General Physics II Textbook Exam Questions - 3821 Verified Questions

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General Physics II

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

General Physics II is a continuation of General Physics I, focusing on the fundamental principles of electromagnetism, optics, and modern physics. Topics include electric fields, electric potential, capacitance, current, resistance, direct and alternating current circuits, magnetic fields, electromagnetic induction, and the behavior of electromagnetic waves. The course further explores the properties of light, reflection, refraction, interference, and diffraction, as well as an introduction to quantum physics and atomic models. Emphasis is placed on conceptual understanding, problem solving, and the practical applications of physical laws in natural and technological contexts.

Recommended Textbook College Physics A Strategic Approach 3rd Edition by Randall D. Knigh

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30 Chapters

3821 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Representing Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Given that 1.00 in. = 2.54 cm and 1.00 yd = 36.0 in., how many meters are in 7.00 yd?

A) 6.40 m

B) 36.3 m

C) 640 m

D) 1.78 × 10<sup>3</sup> m

Answer: A

Q2) The number of significant figures in 0.040 is

A) one.

B) two.

C) three.

D) four.

Answer: B

Q3) Add the following lengths, each obtained from a different measuring instrument, and round the answer to the proper number of significant figures: 20.02 m, 5.91 m, 0.0097 m, and 2.467 m.

Answer: 28.41 m

Q4) What is \(\sqrt { \frac { 4.302 ( 15.6 - 1.2 ) } { 22.1 + 19.4 } }\) expressed to the correct number of significant figures?

Answer: 1.22

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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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Sample Questions

Q1) A motorist travels 160 km at 80 km/h and 160 km at 100 km/h. What is the average speed of the motorist for this trip?

A) 84 km/h

B) 89 km/h

C) 90 km/h

D) 91 km/h

Answer: B

Q2) A car travels at 15 m/s for 10 s. It then speeds up with a constant acceleration of 2.0 m/s<sup>2</sup> for 15 s. At the end of this time, what is its velocity?

A) 15 m/s

B) 30 m/s

C) 45 m/s

D) 375 m/s

Answer: C

Q3) A race car circles 10 times around a circular 8.0-km track in 20 min. Using SI units (a) what is its average speed for the ten laps? (b) what is its average velocity for the ten laps?

Answer: (a) 67 m/s (b) 0 m/s

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Chapter 3: Vectors and Motion in Two Dimensions

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Sample Questions

Q1) An athlete competing in the long jump leaves the ground with a speed of 9.14 m/s at an angle of 35° above the horizontal. How long does the athlete stay in the air, assuming no significant air resistance?

A) 0.50 s

B) 0.88 s

C) 1.1 s

D) 2.5 s

E) 0.54 s

Q2) In an air-free chamber, a pebble is thrown horizontally, and at the same instant a second pebble is dropped from the same height. Compare the times of fall of the two pebbles.

A) The thrown pebble hits first.

B) The dropped pebble hits first.

C) They hit at the same time.

D) We cannot tell without knowing which pebble is heavier.

Q3) A player hits a tennis ball into the air with an initial velocity of 32 m/s at 35° from the vertical. How fast is the ball moving at the highest point in its trajectory if air resistance is negligible?

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 1200-kg car is pulling a 500-kg trailer along level ground. Friction of the road on the trailer is negligible. The car accelerates with an acceleration of 1.3 m/s<sup>2</sup>.

What is the force exerted by the car on the trailer?

A) 550 N

B) 600 N

C) 650 N

D) 700 N

E) 750 N

Q2) A horse pulls a cart with force \(\overrightarrow { \mathbf { F } }\) . As a result of this force the cart accelerates with constant acceleration. The magnitude of the force that the cart exerts on the horse

A) is zero newtons.

B) equal to the magnitude of \(\overrightarrow { \mathbf { F } }\) .

C) less than the magnitude of \(\overrightarrow { \mathbf { F } }\) .

D) greater than the magnitude of \(\overrightarrow { \mathbf { F } }\) .

E) cannot be determined without knowing the mass of the horse.

Q3) A 590-kg rocket is at rest on the launch pad. What upward thrust force is needed to accelerate the rocket uniformly to an upward speed of 28 m/s in 3.3 s?

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Chapter 5: Applying Newtons Laws

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Q1) A 200-N sled of slides down a frictionless hillside that rises at 37° above the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the force that the hill exerts on the sled parallel to the surface of the hill?

A) 200 N

B) 120 N

C) 160 N

D) 150 N

E) 0 N

Q2) Jason takes off across level water on his jet-powered skis. The combined mass of Jason and his skis is 75 kg (the mass of the fuel is negligible). The skis produce a forward thrust of 200 N and have a coefficient of kinetic friction with water of 0.10. Unfortunately, the skis run out of fuel after only 41 s. How far from his starting point has Jason traveled when he finally coasts to a stop?

A) 3900 m

B) 2900 m

C) 2000 m

D) 1400 m

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Chapter 6: Gravity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two small balls, A and B, attract each other gravitationally with a force of magnitude F. If we now double both masses and the separation of the balls, what will now be the magnitude of the attractive force on each one?

A) 16F

B) 8F

C) 4F

D) F

E) F/4

Q2) A 250-kg motorcycle goes around an unbanked turn of radius 13.7 m at a steady 96.5 km/h. What is the magnitude of the net force on the motorcycle?

A) 719 N

B) 2.95 × 10<sup>3</sup> N

C) 1.31 × 10<sup>4</sup> N

D) 4.31 × 10<sup>4</sup> N

Q3) A small 175-g ball on the end of a light string is revolving uniformly on a frictionless surface in a horizontal circle of diameter 1.0 m. The ball makes 2.0 revolutions every 1.0 s.

(a) What are the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the ball?

(b) Find the tension in the string.

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Chapter 7: Rotational Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A torque of 12 N ? m is applied to a solid, uniform disk of radius 0.50 m. If the disk accelerates at \(1.6 \mathrm { rad } / \mathrm { s } ^ { 2 }\) what is the mass of the disk?

A) 60 kg

B) 45 kg

C) 30 kg

D) 15 kg

Q2) A force of 17 N is applied to the end of a 0.63-m long torque wrench at an angle 45° from a line joining the pivot point to the handle. What is the magnitude of the torque about the pivot point produced by this force?

A) 7.6 N m

B) 10.7 N m

C) 12.0 N m

D) 9.7 N m

Q3) The drive chain in a bicycle is applying a torque of 0.850 N m to the wheel of the bicycle. The wheel has a moment of inertia of 0.100 kg m<sup>2</sup>. What is the angular acceleration of the wheel?

Q4) Express the angular speed of an old 33 1/3 rpm LP in rad/s.

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Equilibrium Ad Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) An aluminum wire and a steel wire, each of length 2.0 m, are hung from the ceiling. A 5.0-kg mass is suspended from the lower end of each wire. The aluminum wire has a diameter of 2.2 mm. What must be the diameter of the steel wire if it is to stretch the same distance as the aluminum wire, so that the two wires maintain equal lengths after the masses are attached? Young's modulus for aluminum is 0.70 × 10<sup>11</sup> Pa and for steel it is 2.0 × 10<sup>11</sup> Pa.

Q2) When a 125-kg piece of equipment is hung from a steel wire of length 75 cm, it stretches the wire by 4.00 mm. If instead the wire had a length of 150 cm, but all else were the same, by what distance would the same equipment stretch the wire?

A) 16.0 mm

B) 8.00 mm

C) 4.00 mm

D) 2.00 mm

E) 1.00 mm

Q3) If the sum of the external forces on an object is zero, then the sum of the external torques on it must also be zero.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Momentum

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Sample Questions

Q1) In a police ballistics test, a 10.0-g bullet moving at 300 m/s is fired into a 1.00-kg block at rest. The bullet goes through the block almost instantaneously and emerges with 50.0% of its original speed. What is the speed of the block just after the bullet emerges?

A) 1.50 m/s

B) 2.97 m/s

C) 3.00 m/s

D) 273 m/s

Q2) A 1200-kg car moving at \(15.6 \mathrm {~m} / \mathrm { s }\) suddenly collides with a stationary car of mass \(1500 \mathrm {~kg} \text {. }\) If the two vehicles lock together, what is their combined velocity immediately after the collision?

A) 6.9 m/s

B) 8.6 m/s

C) 12.1 m/s

D) 5.5 m/s

Q3) A 2200-kg auto moving northward at 12.0 m/s runs into a 3800-kg truck which is also moving northward, but at 5.00 m/s. If the vehicles lock bumpers, how fast are they moving just after the collision?

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Chapter 10: Energy and Work

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Sample Questions

Q1) A girl throws a stone from a bridge. Consider the following ways she might throw the stone. The speed of the stone as it leaves her hand is the same in each case.

Case A: Thrown straight up.

Case B: Thrown straight down.

Case C: Thrown out at an angle of 45° above horizontal.

Case D: Thrown straight out horizontally.

In which case will the speed of the stone be greatest when it hits the water below if there is no significant air resistance?

A) Case A

B) Case B

C) Case C

D) Case D

E) The speed will be the same in all cases.

Q2) A baseball pitcher is employing a ballistic pendulum to determine the speed of his fastball. A \(\text { 3.3-kg }\) lump of clay is suspended from a cord 2.0 m long. When the pitcher throws his fastball aimed directly at the clay, the ball suddenly becomes embedded in the clay and the two swing up to a maximum height of 0.080 m. If the mass of the baseball is 0.21 kg, find the speed of the pitched ball.

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Chapter 11: Using Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A person consumes a snack containing 14 food calories (14 kcal). What is the power this food produces if it is to be "burned off" due to exercise in 6 hours? (1 cal = 4.186 J)

A) 2.7 W

B) 9763 W

C) 0.6 W

D) 0.0027 W

Q2) A cylinder contains 10 moles of an ideal gas at a temperature of 300 K. The gas is compressed at constant pressure until the final volume equals 0.77 times the initial volume. The molar heat capacity at constant volume of the gas is 24.0 J/mol K and R = 8.31 J/mol K . How much heat is absorbed by the gas during this process? (R = 8.31 J/mol K)

A) -22 kJ

B) -17 kJ

C) 22 kJ

D) 17 kJ

E) -5.7 kJ

Q3) What is absolute zero on the (a) Celsius scale and (b) on the Fahrenheit scale?

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Chapter 12: Thermal Properties of Matter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two containers of equal volume each hold samples of the same ideal gas. Container A has twice as many molecules as container B. If the gas pressure is the same in the two containers, the correct statement regarding the absolute temperatures T<sub>A</sub> and T<sub>B</sub> in containers A and B, respectively, is

A) T<sub>A</sub> = T<sub>B</sub>.

B) T<sub>A</sub> = 2T<sub>B</sub>.

C) T<sub>A</sub> = \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\) T<sub>B</sub>.

D) T<sub>A</sub> = \(\frac { 1 } { \sqrt { 2 } }\) T<sub>B</sub>.

E) T<sub>A</sub> = \(\frac { 1 } { 4 }\) T<sub>B</sub>.

Q2) A mercury thermometer has a glass bulb of interior volume 0.100 cm<sup>3</sup> at 10°C. The glass capillary tube above the bulb has an inner cross-sectional area of 0.012 mm<sup>2</sup>. The coefficient of volume expansion of mercury is 1.8 × 10<sup>-4</sup> K<sup>-1</sup>. If the expansion of the glass is negligible, how much will the mercury rise in the capillary tube when the temperature rises from 5°C to 35°C if the bulb was full at 5°C?

A) 0.45 mm

B) 4.5 mm

C) 45 mm

D) 45 cm

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Chapter 13: Fluids

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Q1) Substance A has a density of 3 g/cm<sup>3</sup> and substance B has a density of 4 g/cm<sup>3</sup>. In order to obtain equal masses of these two substances, what must be the ratio of the volume of A to the volume of B?

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Chapter 14: Oscillations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A leaky faucet drips 40 times in \(30.0 \mathrm {~s}\) What is the frequency of the dripping?

A) 1.3 Hz

B) 0.75 Hz

C) 1.6 Hz

D) 0.63 Hz

Q2) The position of an air-track cart that is oscillating on a spring is given by the equation x = (12.4 cm) cos[(6.35 s<sup>-1</sup>)t]. At what value of t after t = 0.00 s is the cart first located at x = 8.47 cm?

A) 4.34 s

B) 0.108 s

C) 0.129 s

D) 7.39 s

E) 7.75 s

Q3) When a laboratory sample of unknown mass is placed on a vertical spring-scale having a force constant (spring constant) of 467 N/m, the system obeys the equation y = (4.4 cm) cos(33.3 s<sup>-1</sup> t). What is the mass of this laboratory sample?

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Chapter 15: Traveling Waves and Sound

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Q1) What is the intensity of a 70-dB sound? The threshold of human hearing is 1.0 × 10<sup>-12</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>.

A) 10<sup>-4</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>

B) 10<sup>-5</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>

C) 10<sup>-6</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>

D) 10<sup>-7</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>

Q2) What is the frequency does a stationary observer hear when a train approaches her with a speed of 30 m/s. The frequency of the train horn is 0.600 kHz and the speed of sound is 340 m/s.

A) 551 Hz

B) 600 Hz

C) 653 Hz

D) 658 Hz

Q3) What is the intensity level in decibels of a sound with intensity 10<sup>-3</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>? The threshold of human hearing is 1.0 × 10<sup>-12</sup> W/m<sup>2</sup>.

A) 30 dB

B) 60 dB

C) 90 dB

D) 96 dB

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Chapter 16: Superposition and Standing Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) A policeman in a stationary car measures the speed of approaching cars by means of an ultrasonic device that emits a sound with a frequency of 39.6 kHz. A car is approaching him at a speed of 35.0 m/s. The wave is reflected by the car and interferes with the emitted sound producing beats. What is the frequency of the beats when the speed of sound in air is 343 m/s?

A) 5000 Hz

B) 4500 Hz

C) 8490 Hz

D) 9000 Hz

E) 4250 Hz

Q2) Two speakers are placed side by side and driven by the same frequency of 0.50 kHz. If the distance from a person to one speaker is 5.0 m and the person detects little or no sound, which of the following is a possible the distance from the person to the other speaker? The sound speed in the room is 340 m/s.

A) 7.7 m

B) 8.1 m

C) 8.4 m

D) 9.1 m

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18

Chapter 17: Wave Optics

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Q1) A diffraction grating has 450 lines per millimeter. What is the highest order m that contains the entire visible spectrum from 400 nm to 700 nm?

A) m = 2

B) m = 3

C) m = 4

D) m = 5

E) m = 6

Q2) Light having a speed in vacuum of 3.0 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s enters a liquid of refractive index 2.0. In this liquid, its speed will be

A) 6.0 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

B) 3.0 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

C) 1.5 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

D) 0.75 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

E) 0.67 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s

Q3) A soap bubble with air on both sides has an index of refraction of 1.33. What minimum thickness of the wall of this bubble will ensure maximum reflectance of normally incident light having a wavelength of 530 nm?

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Chapter 18: Ray Optics

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Q1) An object is placed 60 cm from a convex lens with a focal length of magnitude 10 cm. What is the magnification?

A) -0.10

B) 0.10

C) 0.15

D) 0.20

E) -0.20

Q2) A wrench is placed at 30 cm in front of a diverging lens with a focal length of magnitude 10 cm. What is the magnification of the wrench?

A) 0.25

B) -0.25

C) 0.67

D) -0.67

E) 4.0

Q3) An object that is 3.4 mm tall is placed 25 cm from the vertex of a convex spherical mirror. The radius of curvature of the mirror has magnitude 73 cm. (a) How far is the image from the vertex of the mirror? (b) What is the height of the image?

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20

Chapter 19: Optical Instruments

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Q1) The focal lengths of the objective lens and the eyepiece of a microscope are 0.50 cm and 2.0 cm, respectively, and their separation is 6.0 cm when adjusted for minimum eyestrain for a person with a near point of 25.0 cm. If the microscope is focused on a small object, the magnitude of its final overall magnification is closest to

A) 50.

B) 100.

C) 150.

D) 200.

E) 250.

Q2) A microscope has an objective lens of focal length 1.40 mm and an eyepiece of focal length 20.00 mm. It is adjusted for minimum eyestrain for persons with a near point of 25.0 cm. A blood sample is placed 1.50 mm from the objective. How far apart are the lenses?

A) 20 mm

B) 21 mm

C) 23 mm

D) 41 mm

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21

Chapter 20: Electric Fields and Forces

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Q1) A small glass bead has been charged to 1.9 nC. What is the strength of the electric field 2.0 cm from the center of the bead? (k = 1/4 <sub>0</sub> = 8.99 × 10<sup>9</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)

A) 4.3 × 10<sup>4</sup> N/C

B) 8.5 × 10<sup>2</sup> N/C

C) 8.1 × 10<sup>-5</sup> N/C

D) 8.5 × 10<sup>-7</sup> N/C

Q2) A plastic rod is charged up by rubbing a wool cloth, and brought to an initially neutral metallic sphere that is insulated from ground. It is allowed to touch the sphere for a few seconds, and then is separated from the sphere by a small distance. After the rod is separated, the rod

A) is repelled by the sphere.

B) is attracted to the sphere. C) feels no force due to the sphere.

Q3) Three point charges are placed on the x-axis, as follows. A charge of +2.0 C is at the origin, a charge of -2.0 C is at x = 50 cm, and a charge of +4.0 C is at x = 100 cm. What are the magnitude and direction of the electrostatic force on the charge at the origin due to the other two charges? (k = 1/4 <sub>0</sub> = 9.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Electric Potential

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Q1) An air-filled 20- F capacitor has a charge of 60 C on its plates. How much energy is stored in this capacitor?

A) 70 J

B) 80 J

C) 90 J

D) 100 J

E) 110 J

Q2) Two very small +3.00- C charges are at the ends of a meter stick. Find the electric potential (relative to infinity) at the center of the meter stick.

(k = 1/4 <sub>0</sub> = 8.99 × 10<sup>9</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)

A) 0.00 V

B) 2.70 × 10<sup>4</sup> V

C) 5.40 × 10<sup>4</sup> V

D) 1.08 × 10<sup>5</sup> V

Q3) What the electric energy density at a point 1.0 cm from a proton? (e = 1.6 × 10-19 C, <sub>0</sub> = 8.85 × 10<sup>-12 </sup>C<sup>2</sup>/N m<sup>2</sup>, k = 1/4 <sub>0</sub> = 9.0 × 10<sup>9</sup> N m<sup>2</sup>/C<sup>2</sup>)

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Chapter 22: Current and Resistance

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Q1) A toaster is rated at 800 W when operating at 120 V dc. What is the resistance of its heating element?

A) 16

B) 18

C) 6.7

D) 0.15

Q2) If a quantity you calculated has units of \(\frac { \mathrm { kg } \cdot \mathrm { m } ^ { 2 } } { \mathrm {~s} ^ { 2 } \cdot \mathrm { C } }\) , what is that quantity?

A) potential

B) resistivity

C) resistance

D) capacitance

E) charge

Q3) A 1500-W heater is connected to a 120-V line for 2.0 hours. How much heat energy is produced?

A) 1.5 kJ

B) 3.0 kJ

C) 0.18 MJ

D) 11 MJ

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Circuits

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Q1) A capacitor C is connected in series with a resistor R across a battery and an open switch. If a second capacitor of capacitance 2C is connected in series with the first one, the time constant of the new RC circuit will be A) the same as before.

B) larger than before.

C) smaller than before.

D) variable.

Q2) What resistance must be connected in parallel with a 633- resistor to produce an equivalent resistance of 205 ?

Q3) As more resistors are added in parallel across a constant voltage source, the power supplied by the source A) increases.

B) decreases.

C) does not change.

D) increases for a time and then starts to decrease.

Q4) Three resistors of 12 , 12 , and 6.0 are connected together, and an ideal 12-V battery is connected across the combination. What is the current from the battery if they are connected (a) in series or (b) in parallel?

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Chapter 24: Magnetic Fields and Forces

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Q1) The magnetic field at a distance of 2 cm from a long straight current-carrying wire is 4 T. What is the magnetic field at a distance of 1 cm from this wire?

A) 2 T

B) 4 T

C) 6 T

D) 8 T

E) 10 T

Q2) A flat circular wire loop lies in a horizontal plane on a table and carries current in a counterclockwise direction when viewed from above. At this point, the earth's magnetic field points to the north and dips below the horizontal. Which side of the coil tends to lift off of the table due to the magnetic torque on the loop?

A) the north side

B) the east side

C) the south side

D) the west side

E) The entire loop lifts straight up.

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Chapter 25: EM Induction and Em Waves

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Q1) A flat coil having 160 turns, each with an area of 0.20 m<sup>2</sup>, is placed with the plane of its area perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.40 T. The magnetic field changes uniformly from 0.40 T in the +x direction to 0.40 T in the -x direction in 2.0 s. If the resistance of the coil is 16 , at what rate is power generated in the coil during this change?

A) 5.0 W

B) 10 W

C) 15 W

D) 20 W

Q2) Unpolarized light is incident upon two ideal polarizing filters that do not have their transmission axes aligned. If \(19 \%\) of the light passes through this combination, what is the angle between the transmission axes of the two filters?

A) 52°

B) 72°

C) 0°

Q3) A flat circular loop having one turn and radius 5.0 cm is positioned with its plane perpendicular to a uniform 0.60-T magnetic field. The area of the loop is suddenly reduced to essentially zero in 0.50 ms. What emf is induced in the loop?

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27

Chapter 26: AC Electricity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A coil with a self-inductance of 6.0 H is connected to a dc battery through a switch. As soon as the switch is closed, the rate of change of current is 2.0 A/s. What is the emf induced in this coil at this instant?

A) 6.0 V

B) 3.0 V

C) 12 V

D) 0.33 V

E) 0.0 V

Q2) What is the reactance of a 1.0-mH inductor at 60 Hz?

A) 0.19

B) 0.38

C) 2.7

D) 5.3

Q3) Consider a capacitor connected across the ac source. As the capacitance is increased, the current through the capacitor will A) increase. B) remain constant. C) decrease.

Q4) At what frequency does a 10- F capacitor have a reactance of 0.12 k ?

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Chapter 27: Relativity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A spaceship leaves Earth at a steady forward speed of 70% the speed of light. How fast relative to the ship must the spaceship launch a shuttlecraft in the forward direction so that it will be moving away from Earth at 98.7% the speed of light?

A) 0.91c

B) 0.97c

C) 0.93c

D) 0.99c

E) 0.84c

Q2) A spaceship visits a star that is 4.5 light-years from Earth, and the spaceship travels at one-half the speed of light for the entire trip.

(a) How long did the trip take according to an observer on Earth?

(b) How long did the trip take according to an observer on the spaceship?

Q3) You are moving at a speed 2/3 c toward Randy when shines a light toward you. At what speed do you see the light approaching you?

A) 1/3 c

B) 2/3 c

C) 4/3 c

D) c

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Chapter 28: Quantum Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a proton and an electron have the same de Broglie wavelengths, which one is moving faster?

A) the electron

B) the proton

C) They both have the same speed.

Q2) When a metal is illuminated by light, photoelectrons are observed provided that the wavelength of the light is less than 520 nm. What is the metal's work function? (c = 3.00 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s, h = 6.626 × 10<sup>-34</sup> J s, 1 eV = 1.60 × 10<sup>-19</sup> J)

A) 2.4 eV

B) 2.6 eV

C) 2.8 eV

D) 3.0 eV

Q3) A proton and an electron are both accelerated to the same final kinetic energy. If <sub>p</sub> is the de Broglie wavelength of the proton and <sub>e</sub> is the de Broglie wavelength of the electron, then

A) <sub>p</sub> > <sub>e</sub>.

B) <sub>p</sub> = <sub>e</sub>.

C) <sub>p</sub> < <sub>e</sub>.

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Chapter 29: Atoms and Molecules

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Sample Questions

Q1) In making a transition from state n = 1 to state n = 2, the hydrogen atom must

A) absorb a photon of energy 10.2 eV.

B) emit a photon of energy 10.2 eV.

C) absorb a photon of energy 13.58 eV.

D) emit a photon of energy 13.58 eV.

Q2) Calculate the orbital Bohr radius of the \(n = 2\) excited state in a hydrogen atom.

\(( r \mathrm { 1 } = 0.0529 \mathrm {~nm} )\)

A) 0.212 nm

B) 0.106 nm

C) 0.170 nm

D) 0.244 nm

Q3) Given that the energy levels of the hydrogen atom are given by E<sub>n</sub> = \(\frac { \text { Rch } } { n ^ { 2 } }\) , where R = 1.097 × 10<sup>7</sup> m<sup>-1</sup>, what wavelength photon is emitted when the atom undergoes a transition from the n = 4 to the n = 6 level?

Q4) Write out the electron configuration for the ground state of the phosphorus atom, which has 15 electrons.

Q5) What is the energy (in electron-volts) of the n = 3 state of atomic hydrogen?

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Physics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The neutron is made up of which one of the following quark combinations (up, down, strange, charm, top, bottom)?

A) uud

B) ddu

C) udd

D) ttb

E) bst

Q2) The half-life of cobalt-60 is 5.3 years, while that of strontium-90 is about 29 years. Suppose you have samples of both isotopes, and that they initially contain equal numbers of atoms of these isotopes. How will the activities (number of decays per second) of the samples compare?

A) The activity of the cobalt-60 sample will be greater.

B) The activities cannot be compared without more information.

C) The activities will be equal.

D) The activity of the strontium-90 sample will be greater.

Q3) A radioactive substance containing 4.0 × 10<sup>16</sup> unstable atoms has a half-life of 2.0 days. What is its activity (in curies, Ci) after 1.0 day? (1 Ci = 3.70 × 10<sup>10</sup> Bq)

Q4) The half-life of tritium is 12.3 y. What is its mean life (time constant)?

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