Genetics
Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Genetics is the study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics. This course delves into the molecular structure and function of genes, the mechanisms of genetic inheritance, and the role of genes in development, health, and disease. Students will explore classical Mendelian genetics, the principles of DNA replication, transcription and translation, genetic mutations, and modern genetic technologies such as genome editing and sequencing. Through theoretical discussions and practical exercises, the course prepares learners to understand genetic patterns, analyze genetic data, and appreciate the ethical and societal implications of genetic research.
Recommended Textbook
Beckers World of the Cell 8th Edition by Jeff Hardin
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Preview of the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are working on a project that involves the direct three-dimensional observation of DNA molecules.The microscope that would give you the best information at this time would be the
A)light microscope.
B)transmission electron microscope.
C)scanning tunneling microscope.
D)phase-contrast microscope.
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is closest to a micrometer in size?
A)the width of a strand of DNA
B)the length of a plant cell
C)the length of a chicken egg
D)a typical bacterial cell
E)the size of a ribosome
Answer: D
Q3) The total protein content of the cell is called the ________. Answer: proteome
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of the Cell
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Q1) Self-assembly has been utilized or potentially may be used for all of the following applications except
A)nanotechnology.
B)electrical conductivity.
C)biosensors.
D)drug delivery systems.
E)All of the above are examples.
Answer: E
Q2) Macromolecules can be assembled into ________ that are components of organelles and other subcellular organelles.
Answer: supramolecular structures
Q3) Which of the following statements about the polymerization of macromolecules is false?
A)Often the energy needed for polymerization is supplied by ATP.
B)The polymer chain usually has two different ends.
C)Water is added to join the monomers of the macromolecules.
D)A monomer is usually activated by the coupling of the monomer to a carrier.
E)Macromolecules are synthesized by the stepwise addition of monomers.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Macromolecules of the Cell
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Q1) The ________ projection illustrates saccharides as linear,whereas the ________ projection suggests the spatial relationships of saccharides.
Answer: Fischer; Haworth
Q2) The amino acid referred to as the "helix breaker" (because it lacks the hydrogen atom needed for hydrogen bonding)is
A)leucine.
B)proline.
C)methionine.
D)valine.
E)phenylalanine.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is not a polymer of numerous monomer units?
A)lipids
B)proteins
C)nucleic acids
D)carbohydrates
E)starch
Answer: A
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5
Chapter 4: Cells and Organelles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hallmark feature of peroxisomal diseases is the presence of A)hydrolases.
B)very long chain fatty acids.
C)long chain gangliosides.
D)an abundance of myelin.
E)amyloid plaques.
Q2) A microbiologist has discovered what she thinks are two new types of algae.The first cell (organism 1)appears nearly cubic and is approximately 1.5 m wide × 1.5 m long × 1.5 m deep.The second,longer cell (organism 2)is 2 m wide × 5 m long × 2 m deep.
a.What is the surface area/volume ratio of each organism?
b.Based on what you know about the surface area/volume ratios,which organism will find it more difficult to interact with the surrounding environment?
c.How will this organism cope with the reduced capacity to interact with the environment?
Q3) The ________ are prokaryotes that live in very salty environments.
Q4) The region within the prokaryotic cell where the DNA is located is known as the ________.
Q5) The matrix is to the mitochondrion as the ________ is to the chloroplast.
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Chapter 5: Bioenergetics: the Flow of Energy in the Cell
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Q1) A student drops his notes,and his papers scatter.The fact that the papers scatter and do not remain neatly stacked is an illustration of
A)the first law of thermodynamics.
B)the second law of thermodynamics.
C)an increase in entropy.
D)both choices A and B
E)both choices B and C
Q2) In every physical or chemical change,the universe tends toward greater disorder.This is the ________ law of thermodynamics,or the law of thermodynamic
Q3) In a reversible reaction at equilibrium,the concentration of R (the reactant)is 3.0 mol/L and the concentration of P (the product)is 0.9 mol/L.At 25°C,what would be the Keq?
A)1.5
Q4) The total energy stored within a system is called the ________.
Q5) The melting of ice is an example of a(n)___________ process.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Enzymes: the Catalysts of Life
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Q1) Substrate activation may involve
A)a change in enzyme conformation induced by substrate binding.
B)accepting protons from the enzyme.
C)formation of temporary covalent bonds.
D)donation of protons to the enzyme.
E)all of the above
Q2) An allosteric inhibitor
A)increases the rate of substrate binding.
B)binds and activates the high-affinity state of the enzymes.
C)is identical to the active site.
D)binds at the regulatory site.
E)is converted to an activator by the enzyme.
Q3) According to the EC system,which is not one of the major groups of enzymes?
A)proteases
B)hydrolases
C)oxidoreductases
D)transferases
E)ligases
Q4) ________ is a mechanism of lowering the activation energy barrier in some reactions,as with the detoxification of hydrogen peroxide.
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Chapter 7: Membranes: Their Structure, function, and Chemistry
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Q1) ________ is the name of the technique used for the analysis of membrane lipids.
Q2) Based on your knowledge of the chemistry of the cell membrane,which of the following compounds would you couple with a new drug in order to achieve better uptake by cells?
A)carbohydrates
B)polar amino acids
C)lipids
D)several mannose-6-phosphate monomers
E)any hydrophilic substance
Q3) Which of the following molecules would not readily cross an intact cell membrane by simple diffusion?
A)water
B)glucose
C)oxygen
D)fatty acids
E)ethanol
Q4) ________ are organisms that are unable to regulate their body temperature.
Q5) ________ is the name given to the technique that utilizes radioactive molecules that bind to specific membrane proteins.
Q6) ________ is a sterol associated with fungal cell membranes. Page 9
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Chapter 8: Transport Across Membranes: Overcoming the
Permeability
Barrier
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Q1) Which of the following is/are true with regard to water movement in osmosis?
A)hypotonic hypertonic
B)hypertonic hypotonic
C)isotonic hypotonic
D)hypertonic isotonic
E)both choices C and D
Q2) The P-type ATPases associated with the movement of heavy metals are
A)type 1.
B)type 2.
C)type 3.
D)type 4.
E)type 5.
Q3) In examining glucose transport into a cell,the immediate phosphorylation of glucose following its entry into the cell
A)keeps the glucose from being transported back out of the cell.
B)allows the cell to maintain higher levels of glucose outside the cell.
C)converts glucose into a form for use in cellular respiration.
D)converts glucose into a form to be stored.
E)all of the above
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Q4) In the capillaries of the lungs,O diffuses ________ and is bound to ________.
Chapter 9: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Glycolysis and Fermentation
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Q1) Compare and contrast ethanol and lactic acid fermentation pathways.
Q2) A phosphoanhydride bond
A)is a high-energy bond.
B)has a standard free energy of hydrolysis of -7.3 kcal/mol.
C)is broken by hydrolysis.
D)both choices A and B
E)choices A, B, and C
Q3) Which glycolytic enzyme uses ATP as a substrate?
A)alcohol dehydrogenase
B)phosphoglucoisomerase
C)aldolase
D)hexokinase
E)triose phosphate isomerase
Q4) Glycolytic enzymes also function in which of the following processes?
A)cell division
B)glycolysis
C)apoptosis
D)growth factors
E)all of the above
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Q5) ________ (NAD )is the most common coenzyme involved in energy metabolism.
Chapter 10: Chemotrophic Energy Metabolism: Aerobic Respiration
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Q1) Which of the numbered respiratory complexes is not correctly paired with its name?
A)complex I: NADH dehydrogenase complex
B)complex II: succinate-coenzyme Q oxidoreductase complex
C)complex III: coenzyme Q-cytochrome c oxidoreductase complex
D)complex IV: cytochrome c reductase complex
E)none of the above
Q2) The chemiosmotic model of ATP synthesis is based on several lines of experimental evidence.Which of the following statements is not correct experimental evidence to support the chemiosmotic model?
A)Artificial proton gradients established by addition of acid can drive ATP synthesis in the absence of electron transport.
B)Oxidative phosphorylation does not require a membrane-enclosed compartment.
C)Electron transport causes protons to be pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix.
D)The proton gradient established by electron transport has enough energy to drive ATP synthesis.
E)Uncoupling agents abolish both the proton gradient and ATP synthesis.
Q3) Respiration includes glycolysis,the ________,electron transport,and ________.
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Page 13
Chapter 11: Phototrophic Energy Metabolism: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The light-dependent generation of NADPH is referred to as ________.
Q2) NADP is the coenzyme of choice in ________ reactions,while NAD is the coenzyme of choice in ________ reactions.
A)anabolic; catabolic
B)catabolic; anabolic
C)metabolic; anabolic
D)anabolic; both catabolic and anabolic
E)both catabolic and anabolic; catabolic
Q3) The plants referred to as C and C plants get this designation based on the number of carbons in the first detectable product of carbon dioxide fixation.The C product is ________,whereas the C product is ________.
A)glycerol; malate
B)triose phosphate; oxaloacetate
C)3-phosphoglycerate; malate
D)ribose; phosphoenolpyruvate
E)3-phosphoglycerate; oxaloacetate
Q4) Green and purple bacteria are ________.This group of organisms removes electrons from sulfide,thiosulfate,and succinate to generate NADPH.
Q5) Why do tree leaves turn colors in autumn?
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Chapter 12: The Endomembrane System and Peroxisomes
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Q1) V-________ and t-________ mediate final docking between target and vesicle.
Q2) You are isolating cell fractions using a variety of centrifuge techniques.You have two very similar fractions but at this point are unable to discern which fraction is peroxisomes and which is lysosomes.As a result,you need to test the fractions for unique enzyme activities.If you are looking for peroxisomes,one enzyme activity you can test for is
A)hexokinase.
B)ATPase.
C)glucose-6-phosphatase.
D)cytochrome c oxidase.
E)catalase.
Q3) Distinguish among the following: endocytosis,pinocytosis,and phagocytosis.
Q4) In a longitudinal section of a nerve cell,at the presynaptic site you note a variety of vesicles that are anchored to the plasma membrane.The vesicles must be specialized for
A)constitutive secretion.
B)regulated secretion.
C)polarized secretion.
D)zymogen secretion.
E)none of the above
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Chapter 13: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Ielectrical and Synaptic Signaling in Neurons
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Q1) Which of the following is a disease specifically caused by an autoimmune response against acetylcholine receptors?
A)Grave's disease
B)myasthenia gravis
C)systemic lupus erythematosus
D)Hashimoto's thyroiditis
E)celiac disease
Q2) The maximum membrane potential that an ion gradient can produce is the A)action potential.
B)membrane potential.
C)equilibrium potential.
D)actualized potential.
E)resting potential.
Q3) ________ are responsible for the transmission of a signal between two adjacent nerve cells.
Q4) ________ is an autoimmune disease characterized by the presence of antibodies that are capable of binding acetylcholine receptors.
Q5) Describe the docking and fusion of vesicles with the cell membrane.How do tetanus toxin and botulinum toxin work to interfere with this process?
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Chapter 14: Signal Transduction Mechanisms: Iimessengers and Receptors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kinase central to second messenger signalling based cAMP is A)protein kinase A.
B)ATPase.
C)Avastin kinase.
D)phosphorylase A.
E)RNase PH.
Q2) You wish to determine if cytosolic calcium fluxes are associated with signal transduction in a particular cell type.One means of observing the calcium fluxes would be to utilize A)caspases.
B)cytochrome c.
C)nitric oxide.
D)radioactive cAMP.
E)cameleons.
Q3) All of the following are second messengers,except A)cyclic adenosine monophosphate.
B)inositol trisphosphate.
C)diacylglycerol.
D)epinephrine.
E)calcium ions.
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Chapter 15: Cytoskeletal Systems
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Q1) A variety of proteins link actin to membranes.A ________ protein is used to link actin to the ________ membrane.
A)linker; plasma
B)spectrin; ER
C)ankyrin; lysosome
D)band 4.1; basal
E)band 4.1; mucous
Q2) In binary fission,one would expect the involvement of which of the following cytoskeletal proteins?
A)FtsZ
B)MreB
C)plaktin
D)crescentin
E)tubulin
Q3) Activation of the ________ G-protein results in the extension of lamellipodia.
Q4) Cytochalasins prevent addition of monomers to pre-existing ________.
Q5) The ________ model is used to describe the simultaneous polymerization and depolymerization of microtubules.
Q6) A unique feature of ________ is that they are tissue specific.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Cellular Movement: Motility and Contractility
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Q1) Biochemical evidence supporting our current model of muscle contraction includes the observation that
A)myosin binds calcium.
B)titin binds calcium.
C)actin has ATPase activity.
D)myosin has ATPase activity.
E)actin and myosin have the same molecular weight.
Q2) In order for a cell to crawl,it must produce a protrusion at the front of the cell (leading edge).One type of protrusion is a thin sheet called a(n)________; another is a pointed structure called a(n)________.
Q3) Tubulin subunits are added to growing cilia or flagella by ________.
Q4) Primary cilia have a ________ structure and are observed in ________ structures.
A)9 + 2; neural
B)9 + 0; neural
C)9 + 2; sensory
D)9 + 0; sensory
E)9 + 4; developmental
Q5) Compare the sustained contraction of muscle cells in rigor mortis with that which results from the action of tetanospasmin (tetanus toxin)on motor neurons.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Beyond the Cell: Cell Adhesions, cell Junctions, and Extracellular Structures
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Q1) ________ are cytoplasmic channels through openings in plant cell walls.
Q2) A person is genotypically blood type A.However,this individual also does not produce the lipid to which N-acetylgalactosamine is added,so the lipid is therefore not expressed on the surface of erythrocytes.This situation is known as the Bombay phenotype.When tested,this person will appear to be blood type
A)A.
B)B.
C)AB.
D)O.
Q3) The type of cellular junction prominent in the stomach and kidney is the A)plasmodesmata.
B)gap junction.
C)adhesive junction.
D)tight junction.
E)laminin junction.
Q4) In animal cells,adhesive glycoproteins such as ________ and ________ attach cells to the matrix.
Q5) Cadherins are associated with ________ junctions.
Q6) A(n)________ is the ring of cytoplasm lining the plasmodesmata.
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Chapter 18: The Structural Basis of Cellular Information:
DNA, chromosomes, and the Nucleus
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Q1) Avery,MacLeod,and McCarty (1944)demonstrated that DNA was the molecule of heredity by treating heat-killed Streptococcus pneumoniae S (smooth)strain with DNase,thereby preventing transfer of the "transforming substance" from the killed S strain to the live R (rough)strain when the two were mixed together and injected into mice.Another way that one could demonstrate transformation in bacteria would be to extract DNA from
A)an R strain and mix with cells of an S strain.
B)both S and R strains and mix to allow recombination to take place.
C)an ampicillin-sensitive strain and mix with cells of an ampicillin-resistant strain.
D)an S strain and mix with cells of an R strain.
E)none of the above
Q2) Two common transposable elements associated with interspersed repeated DNA are ________ and ________.
Q3) Restriction enzymes typically recognize
A)sequences in threefold symmetry.
B)single-stranded DNA only.
C)specific palindromic sequences.
D)several nucleotide sequences simultaneously.
E)all of the above
Page 21
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Chapter 19: The Cell Cycle, DNA Replication, and Mitosis
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Q1) Starting with a cell (2n = 4),illustrate the phases of mitosis with emphasis on the division of chromosomes.
Q2) In the cell cycle,controlled degradation of regulatory proteins occurs via the
A)P - protease pathway.
B)cyclin proteolysis pathway.
C)ubiquitin-proteosome pathway.
D)kinase inhibition pathway.
E)none of the above
Q3) The ________ leads to the release of importin-bound proteins and stimulates microtubule assembly.
Q4) Small pieces of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand are called ________.
Q5) Proteins bound to CEN sequences form a complex known as the ________.
Q6) Why do eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication? Design an experiment that allows you to test your hypothesis.
Q7) Analysis of chromosomes in metaphase of mitosis is known as ________ .
Q8) ________ synthesis is a damage-tolerant mechanism that allows synthesis of a new DNA strand from a damaged template.
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Q9) Why does DNA contain thymine over uracil? What effect would the presence of uracil in the DNA have on repair?
Chapter 20: Sexual Reproduction, meiosis, and Genetic
Recombination
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Q1) A pea plant is known to be heterozygous and is described as YyWw.This is the plant's
Q2) Describe,in detail,how you would obtain a gene from a tomato plant and express this protein in bacterial cells.BamHI sites at either end surround the tomato gene of interest.You may use any vector of your own design in the process.
Q3) The genotype of a particular pea plant is TtYy,corresponding to a phenotype of tall and yellow.How many different types of gametes are expected to be produced by this individual? A)1
Q4) Some mice,known as ________ mice,are genetically bred to be missing particular genes.
Q5) The first disease to be treated by gene therapy was ________.
Q6) ________ chromosomes pair during ________ of meiosis.
Page 23
Q7) The ultimate goal of sexual reproduction is to produce genetic ________ in offspring and in the population.
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Chapter 21: Gene Expression: Ithe Genetic Code and Transcription
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Q1) One reason that prokaryotic genes do not contain introns is that A)the introns are cut out during binary fission.
B)due to the short time the bacterium is around as a single organism, a 5' cap and poly (A)tail are added immediately for translation to take place.
C)bacterial proteins are very short and not subject to mutation.
D)translation sometimes begins before transcription has been completed because prokaryotes do not have a nucleus.
E)integrated viral DNA is not recognized for transcription.
Q2) Explain how an electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA)works.How might one use this technique?
Q3) ________-driven promoters are comprised of an Inr sequence and a TATA box with or without an associated BRE.
Q4) The coding regions of a gene are known as ________.
Q5) A mutation that results in the addition or deletion of a single nucleotide that radically changes the amino acid sequence of the resulting polypeptide is known as a ________ mutation.
Q6) ________-driven promoters do not contain TATA boxes or BREs.
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Q7) ________ are nonviral genetic elements that have reverse transcriptase activity.
Chapter 22: Gene Expression: Iiprotein Synthesis and Sorting
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Q1) Intramolecular protein splicing results in the formation of the final protein and the A)protease.
B)proteosome.
C)inteins.
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q2) The appropriate folding of a newly translated protein is essential,and chronic misfolding often leads to disease,especially in vertebrates.This misfolding,particularly in the case of prion diseases,may be due to a defect in A)the enzyme foldase.
B)insertion of proper amino acids during translation.
C)proteosome function.
D)chaperone activity.
E)translocase.
Q3) The sequence of amino acids in a protein is based on the ________ of the mRNA.
Q4) ________ degrades mRNAs that contain no stop codons.
Q5) Typically,the first amino acid incorporated in bacterial protein synthesis is ________.
Q6) ________ degrades mRNAs that contain premature stops.
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Chapter 23: The Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following molecules coordinates the expression of nonadjacent genes?
A)leucine zippers
B)response elements
C)transcription factors
D)coactivators
E)control elements
Q2) How can you determine the type of regulatory control associated with a newly identified bacterial protein?
Q3) Genes that are expressed only when needed are
A) unregulated.
B)mutations.
C)inducible.
D)constitutive.
E)anabolic.
Q4) Changes in gene expression that are not the result of changes to the gene itself are known as ________ changes.
Q5) Inactivated X chromsomes form dark spots in the nucleus known as ________.
Q6) Discuss how DNA methylation is associated with genomic imprinting.Be sure to use examples.
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Chapter 24: Cancer Cells
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Q1) Epidemiologists at the CDC in Atlanta,GA,have called you in to investigate an increased incidence of leukemia in a remote region of Africa. Shortly after arriving,an RNA virus was isolated from patients and found to induce leukemia in mice. At this point you don't know the mechanism or viral gene product associated with the development of leukemia. One of your lab assistants has isolated a variant of the virus and reports that this variant is missing a portion (20%)of the genome of the original virus. Furthermore,this variant does not induce leukemia in mice.
a)How would you determine which portion of the genome is associated with the development of leukemia?
b)How would you determine the viral mechanism and product associated with the development of leukemia?
Q2) Based on your knowledge of cancer and carcinogenesis,address the following:
a)What type of mutation would be directly expressed,and therefore dominant,in the development of cancer? Why?
b)What type of mutation would be expressed as a recessive trait in the development of cancer? Why?
c)Based upon your previous answers,how would you treat these situations using a gene therapy approach?
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