes

D)A 10-year-old who prefers to play basketball rather than chess

Q2) Why are single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs), which have been associated with schizophrenia and bipolar disorder, currently not used to diagnose either of these disorders?

A)The changes in gene activity caused by the SNPs is not sufficient to cause disease expression.

B)SNPs are associated with nicotine dependence but not with schizophrenia or bipolar disorder.

C)The SNPs are too small to result in either a frameshift mutation or a point mutation.

D)These SNP-induced gene changes cannot be altered by pharmacologic therapy.

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Genetic and Genomic Testing

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14 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of genetic testing examines a person's chromosomes for variations in number or structure?

A)Cytogenetic testing

B)Preimplantation testing

C)Predictive testing

D)Electropherogram testing

Q2) What is the major disadvantage to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) method of genetic testing?

A)Single-nucleotide mutations cannot be detected.

B)Depending on the skill of the technician, the rate of false positives is high.

C)The sample for testing must be obtained from living tissue rather than from a preserved specimen.

D)Results are not available quickly because cells must first be grown in culture before testing can be performed.

Q3) When is fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) most likely to be used?

A)To find a gene associated with a particular disease

B)To determine whether a stillborn infant has trisomy 13

C)To determine the carrier status of a child whose sister has cystic fibrosis

D)To establish a diagnosis for a possible adult-onset single-gene disorder

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has a very high concentration of insulin receptors on cells that require insulin for glucose to enter. How should insulin dosages be adjusted for this patient to have blood glucose levels within the normal range?

A)Insulin dosages should be given less frequently because the drug will remain bound to receptors longer.

B)Insulin dosages should be decreased because the drug will exert its actions at lower concentrations.

C)Insulin dosages should be given more frequently because the drug will be eliminated at a faster rate.

D)Insulin dosages should be increased because cells will be less sensitive to the presence of active insulin.

Q2) What would be the patient's response to a normal drug dose that, because of a genetic variation in an enzyme that prepares the drug for elimination, results ina blooddrug level that is below the minimum effective concentration (MEC)?

A)Drug entry exceeds drug elimination.

B)The risk for toxic side effects is increased.

C)The intended response fails to be produced.

D)The drug's duration of action is longer than expected.

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Health Professionals and Genomic Care

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which action reflects promotion of genomic care as part of comprehensive health care?

A)Calculating the odds ratios and recurrence risks of common complex health problems for all people

B)Ensuring that genomic issues potentially influencing a person's health are incorporated into routine care

C)Encouraging all people to undergo genetic testing as part of a proactive health screening and prevention program

D)Instructing patients who undergo genetic testing about their obligation to inform family members regarding test results

Q2) Which statement or criterion is a required component for certification as an Advanced-Practice Nurse in Genetics (APNG)?

A)A 2-year residency in clinical genetics

B)An earned PhD or DNP with coursework focusing on genetics

C)Completion of 500 hours of direct bedside care for patients with genetic disorders

D)Completion of a 50-case log describing the nurse's actions that reflect the standards of clinical genetic nursing practice

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Chapter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ascientist is working to develop a genetic test that will screen embryos so that only those producing tall children with beautiful features will be implanted.Whatarea of genetic work or studies does this example represent?

A)Eugenics

B)Cybernetics

C)Cytogenetics

D)Genetic imprinting

Q2) Preimplantation genetic diagnosis provides parents with which options?

A)The ability to screen normally fertilized embryos for genetic traits after the first trimester

B)The ability to select embryos for implantation that test negative for a familial disease mutation

C)The opportunity to determine how many children they will conceive

D)The ability to guarantee that they will have a healthy baby

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Chapter 20: Genetic and Genomic Variation

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12 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which term refers to a random change in allele frequencies, not based on natural selection?

A)Population bottleneck

B)Genetic drift

C)Founder effect

D)Migration effect

Q2) Which practice is most likely to result in a change in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium of a population or geographic area?

A)Random mating from within the established population

B)Geographic isolation of the established population

C)Assimilation of immigrants into the existing population

D)Preponderance of autosomal-dominant traits in the existing population

Q3) Which statement regarding genetic diversity is most accurate?

A)Larger genes are more likely to display diversity than small genes.

B)Genetic diversity is significant only when a population is isolated.

C)Genetic disorders are more common in populations that have greater genetic diversity.

D)Population bottlenecks result in loss of alleles that provide minimal selection advantage.

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