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General Chemistry I provides a foundational understanding of the fundamental principles of chemistry. This course explores topics such as atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, stoichiometry, periodic trends, chemical reactions, thermochemistry, and the properties of gases, liquids, and solids. Emphasis is placed on problem-solving skills, laboratory techniques, and the development of analytical thinking, enabling students to grasp how chemical concepts relate to real-world phenomena and further studies in science and engineering disciplines.
Recommended Textbook Chemical Principles The Quest for Insight 7th Edition by Peter Atkins
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Q1) The square of the amplitude of a wave determines the intensity of the radiation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What is the only secondary quantum number associated with the 4s orbital?
A) l = 0
B) l = 1
C) l = 2
D) l = 3
E) l = 4
Answer: A
Q3) What is the ground-state electron configuration of Rb<sup>+</sup>?
A) [Kr]<sup> </sup>
B) [Kr]5s<sup>1 </sup>
C) [Ar]<sup> </sup>
D) [Ar]4s<sup>1 </sup>
E) [Kr]4d<sup>10 </sup>
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following has the longest bond?
A) N<sub>2 </sub>
B) NO<sup>-</sup>
C) N<sub>2</sub><sup>2+</sup>
D) N<sub>2</sub><sup>2-</sup>
E) O<sub>2</sub><sup>2-</sup>
Answer: E
Q2) What hybrid orbitals are used by the N atoms in urea, H<sub>2</sub>NCONH<sub>2</sub>?
A) sp
B) sp<sup>2</sup>
C) sp<sup>3</sup>
D) dsp<sup>3</sup>
Answer: C
Q3) Both C<sub>2</sub> and C<sub>2</sub><sup>2-</sup> are diamagnetic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Predict the electron arrangement in NO<sub>2</sub><sup>-</sup>.
Answer: trigonal planar

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Sample Questions
Q1) At what general temperature are interstitial carbides formed?
A) 00<sup>o</sup>C<sup> </sup>
B) 200<sup>o</sup>C<sup> </sup>
C) 1,000<sup>o</sup>C <sup> </sup>
D) 2,000<sup>o</sup>C<sup> </sup>
E) 20,000<sup>o</sup>C<sup> </sup>
Answer: D
Q2) A 6.00-L sample of C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>4</sub>(g) at 2.00 atm and 293 K is burned in 6.00 L of oxygen gas at the same temperature and pressure to form carbon dioxide and water.If the reaction goes to completion,What is the final volume of all gases at 2.00 atm and 293 K?
A) 2.66 L
B) 6.00 L
C) 2.00 L
D) 1.33 L
E) 4.00 L
Answer: A
Q3) How many atoms are there in a face-centered cubic unit cell?
Answer: 4
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Q1) For most reactions,the value of \(\Delta\)U is very close to that for \(\Delta\)H
A)True
B)False
Q2) Consider the compounds
PCl<sub>5</sub>(g),HCN(g),CuO(s),NO(g),NH<sub>3</sub>(g),And SO<sub>2</sub>(g). Which compound will become more stable with respect to its elements if the temperature is raised?
A) CuO(s)
B) PCl<sub>5</sub>(g)
C) NH<sub>3</sub>(g)
D) NO(g)
E) HCN(g)
Q3) Use Trouton's constant to estimate the enthalpy of vaporization of diethyl ether, which boils at 309 K.
A) +85 kJ.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1 </sup>
B) +26 kJ.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1 </sup>
C) +275 kJ.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1 </sup>
D) -85 kJ.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1 </sup>
E) +3.6 kJ.mol<sup>-</sup><sup>1 </sup>
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Q1) Calculate the vapor pressure at25<sup>\(\omicron\)</sup>C of a mixture of benzene and toluene in which the mole fraction of benzene is 0.650 .The vapor pressure at 25<sup>\(\omicron\)</sup>C of benzene is 94.6 Torr and that of toluene is 29.1 Torr.
A) 84.4 Torr
B) 124 Torr
C) 51.3 Torr
D) 71.7 Torr
E) 61.5 Torr
Q2) The vapor pressure of water above 40 mL of water in a 100 mL container is 23.8 Torr at 25<sup>\(\omicron\)</sup>C .What is the vapor pressure of the water if the volume of the container is changed to 50 mL?
A) About 25 Torr
B) About 20 Torr
C) 23.8 Torr
D) 47.6 Torr
E) 11.9 Torr
Q3) Rank the following species in order of increasing vapor pressure at 25<sup>\(\omicron\)</sup>C. water,diethyl ether,ethanol,mercury
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Q1) The following 0.1 M aqueous solutions are arranged in order of increasing pH, with the highest pH on the far right. \[\begin{array} { | l | l | l | l | l | } \hline \mathrm { C } _ { 5 } \mathrm { H } _ { 5 } \mathrm { NHCl } & \mathrm { HClO } & \mathrm { KNO } _ { 3 } & \mathrm { NaClO } & \\ \hline \end{array}\]
Which one of the following 0.10 M aqueous solutions should be placed in the empty box?
A) NaCN
B) CH<sub>3</sub>COOH
C) KNO<sub>2 </sub>
D) NaBr
E) NaHSO<sub>4 </sub>
Q2) What is the main factor that determines the pH of any buffer?
Q3) Consider the titration of 10.0 mL of 0.100 M (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>N(aq) with 0.100 M HClO<sub>4</sub>(aq).What is the formula of the main species in the solution after the addition of 10.0 mL of acid?
Q4) What is the main factor that directly determines the pH of any buffer?
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Q1) A first-order reaction has a rate constant of 0.00300 s<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup> .The time required for 60% reaction is
A) 153 s.
B) 73.9 s.
C) 170 s.
D) 133 s.
E) 305 s.
Q2) A second-order reaction has a rate constant of 1.25 M<sup></sup><sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup>.s<sup>-</sup><sup>1</sup> .If the initial reactant concentration is 1.0 M,Calculate the time required for 90% reaction.
A) 1.3 s
B) 7.2 s
C) 0.13 s
D) 17 s
E) 0.89 s
Q3) The rates of first-order and second-order reactions do not change with elapsed time
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The geometry of PCl<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> is
A) T-shaped.
B) tetrahedral.
C) seesaw.
D) trigonal bipyramidal.
E) trigonal pyramidal.
Q2) Write the formula of the hydride ion.
Q3) Both boric acid and nickel(II)chloride are weak acids in aqueous solutions.Explain.
Q4) Which of the following compounds has a hypervalent central atom?
A) PCl<sub>5</sub>
B) PCl<sub>3</sub>
C) AsCl<sub>3</sub>
D) NCl<sub>3</sub>
Q5) Which of the following is an acidic oxide?
A) CaO(s)
B) MgO(s)
C) Bi<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>(s)
D) Na<sub>2</sub>O(s)
E) SiO<sub>2</sub>(s)
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Q1) A ligand is
A) a Lewis base.
B) necessary in a complex to balance the charge on the metal ion.
C) used to force octahedral geometry on a metal ion.
D) a Lewis acid.
E) used to precipitate metal ions from aqueous solution.
Q2) Both Cu<sup>2+</sup>(aq)and Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)are colorless.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The metalloproteins hemoglobin and vitamin B<sub>12</sub> contain the metals
A) iron and zinc, respectively.
B) cobalt and nickel, respectively.
C) iron and Mo, respectively.
D) manganese and iron, respectively.
E) iron and cobalt, respectively.
Q4) The complex CoCl<sub>4</sub><sup>2</sup><sup>-</sup> absorbs light at approximately ____________ nm and its color is ____________.
Q5) Complexes with coordination number 4 are either tetrahedral or octahedral.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Using the diagram from question 90, which of the following processes below might a Sm-146 (Z = 62)Nucleus undergo to begin to reach stability?
A) \(\alpha\)-particle emission
B) \(\beta\)-particle emission
C) \(\alpha\)-particle and \(\beta\)-particle emission
D) Proton capture
E) \(\beta\)-particle emission and electron capture
Q2) When an \(\alpha\) particle is emitted, the mass number
A) decreases by 4.
B) increases by 2.
C) decreases by 2.
D) decreases by 1.
E) increases by 4.
Q3) For the fusion of two deuterium atoms to produce helium-4,the difference in mass between products and reactants is -0.0256 u.What is E per mole of helium?
Q4) An \(\alpha\) particle is an example of a doubly magic nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why does the band of stability curve upward at high atomic number?
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Q1) The compound CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub>OCH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub> is
A) an alcohol.
B) an ester.
C) a ketone.
D) an aldehyde.
E) an ether.
Q2) Name the compound
CH<sub>3</sub>CH(CH<sub>3</sub>)CH(CH<sub>2</sub>CH<sub>3</sub>)C(CH<sub> 3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
A) 2,4,4-trimethyl-3-ethylpentane
B) 2,2,4-trimethyl-3-ethylpentane
C) Decane
D) 1,2-tetramethylpentane
E) 2,2-dimethyl-3-ethyl-4-methylpentane
Q3) The product of the hydrogenation of cis-2-butene is
A) 2-butyne
B) trans-butane
C) cis-butane
D) trans-2-butane
E) butane
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Q4) Name the compound (CH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub>CHCCCH<sub>3</sub>.