Genetics
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Genetics is the scientific study of heredity and variation in living organisms, focusing on how traits and characteristics are passed from one generation to the next through genes. This course explores the structure and function of DNA, gene expression and regulation, Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance patterns, genetic mutations, and the role of genetics in evolution and disease. Students will gain a comprehensive understanding of genetic technologies, population genetics, molecular genetics, and their applications in fields such as medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology, while also considering ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic research.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics 10th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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Chapter 1: What Is in a Human Genome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kanisha and her friend both receive their grades for their physics midterms.Kanisha got an A,but her friend received a D."You must have the physics gene," remarks her frienD."I don't.I might as well not bother studying." The friend's attitude illustrates the idea of
A)genetic discrimination.
B)genetic determinism.
C)genetic engineering.
D)genetic modification.
Answer: B
Q2) DNA profiling is helpful in 2-14-2013
A)curing cancer.
B)analyzing food.
C)treating male infertility.
D)preventing male pattern baldness.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A difference between a stem cell and a progenitor cell is that
A)a progenitor cell cannot self-renew and a stem cell can.
B)a stem cell cannot self-renew and a progenitor cell can.
C)progenitor cells are rare but stem cells are abundant.
D)progenitor cells are not present in embryos but stem cells are.
Answer: A
Q2) The defining characteristic of a stem cell is
A)self-repair.
B)self-renewal.
C)the ability to turn into a cancer cell.
D)its origin from a progenitor cell.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A)Somatic cells are diploid,meaning that they have two copies of the human genome.
B)Somatic cells are haploid,meaning that they have one copy of the human genome.
C)Sperm and egg cells are diploid,meaning that they have two copies of the human genome.
D)Stem cells are haploid,meaning that they have one copy of the human genome.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Meiosis,Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fertilization usually occurs in the A)ovary.
B)uterine tube.
C)uterus.
D)endometrium (uterine lining).
Answer: B
Q2) The number of sperm cells in an ejaculation averages
A)2,000 to 6,000.
B)20,000 to 60,000.
C)200 to 600 million.
D)200 to 600 billion.
Answer: C
Q3) After the second meiotic division,the number of chromosomes in each daughter cell is _____ that of the original parental cell.
A)half
B)double
C)the same as
D)quadruple
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A heterozygote has
A)two different alleles for a gene.
B)only one allele for a gene.
C)an extra genome.
D)one copy of each sex chromosome.
Q2) A person who has two identical alleles for a particular gene is _____ for that gene.
A)dominant
B)heterozygous
C)homozygous
D)positive
Q3) Family exome analysis compares the complete genome sequences of the members of a family.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A Punnett square displays
A)members of a family and their phenotypes.
B)paired chromosomes in size order.
C)DNA sequences and the proteins they encode.
D)the probabilities of how alleles combine in offsprings.
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Laws
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mitochondrial genome consists of _____ genes.
A)12
B)37
C)250
D)370
Q2) Geneticists construct linkage maps of chromosomes by
A)correlating a phenotype to an observable chromosomal abnormality.
B)determining the number of crossovers between genes on different chromosomes. C)calculating the percent recombination between two genes on the same chromosome.
D)observing the number of genes on a chromosome.
Q3) In a heterozygote for two linked genes,both dominant alleles are on one chromosome and both recessive alleles are on another chromosome.The genes are said to be in A)recombination.
B)repulsion.
C)cis.
D)trans.
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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Femaleness or maleness is genetically set at A)conception.
B)fertilization.
C)the embryonic period.
D)the fetal perioD.
Q2) Cliff has colorblindness and icthyosis,which causes scaly skin.Both traits are X-linked recessive.The probability that he transmits both traits to his sons is A)0
B)1/4
C)1/2
D)3/4
Q3) Human males are the _____ sex.
A)homozygous
B)homogametic
C)heterogametic
D)heterozygous
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies that implicate the environment in influencing body weight consider
A)indigenous populations where the people have lived in the same area for thousands of years and tend to all be thin.
B)populations that split,with some people remaining in the homeland and others moving to areas where their diet changes dramatically,and they gain a great deal of weight.
C)mice bred to be obese that are given different types of junk food.
D)SNPs located throughout the genome.
Q2) In a polygenic trait
A)within genes,all alleles affect the phenotype to the same degree.
B)all alleles are dominant.
C)genes contribute to varying degrees,and alleles have differing degrees of impact.
D)one gene can cancel out the effect of the environment.
Q3) A cohort study looks at
A)a large group of people over time,keeping track of specific health conditions or measures.
B)large groups of DZ and MZ twins.
C)heritabilities of behavioral characteristics.
D)patterns of copy number variants in the human genome.
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9
Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anandamide is a substance made in the body that is the equivalent of the active component of A)heroin.
B)chocolate.
C)marijuana.
D)barbiturates.
Q2) The biological basis of autism may be
A)exposure to Ebola viruses during pregnancy.
B)formation of aberrant synapses.
C)interference with the ability to form synapses during childhood that are a response to experience,impairing learning and memory.
D)binding to nicotinic receptors in a way that destroys neurons in the hippocampus.
Q3) Schizophrenia affects about _____ percent of the population.
A)0.1
B)1.0
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Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true in DNA replication?
A)DNA polymerase unwinds the DNA at replication forks.
B)Primase removes short RNA primers and replaces them with DNA.
C)Ligase breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary DNA strands.
D)DNA polymerase proofreads DNA,correcting mismatched nucleotides.
Q2) Which of the following is most correct regarding genes,DNA,and protein?
A)A gene is a section of DNA whose sequence encodes a particular protein,which is composed of amino acids.
B)A gene is a section of a chromosomal DNA composed of many amino acids.
C)DNA is composed of many genes,which are formed from amino acid sequences.
D)DNA is composed of amino acids,which encode the protein and genotype.
Q3) Chargaff showed that DNA that has 20% guanine has _____ cytosine.
A)20%
B)30%
C)60%
D)40%
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Chapter 10: Gene Action: From DNA to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA differs from DNA in that
A)it is usually single-stranded.
B)it is usually double-stranded.
C)it has thymine instead of uracil.
D)it has deoxyribose instead of ribose.
Q2) During transcription
A)protein is synthesized from DNA.
B)DNA is replicated.
C)RNA is synthesized from DNA.
D)protein is synthesized from amino acids.
Q3) A benefit of alternate splicing of introns out of mRNAs is that
A)it maximizes the number of introns.
B)it increases the number of proteins that the genome encodes.
C)it lowers the risk of infection.
D)it speeds transcription.
Q4) The DNA template ATGCGTTA is transcribed into an RNA strand with the sequence
A)TACGCAAT.
B)UAACGCAU.
C)UACGCAAU.
D)AUGCGAAU.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Epigenetic" means
A)"inside the gene."
B)"inside the protein."
C)"outside the gene."
D)"outside the protein."
Q2) The term _____ refers to genes whose encoded proteins control lipid synthesis.
A)genome
B)lipidome
C)proteome
D)glycome
Q3) The most abundant type of DNA repeat sequence is called a A)genome.
B)lipidome.
C)proteome.
D)transposon.
Q4) The form of RNA that cuts rRNA molecules is A)tRNAs.
B)pseudogenes.
C)snoRNAs.
D)microRNAs.
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Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A source of gamma radiation is
A)plutonium and cesium isotopes.
B)alpha and beta globin.
C)uranium and radium.
D)carbon-14 and strontium-70.
Q2) The phenotype of a person with alpha thalassemia depends on the A)number of beta globin genes.
B)presence or absence of a sickle cell mutation.
C)number of alpha globin chains.
D)rate of replication of the alpha globin genes.
Q3) The fact that myotonic dystrophy worsens with each generation is due to
A)a second somatic point mutation.
B)an increasing number of repeated short DNA sequences.
C)a transposing tandem triplet repeat.
D)family members perceiving their symptoms as worse.
Q4) An example of a beneficial mutation is
A)a mutation in collagen that causes the skin to be extra stretchy.
B)the mutation that causes sickle cell disease.
C)a mutation in the CCR5 gene.
D)a mutation in a cytokine gene that causes an allergy.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ are illustrations that show chromosome arm and major regions.
A)Ideograms
B)Chromatograms
C)Polygrams
D)Anagrams
Q2) The centromere of human chromosome 15 creates a long arm and a very short arm.Therefore,this chromosome is A)telocentric.
B)acrocentric.
C)submetacentriC.
D)metacentric.
Q3) A chromsomal inversion that does not include the centromere is A)epicentric.
B)paracentric.
C)metacentriC.
D)isocentric.
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Q1) Hardy-Weinberg calculations are based on
A)the binomial expansion.
B)the quadratic equation.
C)the Pythagorean theorem.
D)comparing DNA sequences.
Q2) VNTRs and STRs differ in that
A)a VNTR repeat is shorter than an STR repeat.
B)a VNTR repeat is longer than an STR repeat.
C)a VNTR is a type of copy number variant and an STR is not.
D)an STR is a type of copy number variant and a VNTR is not.
Q3) DNA on a glove left at the crime scene is an example of primary DNA transfer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Combined DNA Index System (CODIS)is
A)a fifteen-base DNA sequence used in DNA profiling.
B)a type of mutation used in forensic applications.
C)a system for crime laboratories to share DNA profiles.
D)a technology used to amplify DNA found at crime scenes.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Q1) _____ in the human population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century.
A)Natural selection
B)Mutation
C)Migration
D)Nonrandom mating
Q2) Resistance of sickle cell disease carriers to malaria illustrates
A)genetic drift.
B)a population bottleneck.
C)balanced polymorphism.
D)a founder effect.
Q3) In _____,people with a serious genetic disorder are not permitted to have children.
A)the United States
B)England
C)China
D)Russia
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Chapter 16: Human Ancestry and Evolution
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Q1) Which of the following represents the correct order,from oldest to most recent?
A)Australopithecus garhi,Homo erectus,Homo floresiensis,Aegyptopithecus
B)Aegyptopithecus,Australopithecus garhi,Homo erectus,Homo floresiensis
C)Aegyptopithecus,Australopithecus garhi,Homo floresiensis,Homo erectus
D)Australopithecus garhi,Aegyptopithecus,Homo floresiensis,Homo erectus
Q2) An example of a single-gene trait that distinguishes humans from other primates is
A)the presence of two sides to the brain.
B)the abundance of fetal hemoglobin in humans.
C)the lack of adult hemoglobin in marmosets and lemurs.
D)our non-opposable thumbs.
Q3) Which of the following best supports the hypothesis that modern humans and Neanderthals are separate species?
A)A Neanderthal was found buried with flowers in Shanidar,Iraq.
B)The same mutation may have given some Neanderthals red hair and pale skin as a mutation known in modern humans.
C)Sequenced Neanderthal genome parts are three times as different from the human genome as the least related humans are to each other.
D)Neanderthal remains are found in Europe and western Asia.
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human leukocyte antigen genes are on the
A)short arm of chromosome 6.
B)long arm of chromosome 18.
C)short arm of chromosome 2.
D)long arm of chromosome 6.
Q2) In an allergic reaction,allergens bind _____,which release allergy mediators.
A)IgE antibodies on mast cell surfaces
B)IgG antibodies on B cell surfaces
C)allergy genes on chromosome 5
D)histamines on mast cell surfaces
Q3) People do not develop a secondary immune response to influenza because
A)the immune system mutates from season to season.
B)secondary immune responses are only possible against bacteria.
C)the primary immune response is sufficient to protect against flu.
D)the causative viruses mutate each season.
Q4) Interleukin-2 is used as a drug to activate
A)T cells.
B)B cells.
C)mast cells.
D)erythrocytes.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Cancer Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) Tanisha was just diagnosed with an aggressive form of breast cancer called HER2.The cancer started because
A)she has a deletion in the BRCA1 gene that is found in African-American and Ashkenazi Jewish women.
B)her affected breast cells have many extra receptors for epidermal growth factor,and so they receive too many signals to divide.
C)her affected cells have extra genes for epidermal growth factor,sending signals for the cells to divide too frequently.
D)a translocation occurred between chromosomes 7 and 8,generating and activating a breast-specific oncogene.
Q2) Cancer does not typically follow a Mendelian pattern of inheritance because it is usually caused by
A)two gene variants,one dominant and one recessive,and no environmental input.
B)specific combinations of alleles and an environmental factor.
C)specific combinations of an environmental factor and one dominant gene variant.
D)genes that cause death before birth.
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Q1) _____,a recombinant clotbusting drug,is used to limit damage to heart muscle by restoring blood flow.
A)Insulin
B)Tissue plasminogen activator
C)Interleukin-2
D)Glucocerebrosidase
Q2) Structures used in recombinant DNA technology to carry the DNA from the cells of one species to the cells of another species are
A)cloning vectors.
B)restriction enzymes.
C)sticky ends.
D)donor DNA.
Q3) Courts allow patenting complementary DNA (cDNA)because
A)its exact sequence is not in the genome of an organism.
B)it cannot be synthesized in a laboratory.
C)it is present only in adult humans.
D)it represents only the introns of a gene.
Q4) RNA interference was discovered in 1998.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Q1) "Preconception comprehensive carrier screening" is a test that detects heterozygotes for nearly 500 single-gene diseases affecting children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Adenosine deaminase (ADA)deficiency results in
A)hereditary emphysemA.
B)neurotransmitter imbalances.
C)severe combined immune deficiency.
D)chronic myelogenous leukemia.
Q3) One of the first applications of pharmacogenetics in prescribing drugs is for
A)Accutane,an acne drug.
B)an early pregnancy test kit.
C)warfarin,a blood thinner.
D)a narcotic to treat chronic pain.
Q4) Leber congenital amaurosis type 2 has been successfully treated using gene therapy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) A normal sperm count is _____ sperm per ejaculate.
A)100,000 to 500,000
B)1 to 2 million
C)20 to 200 million
D)1 to 3 billion
Q2) A man who is paralyzed from a spinal cord injury might become a father using A)IVF.
B)a surrogate mother.
C)intracytoplasmic sperm injection.
D)intrauterine insemination.
Q3) A surrogate mother can help couples have a child when the woman does not have a functional
A)uterine tube.
B)vagina.
C)cervix.
D)uterus.
Q4) Assisted Reproductive Technologies are typically not covered by health insurance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Genomics
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Q1) The _____ DNA sequencing technique aligned DNA pieces one chromosome at a time.
A)clone-by-clone
B)whole-genome shotgun
C)positional cloning
D)software-automated
Q2) cDNA is copied from A)DNA.
B)protein.
C)mRNA.
D)a pictogram.
Q3) Whole-genome shotgunning is faster,but it misses some sections that the clone-by-clone method detects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The strategy that was ultimately the most successful in sequencing the human genome was
A)the recombinant DNA approach.
B)the epigenesis approach.
C)the whole genome shotgun approach.
D)the exome approach.
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