Genetics Practice Exam - 931 Verified Questions

Page 1


Course Introduction

Genetics Practice Exam

Genetics explores the principles governing heredity and variation in living organisms, examining the structure, function, and transmission of genes. This course covers molecular genetics, Mendelian inheritance, genetic mapping, population genetics, and the regulation of gene expression. Students will also investigate the genetic basis of development, evolution, and disease, with emphasis on current research techniques and applications in biotechnology and medicine. Through theoretical lessons and practical activities, learners develop a comprehensive understanding of how genetic information shapes biological traits, populations, and species.

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Introduction to Genetic Analysis 11th Edition by Anthony J.F. Griffiths

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Page 2

Chapter 1: The Genetics Revolution

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Sample Questions

Q1) Using a concept map,indicate all the relationships that exist among the following: chromosomes,DNA,genes,genomes,proteins,histones,chromatin,nucleus,and mitochondria.

Answer: Example: - chromosomes: [are comprised of] DNA,histone (proteins) [carry] genes [are located in] the nucleus,in mitochondria (each "term" should be related to at least three other terms)

Q2) How many different DNA molecules that are eight-nucleotide pairs long are theoretically possible?

A)24

B)32

C)64

D)256

E)65,536

Answer: E

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Chapter 2: Single-Gene Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) a)In families with four children,what proportion of the families will have at least one boy?

b)In families with two girls and one boy,what fraction of the families will have the boy as the second child?

c)In families with four children,what fraction of the families will have the gender order male-female-female-male?

Answer: a)0.9375,since 1 \(\times\) Prob.of 4 girls,or 1 \(\times\) (.5)<sup>4</sup> = 1 \(\times\) 0.0625.The frequency can be calculated more laboriously by expanding the binomial (p + q)<sup>4</sup> = p<sup>4</sup> + 4p<sup>3</sup>q + 6p<sup>2</sup>q<sup>2</sup> + 4pq<sup>3</sup> + q<sup>4</sup> and calculating that 15/16 (0.9375)of the distribution has one boy.

b)1/3,because the frequencies of MFF,FMF,and FFM families are equal.

c)Of four-child families,6/16 have two boys and two girls;only 1/6 of such families will have the birth order MFFM.Therefore,1/16 will have that particular birth order.The same answer can be derived as (0.5)<sup>4</sup>.

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4

Chapter 3: Independent Assortment of Genes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is/are TRUE with respect to haploid and diploid cells?

A)Following DNA replication,haploid cells become diploid.

B)In diploid cells,meiosis I results in the formation of two haploid cells.

C)In haploid cells,condensed chromosomes have an "I" shape,while in diploid cells they have an "X" shape.

D)In haploid cells meiosis is simpler,owing to unpaired chromosomes.

E)The process of meiosis is identical in haploid and diploid cells.

Answer: B

Q2) A corn plant of genotype A/a;B/B;C/c;D/d;E/e;f/f;G/g is selfed.How many different completely homozygous genotypes could be produced?

A)2

Answer: E

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Chapter 4: Mapping Eukaryote Chromosomes by

Recombination

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the cross mt<sup>+</sup>al<sup>+</sup> \(\times\) mt al,the mt locus shows an M<sub>II</sub> frequency of 12%,the al locus an M<sub>II</sub> frequency of 10%.Most asci were parental ditypes.The order of loci is:

A)al - centromere - mt.

B)al - mt - centromere.

C)centromere - al - mt.

D)centromere - mt - al.

E)mt - centromere - al.

Q2) In maize,two plants that are both heterozygous for the recessive alleles a and b are crossed.What frequency of double-mutant progeny will appear if a and b are 7.2 map units apart,and both parents carry a and b in repulsion (trans)?

A)0.001296

B)0.005184

C)0.036

D)0.0625

E)0.072

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Chapter 5: The Genetics of Bacteria and Their Viruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) A bacterial strain is able to grow on rich medium (which contains all the amino acids,vitamins,and a variety of carbon sources)but not on minimal medium or on minimal medium supplemented with leucine.What could be the genotype(s)of this bacterial strain with respect to the arg and leu loci?

A)arg<sup>+</sup>leu<sup>-</sup>

B)arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>+</sup>

C)arg<sup>+</sup>leu<sup>-</sup> or arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>+</sup>

D)arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>-</sup> or arg<sup>+</sup>leu<sup>-</sup>

E)arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>-</sup> or arg<sup>-</sup>leu<sup>+</sup>

Q2) To demonstrate transformation of bacteria,one could:

A)extract DNA from an auxotroph and add it to prototrophic cells.

B)extract DNA from arg<sup>-</sup> cells and add it to arg<sup>+</sup> cells.

C)extract DNA from arg<sup>+</sup> cells and add it to arg<sup>-</sup> cells.

D)extract DNA from Str<sup>S</sup> cells and add it to Str<sup>R</sup> cells.

E)mix the DNA from arg<sup>+</sup> and arg<sup>- </sup>cells to allow recombination.

Q3) Two labs calculated cotransduction frequencies for the genes A and B.Lab 1 calculated 0.63,and lab 2 calculated 0.47.Which lab reported the genes to be closer together?

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Chapter 6: Gene Interaction

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two new mutant lines of a flowering plant have been obtained; one breeds true for blue flower color and the other breeds true for red flower color (wild-type flower color is purple). Consider the following crosses.

1. blue \(\times\) purple \(\rightarrow \mathrm { F } _ { 1 }\) all purple \(\rightarrow \mathrm { F } _ { 2 } 75 \%\) purple; \(25 \%\) blue

2. red \(\times\) purple \(\rightarrow \mathrm { F } _ { 1 }\) all purple \(\rightarrow \mathrm { F } _ { 2 } 75 \%\) purple; \(25 \%\) red

3. red \(\times\) blue \(\rightarrow \mathrm { F } _ { 1 }\) all purple

If the purple flower color results from the mixture of red and blue pigments,and all the intermediate products in the pigment pathways are colorless,what phenotypic ratios do you expect in the F<sub>2</sub> of cross 3?

A)3 purple : 1 white (colorless)

B)9 purple : 3 blue : 3 red : 1 white (colorless)

C)9 purple : 4 blue : 3 red

D)9 purple : 7 white (colorless)

E)12 purple : 3 blue : 1 white (colorless)

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Chapter 7: Dna: Structure and Replication

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Sample Questions

Q1) Chargaff's rules do NOT hold for which of the following genome types?

A)yeast

B)bacteria

C)single-stranded DNA virus

D)invertebrates

E)Archaeobacteria

Q2) The Meselson-Stahl experiment made clear predictions regarding experimental outcomes if dispersive,conservative,or semiconservative DNA replication was occurring in their Escherichia coli cells.To begin the experiment,cells were grown for a period of time in media containing __________ to label the chromosome.

A)heavy nitrogen,<sup>15</sup>N

B)radioactive phosphate,<sup>32</sup>P

C)chemically modified nitrogenous bases

D)only sulfur and no nitrogen

E)None of the answer options are correct.

Q3) What structural feature of DNA suggests a possible method of its replication?

A)The nucleotides between nucleotide strands are complementarily paired.

B)The hydrogen bonds between A-T and G-C are the same on all DNA molecules.

C)The DNA strands run anti-parallel.

D)The phosphate bonds in the backbone of all DNA molecules.

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Chapter 8: Rna: Transcription and Processing

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Sample Questions

Q1) In what cellular compartment are introns removed from pre-mRNA to make mature mRNA?

A)cytoplasm

B)endoplasmic reticulum

C)nucleus

D)mitochondria

E)Golgi apparatus

Q2) Which of the following statement/s about RNA pol II is/are FALSE?

A)RNA pol II transcribes protein-encoding genes.

B)General transcription factors (GTFs)help RNA pol II to position at the promoter start to initiate transcription.

C)RNA pol II adds new nucleotides to the 3 end of the transcript.

D)The CTD domain of RNA pol II coordinates cotranscriptional modifications.

E)RNA pol II reads the template DNA strand in a 5 -to-3 direction during transcription.

Q3) What are the three major classes of functional RNAs? Briefly describe the role of each class of functional RNA.

Q4) Name the three major modifications of mRNA in eukaryotes before it is transported to the cytoplasm.In addition,tell why each of the modifications is necessary.

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Chapter 9: Proteins and Their Synthesis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The DNA sense strand for a particular amino acid is 5 -ATG-3 .What RNA sequence would be transcribed for this codon,what tRNA anticodon would recognize it,and what amino acid would be added in response to this codon?

A)5 -CAU-3 (RNA sense);3 -GUA-5 (tRNA anticodon);histidine

B)3 -AUG-5 (RNA sense);3 -UAC-5 (tRNA anticodon);valine

C)5 -CAU-3 (RNA sense);3 -AUG-5' (tRNA anticodon);histidine

D)5 -UUU-3 (RNA sense);3 -AAA-5 (tRNA anticodon);phenylalanine

E)5 -AUG-3 (RNA sense);3 -UAC-5 (tRNA anticodon);methionine

Q2) Describe how it was determined that the genetic code was not overlapping.What evidence was used to support this?

Q3) Many antibiotics target prokaryotic ribosomal function,blocking translation and causing rapid death in susceptible microbial populations.You have been assigned to a structure-based drug design project for a biotechnology company.In order for an antibiotic to be effective,it must be able to block an essential ribosomal function,and the drug must have access to the portion of the enzyme or enzyme complex being targeted.What processes/enzymes might you target in your drug design?

Q4) Draw the general formula for an amino acid.What is it that distinguishes the 20 amino acids known to exist in proteins?

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Gene Isolation and Manipulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Bacterial artificial chromosomes are comprised of:

A)components of the bacterial F plasmid and can carry large inserts (200,000 bp).

B)fosmid DNA sequences,enabling the transfer of DNA between bacteria.

C)viral lambda DNA sequences,enabling the transfer of DNA between bacteria.

D)a bacterial chromosome,with some artificial components.

E)recombinant proteins isolated from specific phage viruses.

Q2) The value of the beta-galactosidase gene in cloning could best be described as the gene:

A)that provides valuable restriction enzyme cut sites.

B)that "reports" if a recombinant product is formed.

C)that confers resistance to antibiotics.

D)that facilitates easier transfer of the DNA into bacterial cells.

E)that encodes a special DNA ligase enzyme.

Q3) Bacterial cells have a variety of restriction enzymes that can degrade the DNA of an attacking virus.How do these bacterial cells protect their own DNA from being degraded by the very restriction enzymes that are meant to help them?

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Their Viruses

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the bacteriophage \(\lambda\),the mutants cI,cII,and cIII form:

A)form turbid plaques and are able to establish lysogeny.

B)form clear plaques and are unable to establish lysogeny.

C)form turbid plaques and are unable to establish lysogeny.

D)form clear plaques and are able to establish lysogeny.

E)form both clear and turbid plaques.

Q2) A promoter mutation (P<sup>-</sup>)results in:

A)no transcription.

B)inducible transcription.

C)transcription but no translation.

D)no translation.

E)constitutive transcription.

Q3) A constitutive operator mutation (O<sup>c</sup>)results in:

A)no transcription.

B)inducible transcription.

C)transcription but no translation.

D)no translation.

E)constitutive transcription.

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Chapter 12: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The GAL4 enhancers are located _____ of the genes they regulate and are known as ______.

A)downstream;downstream activation sequences (DAS)

B)downstream;downstream enhancer sequences (DES)

C)upstream;upstream activation sequences (UAS)

D)upstream;upstream enhancer elements (UES)

E)None of the answer options are correct.

Q2) In the bacterial lac operon,the physiologically regulated step is:

A)DNA-binding by the transcriptional regulator.

B)activity of the activation-domain of the transcriptional regulator.

C)feedback inhibition by the end-product of the pathway.

D)import of the inducer molecule.

E)None of the answer options are correct.

Q3) The mating-type (MAT)locus in yeast has how many alleles?

E)The precise number is unknown.

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Page 14

Chapter 13: The Genetic Control of Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Shown below is a list of molecules that function in Drosophila development (a-g)and a list of possible distribution patterns (1-5).On the line following each distribution pattern,write the letter(s)of the molecule(s)showing that type of distribution pattern.

a)toll transmembrane receptor

b)hunchback protein

c)activated SPZ ligand

d)inactive DL protein

e)active DL protein

f)NOS protein

g)Bicoid protein

1)Highest gradient is in the anterior end of the embryo.__________

2)Highest gradient is in the posterior end of the embryo.__________

3)Highest gradient is at the ventral midpoint of the embryo.__________

4)This is distributed throughout the oocyte/embryo.__________

5)This is present uniformly in the oocyte plasma membrane.__________

Q2) A scientist working in a Drosophila lab locates a mutation in an organism that caused antenna to be transformed into legs.He determines that this is a homeotic transformation.Do you agree?

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Chapter 14: Genomes and Genomics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is/are FALSE concerning the comparisons between genetic,physical,and cytogenetic maps?

A)The distance between two linked markers is the same in genetic and physical maps because crossing over occurs with equal frequency along the entire length of the chromosome.

B)Restriction maps,contig maps,and STS maps are examples of physical maps.

C)In physical maps,the distances between markers are given in megabases (Mb)where 1 Mb is approximately equal to 1 cM.

D)The banding patterns of chromosomes created by different staining techniques are used in constructing cytogenetic maps.

E)In genetic maps,the distances between various markers (for example,genes or RFLPs)are given in map units or centiMorgans.

Q2) Please list three (3)approaches to reverse genetics.

Q3) Describe the information content of a genome.

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Chapter 15: The Dynamic Genome: Transposable Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Transposable elements that transpose via an RNA intermediate is known as:

A)class 1 elements.

B)class 2 elements.

C)class 3 elements.

D)alpha elements.

E)D elements.

Q2) Match the following transposable elements with the species where it is found.

i.humans (A)Dt element

ii.Drosophila (B)Ty1 element

iii.yeast (C)L1 element

iv.maize (D)P element

Q3) Compare and contrast autonomous and nonautonomous transposable elements.

Q4) A nonautonomous element:

A)requires no other elements for its mobility.

B)requires additional element(s)for its mobility.

C)is only found in corn (maize).

D)is found only in plants.

E)None of the answers are correct.

Q5) a)What is the C-value paradox?

b)What is the explanation for the C-value paradox?

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Mutation, Repair, and Recombination

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Sample Questions

Q1) In E.coli,a region flanked by two repeats of a sequence such as GTGGTGAA is prone to:

A)deletions.

B)duplications.

C)frameshift mutations.

D)missense mutations. E)reversion.

Q2) The rare enol form of thymine pairs with guanine.If a thymine enolization occurs during replication,what would be the mutational event?

A)AT to TA

B)CG to AT

C)CG to GC

D)GC to TA

E)TA to CG

Q3) Photoreactivation repair is effective only in the presence of visible light.What other repair mechanism is available to repair pyrimidine dimers if visible light was not available? Describe the steps of this mechanism.

Q4) How do mutation and DNA damage differ?

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Chapter 17: Large-Scale Chromosomal Changes

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Sample Questions

Q1) A man is found to be karyotypically 47,XYY.The presence of an extra Y chromosome most likely results from:

A)nondisjunction in a maternal meiocyte at meiosis I.

B)nondisjunction in a maternal meiocyte at meiosis II.

C)nondisjunction in a paternal meiocyte at meiosis I.

D)nondisjunction in a paternal meiocyte at meiosis II.

E)unequal crossing over.

Q2) A pure line of plants of genotype a/a;b/b;c/c;d/d;e/e (all recessive to wild type)was crossed to a wild type.One F<sub>1</sub> individual expressed the recessive alleles d and e.This individual arose most likely from:

A)a deletion in the quadruple homozygous recessive parent.

B)a deletion in the wild-type parent.

C)a gene mutation in the wild-type parent.

D)position effect variegation in the F<sub>1</sub>.

E)a reversion in the quadruple homozygous recessive parent.

Q3) An allotetraploid plant with 2n = 30 is backcrossed to one of its progenitor species that has an n = 8.A sterile progeny is produced.How many chromosomes will this sterile individual possess,and what are the chromosome numbers of the two progenitor species?

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Population Genetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sequencing of a pine tree population reveals four variants of a particular SNP.Eighty percent (80%)of the trees have the G,15% the A,3% the T,and 2% the C variant.What is the genetic diversity of the pine tree population with respect to this SNP?

A)0.007%

B)2.0%

C)33.6%

D)66.4%

E)80%

Q2) Human albinism is an autosomal recessive trait.Suppose that you find a village in the Andes where one-fourth of the population is albino.If the population size is 1000 and the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to this trait,how many individuals are expected to be heterozygotes?

A)50

B)250

C)300

D)500

E)750

Q3) What processes increase genetic variation in a given population?

Q4) How is the genetic composition of a population defined?

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Chapter 19: The Inheritance of Complex Traits

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a population of beetles,the total variance of body weight is 130.It is estimated that the environmental variance is 35,and dominance genetic variance is 45.Calculate the narrow-sense heritability (h<sup>2</sup>)of body weight in these beetles.

Q2) Consider a diploid fish in which tail length is solely controlled by the additive action of two unlinked loci,F (f)and G (g),without any effect of the environment.A female of genotype F/F;G/G,with a 3 cm long tail,is crossed to a male of genotype f/f;g/g,with a 2 cm long tail.All the F<sub>1</sub> fish have 2.5 cm long tails. a)If the F<sub>1</sub> fish are crossed to each other,how many different tail length phenotypes will be present in F<sub>2</sub>?

Q3) In a large flock of turkeys,average body weight is 5.0 kg.In a test to determine if the average weight of the flock can be increased by selective breeding,6.2 kg birds are removed and allowed to interbreed.Their progeny have an average weight of 5.2 kg.Calculate the narrow-sense heritability (h<sup>2</sup>).

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Chapter 20: Evolution of Genes and Traits

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe how a population can shift adaptive peaks.Be clear about what mechanisms can accomplish this transition.

Q2) Wichman and colleagues examined adaptive walks using:

A)antibiotic selection on bacteriophage populations.

B)bacteriophage infection of mutation-bearing bacteria.

C)a bacteriophage and two different host cell types.

D)mutagenic compounds delivered to rapidly dividing phage virions.

E)None of the answer options are correct.

Q3) When considering synonymous and nonsynonymous mutations within a population,which of the following is TRUE?

A)Nonsynonymous mutations will often be removed by purifying selection.

B)Synonymous mutations will often be removed by purifying selection.

C)The two types of mutations are not distinguished by purifying selection.

D)Only nonsynonymous mutations are known to occur.

E)Only synonymous mutations are known to occur.

Q4) Define the molecular clock.

Q5) What will determine the rate of a molecular clock for a gene that codes for a functional protein?

Q6) Describe the relationship between overall DNA change and functional change.

Q7) What is meant by the phrase,"The force of selection is myopic."?

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