Genetics
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the principles of genetics, exploring the mechanisms of heredity and variation in living organisms. Topics include the structure and function of genes, Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance, genetic mapping, molecular genetics, gene expression, and regulation. Students will also examine the applications of genetics in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology, alongside contemporary issues like genetic engineering, cloning, and ethical considerations. The course lays a foundational understanding crucial for further study in biology, medicine, and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 7th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are the majority of elements thought to have been formed?
A) By thermonuclear reactions that normally take place in stars.
B) In explosions of stars.
C) By the action of cosmic rays outside the stars since the formation of the galaxy.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above; all the elements were present from the initial Big Bang.
Answer: D
Q2) Ribosomes
A) are the site of photosynthesis
B) are the site of protein synthesis
C) are never bound to membranes
D) cannot be seen in the electron microscope
Answer: B
Q3) The Golgi apparatus
A) occurs in prokaryotes
B) is involved in secretion of proteins from the cell
C) is part of the chloroplast
D) is the site of protein synthesis
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Water: The Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the maximum number of hydrogen bonds a single water molecule can form?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: D
Q2) Molecules which contain both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions are:
A) Amphipathic
B) Detergents
C) Able to form micelles
D) Both amphipathic and detergents.
E) All of these
Answer: E
Q3) Many of the properties of water can be accounted for by the fact that
A) it is polar
B) it forms hydrogen bonds
C) it is a bent molecule
D) all of these are true
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chiral objects
A) are cyclic compounds in the chair form.
B) are not superimposable on their mirror images.
C) never occur in nature.
D) do not form crystals.
Answer: B
Q2) How many different tripeptides can be assembled using one molecule each of the amino acids glycine,glutamic acid,and lysine?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 27
Answer: B
Q3) Which amino acid has a polar,non-ionic R-group
A) Glutamic Acid
B) Histidine
C) Isoleucine
D) Serine
E) Tyrosine
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Variations in the structure of hemoglobin
A) do not always have an adverse effect on health
B) can alter the binding of heme to the protein
C) can occur on the surface of the protein
D) all of these
Q2) The tertiary structure of a protein is usually a result of which of the following interactions?
A) intramolecular hydrogen bonding
B) electrostatic interactions
C) hydrophobic interactions
D) all of these
Q3) Which of the following is not true?
A) The heme group of myoglobin is held in place only through non-covalent bonding.
B) The F8 histidine is important to the function of myoglobin
C) The E7 histidine is important to the function of myoglobin
D) Myoglobin and hemoglobin differ only in one amino acid
Q4) A single amino substitution can give rise to a malfunctioning protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matrix-Assisted Laser Desorption Ionization is a type of _______ technique.
A) electrophoresis
B) ion exchange chromatography
C) affinity chromatography
D) mass spectrometry
Q2) Elution of proteins by means of a pH gradient would work best with this type of column:
A) Gel filtration
B) Affinity chromatography
C) Cation exchange
D) Anion exchange
E) Cation or anion exchange
Q3) If a protein with the sequence PQRKYPIG is treated with trypsin,what will the products be?
A) PQR KYPIG
B) PQRK YPIG
C) PQR K YPIG
D) PQ R KPIG0
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Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The K<sub>M</sub> of hexokinase for glucose = 0.15 mM and for fructose,K<sub>M</sub> = 1.5 mM.Which is the preferred substrate?
A) Glucose.
B) Fructose.
C) Neither substrate is preferred over the other.
D) You cannot tell from the data given.
E) None of these answers is correct.
Q2) The amount of energy released during a reaction tells nothing about the rate at which that reaction will occur.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Thermodynamically favorable reactions all release energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Given the rate law,rate = k[A][B],the overall reaction order is
A) zero
B) one
C) two
D) cannot be determined
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes that catalyze similar functions will invariably have
A) similar overall structures.
B) serine in their active sites.
C) histidine in their active sites.
D) active sites that can catalyze the reactions in question.
Q2) Which of the following best describes negative cooperativity?
A) Binding of one substrate molecule prevents the enzyme from working at all.
B) Binding of one substrate molecule inhibits the binding of a second substrate.
C) Binding of one substrate molecule enhances the binding of a second substrate.
D) Binding of one substrate molecule inhibits the binding of other effectors.
Q3) Which groups of amino acids are likely to be found in the active site of an enzyme?
A) leucine, lysine, alanine.
B) cysteine, isoleucine, phenylalanine.
C) tyrosine, threonine, leucine.
D) serine, histidine, aspartate.
Q4) Where do allosteric inhibitors bind on an enzyme?
A) They always bind at a site different from the active site.
B) They always bind at the active site.
C) They can bind at either active site or another site.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological
Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true?
A) Receptors are often invaginated into the cell after binding to their specific molecule.
B) A given receptor type is present at a constant level on the outside of a cell
C) In certain disease states, the level of a given receptor is increased or decreased
D) Binding of receptors to ligands sometimes shows hyperbolic binding curves
Q2) A major difficulty in extracting receptor proteins from membranes is that
A) it is difficult to remove the proteins from the membrane without denaturation
B) there may be very few molecules of the protein in a cell
C) receptor proteins tend to have high molecular weights
D) all of these
Q3) Which of the following is the best phrase to describe the modern view of membrane structure?
A) Membranes are lipid-lipid bilayers.
B) Membranes are lipid-lipid bilayers with associated proteins.
C) Membranes are composed solely of lipids and proteins.
D) Membranes are a fluid mosaic of lipids and proteins.
E) Membranes are found only in eukaryotic cells.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true?
A) The amount of UV absorbance increases, but the wavelength does not change as DNA nears its melting point
B) Once DNA is denatured, it cannot renature
C) The melting temperature partially depends on the GC content
D) The nature of the solvent the DNA is in can affect the melting temperature
Q2) What distinguishes nucleotides from nucleosides?
A) Nucleosides lack the phosphate group.
B) Nucleosides lack the sugar group.
C) Nucleosides lack a nitrogenous base.
Q3) The outside diameter of a piece of DNA is closest to
A) 2 Å.
B) 20 Å.
C) 200 Å.
D) 2000 Å.
Q4) The most recent discoveries in RNA research are:
A) mRNA and tRNA
B) MiRNA and SiRNA
C) snRNA and snurps
D) tRNA and MiRNA
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which an mRNA base sequence directs the amino acid sequence of a protein is called
A) replication.
B) transcription.
C) translation.
D) nucleation.
Q2) Ultra-violet light principally causes which of the following damages to DNA?
A) mismatches between stands
B) breaks in the phosphodiester backbone of the DNA strand
C) thymine dimerization
D) methylation of specific bases
Q3) Replication of eukaryotic DNA
A) must occur faster than replication of prokaryotic DNA
B) must be controlled to coordinate with the cell cycle
C) takes place during mitosis
D) takes place twice during each cell cycle
Q4) Since DNA Polymerase II has endonuclease activity,it is able to proofread its product when it is used in DNA repair.
A)True
B)False
12
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Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of Rna
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Sample Questions
Q1) The catabolite activator protein can overcome the effect of a repressor binding to the operon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements about the various RNA Polymerases in eukaryotes is false?
A) Permanent RNAs, such as tRNA and rRNA use different RNA Polymerases.
B) The different RNA Polymerases share some subunits.
C) The RNA Polymerase for mRNA is designated RNA Pol II.
D) Eukaryotic RNA polymerases are generally monomeric.
Q3) How do enhancers differ from promoters?
A) Enhancers do not bind RNA polymerase.
B) Enhancers include the UP element.
C) Enhancers bind the sigma (s) factor.
D) There is no difference; these terms are synonymous.
Q4) What provides the energy for rho-dependent chain termination?
A) ATP hydrolysis distinct from any incorporation into the chain.
B) Nucleotide hydrolysis associated with incorporation into the chain.
C) Torsional stress built into the separating DNA strands.
D) There is no energy requirement.
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Q1) A Shine-Dalgarno Sequence is a
A) sequence of nucleotides in the DNA that interacts with the s-subunit of RNA polymerase to begin transcription.
B) sequence of nucleotides in an mRNA that interacts with the small subunit of a ribosome to begin translation.
C) sequence of nucleotides in the DNA that interacts with r-protein to terminate transcription.
D) sequence of nucleotides in an mRNA that functions to terminate translation.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning tRNAs is false?
A) They have distinctive cloverleaf tertiary structures
B) They are unique in that they are transcribed by DNA polymerases
C) They contain many modified nucleobases
D) They contain the anticodon sequence
Q3) Wobble allows a single codon to code for more than one amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The activating enzymes can actually remove wrong amino acids attached to a tRNA. A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suitable vectors for cloning of recombinant DNA can be
A) bacteriophages.
B) bacterial plasmids.
C) both of these.
D) neither of these.
Q2) When fluorescence detection methods are used in biotechnology they
A) have limitations due to low sensitivity
B) can be used for only one substance at a time
C) are not used in DNA sequencing
D) do not present the hazards associated with radioactivity
Q3) Microarrays allow the analysis of thousands of samples of DNA or protein to be performed simultaneously.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The application of gel electrophoresis (PAGE) in DNA sequencing
A) is nonexistent because DNA fragments differ widely in charge.
B) depends on separation of similar charge/mass ratio on the basis of size.
C) depends on separation of identical size on the basis of charge/mass ratio.
D) is nonexistent because DNA fragments have no net charge.
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens to the DNA copy of the retroviral RNA genome after it is produced?
A) It is incorporated into the host's DNA.
B) It is transcribed to produce mRNAs.
C) It is wrapped in a capsid for export from the cell.
D) It is replicated as a plasmid.
Q2) Which of the following contributes to the variability of the immunoglobulins?
A) A variety of different DNA sequences are physically attached together to generate a huge number of different antibody genes.
B) The linking regions between these DNA sequences are also highly variable.
C) The synthesis of mRNA in the antibody cells is very variable, producing many different proteins from one gene.
D) There are several hundred to one thousand different genes for the variable part of the antibody sequence.
E) All of these mechanisms contribute to the variety of antibodies in the immune system.
Q3) More than one type of antigen can bind to an antibody,but there is only one type of antibody for each antigen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and
Electron Transfer in Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biochemists use a modified value for standard DG values because
A) all reagents are not at a 1 molar concentration.
B) the pH in living systems is seldom, if ever, near 0.
C) the concentration of water is not at 1 molar concentration.
D) the reagents are not one molar and the pH = 7.
E) All of these justify why biochemists use a special DG value.
Q2) Which of the following is not true?
A) Molecular oxygen is always a substrate in oxidation reactions.
B) Oxidation reactions involve the movement of electrons from one molecule to another
C) When a molecule is oxidized, it loses electrons
D) Reduction involves the gain of electrons
Q3) Consider this rxn which has a DG° = +0.4 kJ/mol. A + B « C + D
1 M A,1 M B,0.1 M C and 0.1 M D are added to a container at room temperature.Which of the following statements is true?
A) DG < 0 (i.e., it's negative)
B) DG = 0
C) DG > 0 (i.e., it's positive)
D) Cannot be determined from the information provided.
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lactone is a cyclic
A) ether.
B) ester.
C) ketone.
D) alcohol.
Q2) A furanose is a sugar that
A) contains a five-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
B) contains a six-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
C) is a five-carbon open-chain sugar.
D) is a six-carbon open-chain sugar.
Q3) The following sugar is also called fruit sugar:
A) Fructose
B) Glucose
C) Lactose
D) Sucrose
E) Maltose
Q4) Glycosidic bonds from sugars
A) always link to the other molecule through an oxygen atom.
B) always link to the other molecule through a nitrogen atom.
C) may link to the other molecule through either an oxygen or a nitrogen atom
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) The DG values for glycolytic reactions at physiological conditions may be exergonic,even though the DG°' at "standard" conditions,may be endergonic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following exercise(s) allosteric control in the reaction of phosphofructokinase?
A) ATP
B) fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
C) both of these
D) neither of these
Q3) Which of the following enzymes of anaerobic metabolism is not tetrameric?
A) Hexokinase
B) Phosphofructokinase
C) Pyruvate kinase
D) Lactate Dehydrogenase
Q4) During glycolysis,ATP is synthesized from ADP and a phosphate group transferred from an acid anhydride.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) Control of the entry of glucose or fructose into the oxidative portions of the pentose phosphate pathway is mostly dependent on a cell's need for NADPH,rather than on the cell's need for pentoses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase works by this mechanism:
A) It adds a phosphate group to glucose from UTP, leaving behind UDP.
B) It adds a UMP molecule to glucose-1-phosphate by splitting out pyrophosphate.
C) It adds a pyrophosphate group to glucose, using UTP.
D) It adds a UDP molecule to glucose by splitting out phosphate.
Q3) The enzyme that catalyzes the interconversion of glucose-1-phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate is
A) a hydrolase.
B) a phosphorylase.
C) a mutase.
D) a dehydrogenase.
Q4) Properly used,glycogen loading by athletes is a safe process.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thiamine pyrophosphate carries a ____ carbon unit.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) Which of the following enzymes does not use NAD<sup>+</sup> for oxidation?
A) Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase complex.
B) IsoCitrate Dehydrogenase.
C) Succinate Dehydrogenase.
D) Malate Dehydrogenase.
E) All of these enzymes use NAD<sup>+</sup>
Q3) Fluorine is related to the citric acid cycle because:
A) fluoroacetyl-CoA is also a substrate for citrate synthase
B) fluoroacetate, found in poisonous plants, acts as an inhibitor of aconitase
C) fluorocitrate acts as a potent inhibitor of the citric acid cycle
D) all of these
Q4) The production of malate in the glyoxylate pathway is important,since it can be readily converted to phosphoenolpyruvate and then to sugars.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Chemiosmotic coupling was first proposed by Peter Mitchell,who won a Nobel Prize for his theory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The complex in the electron transport chain that does not have a direct link to coenzyme Q in some form is
A) the succinate dehydrogenase complex.
B) Complex I.
C) cytochrome c oxidase.
D) Complex III.
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning E° for an electron-transfer reaction is false?
A) It is measured by comparison with the partial pressure of oxygen in the bloodstream rather than 1 atmosphere pressure.
B) It is measured by comparison with a standard hydrogen electrode.
C) It is related to DG° by a well known equation.
D) It cannot be determined for electron-transfer reactions involving coenzyme Q.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) Approximately how many ATP molecules are netted from the complete oxidation of stearic acid (C-18)?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 32
D) 88
E) 120
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms explains why fatty acid synthesis and breakdown do not compete with each other in the body?
A) Synthesis and breakdown take place in two separate compartments of the cell.
B) One process uses NADH/NAD<sup>+</sup> and the other uses NADPH/NADP<sup>+</sup>.
C) They are not attached to the same carrier molecule in the two processes.
D) All of these mechanisms are in operation.
Q3) Where in the cell does fatty acid synthesis occur?
A) Cytoplasm.
B) Outer mitochondrial membrane.
C) Mitochondrial intermembrane space.
D) Inner mitochondrial membrane.
E) Mitochondrial matrix.
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The region of the chloroplast between the inner membrane and the thylakoid membrane is called
A) the stroma.
B) the thylakoid space.
C) the intermembrane space.
D) the grana.
Q2) During cyclic electron transport
A) only Photosystem II is involved.
B) only Photosystem I is involved.
C) both photosystems are involved.
D) neither photosystem is involved.
Q3) In order to regenerate ribulose 1,5 bisphosphate,the following reaction is required:
A) A phosphate group must be added to ribulose-1-phosphate.
B) The enzyme involved is phosphoribulose kinase.
C) ATP is used as a source of phosphate.
D) Both phosphoribulose kinase and ATP are needed.
E) All of these statements are true.
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Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) In the urea cycle,the molecule that is synthesized in the cytosol and transported to the mitochondrial matrix for subsequent reaction is
A) citrulline
B) ornithine
C) argininosuccinate
D) aspartate
Q2) High protein diets for humans result in the following.
A) Increased nitrogen metabolism.
B) A negative nitrogen balance for the body.
C) Increased demand for water in the diet.
D) Both increased nitrogen metabolism and need for water.
E) All of these are consequences of high protein diets.
Q3) A molecule synthesized in the mitochondrial matrix and transported to the cytosol for subsequent reaction is
A) arginine
B) argininosuccinate
C) citrulline
D) ornithine
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25
Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) What function do vitamins usually serve?
A) coenzymes or precursors of coenzymes
B) intermediates of the TCA cycle
C) precursors of amino acids
D) hormones or second messengers
Q2) Regulatory cascades have what advantage over direct action by the signal molecule?
A) Amplification.
B) Fine tuning of regulatory effects.
C) Coordinated response among multiple systems.
D) All of these
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of catabolic pathways?
A) macromolecules, such as carbohydrates, are hydrolyzed to monomers and then oxidized
B) ATP is a common product in such pathways
C) the pathways are exergonic
D) energy input is required for these pathways to take place
Q4) Low levels of iodide in the diet can lead to an enlarged thyroid.
A)True
B)False
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