General Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
General Biology offers a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles that govern living systems. The course covers a wide range of biological topics, including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Students will explore how organisms interact with their environments, the mechanisms of heredity and variation, and the processes that drive biological change over time. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, the application of the scientific method, and the development of critical thinking skills in analyzing biological phenomena. This foundational course prepares students for advanced studies in the biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms that obtain energy by eating nutrients that make up other organisms are called
A) autotrophs.
B) consumers.
C) producers.
D) plants.
Answer: B
Q2) Scientific inquiry in biology is linked in a concept map with two sets of understanding researchers might pursue in experiments.Which of these is a good example of why concepts are linked between what is studied and how it might be studied?
A) A newly identified bacterium in African soils is found to promote plant growth that a researcher will study in crop production.
B) All of the answer choices are correct.
C) A research physician hypothesizes that a new skin therapy will result in healthier skin tissues for healing.
D) Environmental changes over recent decades have led to studies of whether specific plants and animals can adapt to the changes.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The four major groups of organic compounds are
A) carbohydrates, lipids, steroids, and monosaccharides.
B) lipids, fats, waxes, and steroids.
C) carbohydrates, proteins, amino acids, and nucleic acids.
D) carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids.
E) fats, waxes, carbohydrates, and amino acids.
Answer: D
Q2) In living cells,a process by which cells break polymers down into monomers by breaking covalent bonds is
A) hydrolysis.
B) dehydration synthesis.
C) reproduction.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: A
Q3) The bond that builds amino acid monomers into protein polymers is
A) a denatured hydrogen bond.
B) an ionic bond also known as a peptide bond.
C) a covalent bond also known as a peptide bond.
D) a primary structural bond.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the selective advantage of a mature red blood cell being flat rather than a sphere?
A) It provides more membrane for the electron transport chains where oxygen is consumed.
B) It maximizes the relative surface area available to exchange gasses.
C) The cell's surface area to volume will decrease, making it easier for the cell to fit through arteries and veins.
D) It provides more sites for the membrane-bound hemoglobin molecules which transport oxygen.
E) It saves energy by making more membrane relative to the volume of the cell.
Answer: B
Q2) What is the role of tubulin during mitosis in eukaryotic cells?
A) It is necessary for the cell to grow.
B) It pulls a cell's chromosomes apart during cell division.
C) It is necessary for the DNA to replicate.
D) It maintains cell shape with an internal scaffold structure.
E) It is used to bind some adjacent cells together in animal cell junctions.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Q1) If a cell has a greater concentration of solute than its environment,the cell
A) will not experience a net gain or loss of water.
B) is hypertonic to the environment.
C) will die.
D) is isotonic to the environment.
E) is hypotonic to the environment.
Q2) Turgor pressure in plant cells is
A) a result of the walled cell being in a hypotonic environment.
B) due in part to osmosis.
C) necessary to keep plants from wilting.
D) the force of water against the inside of the cell wall.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) At chemical equilibrium
A) there are no more products being formed.
B) the amount of reactants is equal to the amount of products.
C) reaction rates are in balance.
D) there are no more reactants for the cell to utilize.
E) no reactions are occurring in either direction.
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Q1) For most lawn grasses to grow well in hot,dry weather,they must be watered so that their stomata will remain open for longer periods of time to let in O<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The proportion of oxygen in our atmosphere today
A) has increased to 20% since before photosynthesis.
B) has remained about the same since the first organisms developed.
C) has decreased to 10%, from higher levels before photosynthesis.
D) increased rapidly since the development of water-splitting photosynthesis and eukaryotes.
E) has increased to 20%, including rapid increase since water-splitting photosynthesis and eukaryotes.
Q3) Rubisco combines ribulose bisphosphate with carbon from A) carbon dioxide.
B) carbon monoxide.
C) glucose.
D) organic compounds.
E) ATP.
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Q1) An example of a poison that kills by interfering with ATP production is A) All of the answer choices are correct.
B) carbon monoxide.
C) arsenic.
D) cyanide.
E) rotenone.
Q2) In eukaryotic cells the electron transport system occurs in the mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Only a small amount of ATP is produced during glycolysis because most of the energy stored in a glucose molecule remains in the bonds of A) carbon dioxide.
B) PGAL.
C) NADH.
D) pyruvate.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q4) Cellular aerobic respiration includes glycolysis,the Krebs cycle,and electron transport.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The step of translation in which amino acids are added one at a time to the growing polypeptide is
A) initiation.
B) transcription.
C) termination.
D) elongation.
E) mitosis.
Q2) The observation that all races of humans have the same FOXP2 allele is evidence that ____ favored this allele.
A) random chance
B) artificial selection
C) independent assortment
D) natural selection
E) recombination
Q3) In eukaryotes an mRNA molecule can only be translated by one ribosome at a time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A somatic mutation is a mutation that occurs in cells that give rise to gametes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication, mitosis, and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complement strands of DNA have the same exact nitrogen base sequence,providing the semiconservative replication needed by cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why don't plant cells form a cleavage furrow during cytokinesis?
A) because their cells don't divide after mitosis, but become one larger cell with multiple nuclei
B) because they don't have a cell membrane
C) because they have a cell wall
D) because they don't have a nucleus
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) A human heart cell contains ___ chromatids.
A) 4
B) 46
C) 23
D) 2
E) 16
Q4) A replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identical twins result from a single fertilization to form a zygote,which then splits into two genetically identical embryos.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In humans,specialized cells that produce gametes are A) germ cells.
B) All of the answer choices are correct.
C) somatic cells.
D) sperm cells.
E) egg cells.
Q3) The process that merges the gametes from two parents is A) conjugation.
B) mitosis.
C) meiosis.
D) parthenogenesis.
E) fertilization.
Q4) This DNA "fingerprint" shows bands of matching Tragopogon spp.DNA from the plant gamete cell nuclei.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) In the study of genetics,the offspring of the parental generation is referred to as the
A) F<sub>1</sub> generation.
B) F<sub>2</sub> generation.
C) homologous generation.
D) wild-type generation.
E) P generation.
Q2) A testcross is a mating of an individual with an unknown genotype and an individual that
A) is homozygous dominant.
B) has a known genotype.
C) is homozygous recessive.
D) is a wild-type.
E) is heterozygous.
Q3) Females who are carriers for hemophilia
A) theoretically pass the allele for hemophilia to half of their daughters.
B) All of the answer choices are correct.
C) theoretically pass the allele for hemophilia to half of their offspring.
D) usually do not show any symptoms of hemophilia.
E) theoretically pass the allele for hemophilia to half of their sons.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) When the genetic material of multiple organisms has been combined,it is called recombinant DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In medicine,agriculture,and conservation applications of biotechnology,the common genetic unit used is the
A) gene.
B) centromere.
C) nucleotide (nitrogen base).
D) chromatid.
E) allele.
Q3) The genetic molecular material that has been spliced together from multiple organisms is
A) RNA transcriptase.
B) a zygote.
C) any specific protein produced from a gene.
D) recombinant DNA.
E) both (either) RNA transcriptase, and any specific protein produced from a gene.
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Chapter 12: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Q1) Ancestors of giraffes with shorter necks could not reach branches high up in trees for food.This led to ____ for longer necked giraffes.
A) directional selection
B) disruptive selection
C) stabilizing selection
D) sexual selection
E) artificial selection
Q2) Historically fishermen kept larger fish and left smaller juvenile fish.Over time the average size of the fish would
A) remain unchanged.
B) decrease by natural selection.
C) decrease by genetic drift.
D) increase by genetic drift.
E) increase by natural selection.
Q3) Darwin believed that because of "differential reproductive success" a population would change over time.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) The common skeletal organization between two vertebrate animals,with bony limbs used for movement,is a example of analogous structures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The wing of a bat and an insect are examples of _____ structures.
A) analogous
B) homologous
C) homeotic
D) heterologous
E) vestigial
Q3) The abundant remains of ammonites in Oklahoma indicate that Oklahoma was
A) once covered by a shallow ocean.
B) part of a vast tropical forest.
C) once a part of a mountain range that has now eroded.
D) once a vast desert with almost no rainfall.
E) always a semi-arid grassland.
Q4) Dinosaurs devoloped,became diverse and eventually became extinct during the Paleozoic era.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria cannot be classified using the biological definition of a species for which reason?
A) Bacteria are asexual.
B) The DNA sequences of all bacteria are more than 97% identical.
C) Bacteria cannot reproduce.
D) Bacteria do not evolve.
E) Bacteria are present everywhere and cannot be reproductively isolated from other bacteria.
Q2) Lizards and mammals are proposed in this cladogram to be more closely related than lizards and birds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The idea that evolution proceeds with long periods of stasis with relatively brief bursts of fast evolutionary change is
A) gradualism.
B) punctuated equilibrium.
C) temporal equilibrium.
D) catastrophism.
E) temporal isolation.
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Chapter 15: The Origin and History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Precambrian supereon,in which life first appeared,and diversified to multicellular eukaryotes,lasted approximately ___ of the geologic timescale.
A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 85%
D) None of the answer choices are correct.
E) 15%
Q2) Why do scientists hypothesize that RNA was the first form of genetic material?
A) RNA can catalyze reactions and store genetic information.
B) RNA can catalyze reactions and form membranes.
C) RNA can catalyze reactions.
D) RNA can store genetic information and form membranes.
E) RNA can store genetic information.
Q3) Humans and chimps are both able to
A) communicate.
B) use tools and communicate.
C) walk upright.
D) walk upright and use tools.
E) use tools.
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Chapter 16: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral DNA inserted into a chromosome of the host is a
A) phage.
B) reservoir.
C) prophage.
D) carrier.
E) progenote.
Q2) Most scientific evidence points to the HIV viruses originating in Africa.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the genetic material found in HIV?
A) lipid
B) carbohydrate
C) DNA
D) RNA
E) protein
Q4) Many viruses are inhibited by antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Botox is a toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum.When ingested with tainted food,botox can cause distress by paralyzing the intestines,and,in high doses,can kill by paralyzing muscles needed for breathing and heartbeat.Why would botox be an adaptation for Clostridium botulinum?
A) Botox allows the bacteria to gain more food.
B) Botox allows the bacteria to gain more oxygen.
C) Botox prevents antibiotics from entering the gut.
D) Botox prevents the intestines from removing the bacteria.
E) Botox prevents other bacteria from entering the gut.
Q2) Pili are bacterial structures used primarily for motility.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Escherichia coli and Salmonella can live in our intestines in the presence or absence of oxygen.They are considered which of the following?
A) facultative anaerobes
B) autotrophs
C) aerobic
D) obligate anaerobes
E) phototrophs
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Chapter 18: Protists
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Q1) Protists can be autotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) African sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma brucei,a unicellular flagellated protist that infects red blood cells after being injected into the bloodstream.Trypanosoma brucei is which of the following?
A) an apicomplexan
B) an alga
C) a diatom
D) a protozoan
E) a slime mold
Q3) In malaria,Plasmodium falciparum grow inside of human cells.As such,they are which of the following?
A) autotrophs and phototrophs
B) phototrophs
C) autotrophs
D) heterotrophs and autotrophs
E) heterotrophs
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Chapter 19: Plants
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Q1) The adaptations that are most responsible for gymnosperms and angiosperms being able to live and reproduce in much drier habitats than bryophytes and plants such as club mosses are the production of A) seeds, spores, and fronds.
B) All of the answer choices are correct.
C) spores and gemmae.
D) vascular tissue, spores, fronds, and gemmae.
E) pollen grains and seeds.
Q2) The part of the vascular plant that transports sugars produced by photosynthesis to the nongreen parts of the plant is the A) phloem.
B) cuticle.
C) stomata.
D) root.
E) xylem.
Q3) Stomata allow plants to exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following is a difference between how a frog and Chytridiomycetes obtain energy?
A) Frogs are heterotrophs, while Chytridiomycetes are phototrophs.
B) Frogs ingest their food, while Chytridiomycetes secrete digestive enzymes into the environment and absorb nutrients.
C) Chytridiomycetes are heterotrophs, while frogs are phototrophs.
D) Frogs are autotrophs, while Chytridiomycetes are phototrophs.
E) Chytridiomycetes ingest their food, while frogs secrete digestive enzymes into the environment and absorb nutrients.
Q2) The familiar growth form represented by edible mushrooms,as well as some poisonous mushrooms,is associated with the ______ phylum.
A) glomeromycetes
B) basidiomycetes
C) zygomycetes
D) ascomycetes
E) chytridiomycetes
Q3) A yeast is a multicellular fungus.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Animals
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Q1) In animals,a sphere of embryonic cells surrounding a fluid-filled cavity is called a A) coelom.
B) gastrovascular cavity.
C) hydrostatic skeleton.
D) blastula.
E) gastrula.
Q2) A surviving member of the lobe-finned fishes is the A) ray.
B) lamprey.
C) lungfish.
D) ostracoderm.
E) eel.
Q3) Mammals that lay eggs are marsupials.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some animals are autotrophs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Veins are the vascular bundles inside of a leaf.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While observing plants that you and your class collected around campus,you observe that in many plants,one or more leaves attach at common points on the stem.This point on each plant is the A) axillary bud.
B) internode.
C) sieve plate.
D) petiole.
E) node.
Q3) Root hairs greatly increase the absorptive surface area of a root.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The main vegetative parts of plants include
A) fruits, flowers, and leaves.
B) flowers and fruits only.
C) roots, flowers, and stems.
D) roots, stems, and leaves.
E) stems, roots, flowers, leaves, and fruits.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) Carnivorous plants exist only in science fiction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Carnivorous plants like Sarracenia purpurea are which of the following?
A) producers
B) consumers
C) producers and detritivores
D) producers and consumers
E) detritivores
Q3) The waxy _____ ensures that all of the water coming into a root moves into the xylem.
A) cuticle
B) epidermis
C) Casparian strip
D) sieve tubes
E) companion cells
Q4) The B horizon soil consists of most of the humus found in soil.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) Abscisic acid is a plant hormone that activates a plant's defenses against predators.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where are floral megaspores located?
A) anther
B) ovule
C) sepal
D) stigma
E) corolla
Q3) Whorl two of a flower is made up of the
A) male parts of a flower.
B) female parts of a flower.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) stem region.
Q4) Gymnosperms are the flowering plants.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) The germ layer called the endoderm produces all of A) the heart.
B) the nervous system.
C) the lining of the digestive tract.
D) bone.
E) muscles.
Q2) An organ is defined as consisting of two or more interacting tissues.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Instead of the interstitial fluid being a solution bathing the cells of the body it is
A) an extension of the external environment into the body
B) a solution, modified by multiple organs, which bathes cells in appropriate concentrations of salts
C) part of the blood
D) a product of the spleen
E) fluid which leaks out of cells and is continually reabsorbed
Q4) Both loose and dense connective tissue contain fibroblasts.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: The Nervous System
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Q1) The division of the nervous system that integrates sensory information and coordinates the body's response is the _____ nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) central
C) somatic
D) autonomic
E) sympathetic
Q2) If you were asked to point to the site in the brain which controls automatic functions like breathing,you would put your finger on a picture of the brain at the
A) cerebellum.
B) hypothalamus.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) pons.
E) cerebrum.
Q3) A typical neuron consists of a cell body,dendrites,and an axon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Senses
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Q1) All animal eyes have a macula.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which sense uses receptors from a class outside the mechanoreceptors?
A) hearing
B) touch
C) taste
D) equilibrium
Q3) When you hear the waves,which of the following is being activated?
A) mechanoreceptor
B) thermoreceptor
C) photoreceptor
D) proprioreceptor
E) chemoreceptor
Q4) Insects have compound eyes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Rod cells provide color vision and allow us to see at night.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Endocrine System
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Q1) The hormone that primarily maintains the composition of body fluids is
A) antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B) prolactin.
C) oxytocin.
D) luteinizing hormone (LH).
E) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
Q2) Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone have effects which generally oppose one another.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is an endocrine gland?
A) pancreas
B) thyroid gland
C) ovaries
D) testes
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q4) The hypothalamus is both part of the brain/central nervous system and part of the endocrine system.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) If you had a patient whose body produced a large excess of calcitonin,which skeletal function would be first to be impaired?
A) support
B) movement
C) protection of internal structures
D) mineral storage
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) Connective tissue of the musculoskeletal system includes A) ligaments.
B) bone.
C) cartilage.
D) tendons.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) A thin filament of muscle is composed primarily of the protein A) hemoglobin.
B) myosin.
C) myoglobin.
D) actin.
E) pectin.
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Chapter 30: The Circulatory System
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Q1) The relative thickness of vessel walls,from greatest to least,is: artery,vein,capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cardiac output may be increased by a
A) greater-than-normal heart rate.
B) lower-than-normal stroke volume.
C) lower-than-normal stroke volume and heart rate.
D) greater-than-normal stroke volume.
E) greater-than-normal stroke volume and heart rate.
Q3) In lab,you are asked to decide what stain to use to examine certain cells in a blood sample.These cells will be full of bacteria that cells are destroying,so you pick a stain specific for
A) erythrocytes.
B) chondrocytes.
C) platelets.
D) leukocytes.
E) osteocytes.
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32
Chapter 31: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Olfaction is the sense of
A) smell.
B) hearing.
C) taste.
D) vision.
E) touch.
Q2) The pH of blood is usually maintained at about A) 5.2.
B) 6.4.
C) 6.8.
D) 7.4.
E) 8.6.
Q3) The _________________ nervous system controls the contraction of __________________ in the wall of the bronchioles,thereby adjusting airflow in response to metabolic demands.
A) autonomic; skeletal muscle
B) autonomic; smooth muscle
C) somatic; skeletal muscle
D) somatic; smooth muscle
E) autonomic; cartilage
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autotrophs make their own food using energy captured from the sun.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If a doctor designs an operation intended to help victims of stomach cancer who have lost most of their stomachs by fusing the remaining stomach tissue with the esophagus,the main problem is likely to be damage to the esophageal tissue from stomach acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If the side effect of a drug was to disrupt homeostasis of vitamin C,leading to its premature breakdown and insufficent concentration,scurvy could result.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Phenotypic plasticity is seen when a trait such as intestine length can vary depending on the conditions under which an organism develops.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dilation of blood vessels in extremities can help animals lose excess heat as part of thermoregulation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Freshwater fish lose water by osmosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are working with a patient who has been poisoned.You note elevated blood pressure,and tissue biopsies of the patient's liver show extra sodium channels in the kidney,so you suspect that the patient has been given
A) epinephrine.
B) aldosterone.
C) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
D) insulin.
E) testosterone.
Q4) Alcohol reduces ADH secretion which in turn does which of the following?
A) decreases tubule permeability to water and thus increases urine volume
B) decreases tubule permeability to water and thus decreases urine volume
C) increases tubule permeability to water and thus increases urine volume
D) increases tubule permeability to water and thus decreases urine volume
Page 35
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Chapter 34: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you were asked to plan a genetic modification of cows to increase production of macrophages,you would want to do something to increase production of the cell type known as the
A) lymphocyte.
B) basophil.
C) eosinophil.
D) monocyte.
E) neutrophil.
Q2) What is the hygiene hypothesis?
A) People who have more exposure to infectious agents will have an overactive immune system.
B) People who have less exposure to infectious agents will have an overactive immune system.
C) People who have better hygiene and are cleaner will have a weaker immune system.
D) People who have better hygiene and are cleaner will have more infections.
E) People who have better hygiene and are cleaner will have fewer infections.
Q3) Secondary immune responses depend on and follow primary immune responses.
A)True
B)False
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) No matter what else occurred,pregnancy would be impossible if a woman lost her A) ovary.
B) pubic symphysis.
C) vagina.
D) uterus.
E) vulva.
Q2) Substances that cause birth defects are collectively called A) androgens.
B) prostaglandins.
C) teratogens.
D) follicle-stimulating hormones.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) If you were grading an exam on which a student had drawn and labelled a sperm cell,which label would lead to a loss of points?
A) flagellum
B) cilia
C) nucleus
D) acrosome
E) mitochondrion
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studying the Sepia apama cuttlefish,Hanlon,Naud,and their colleagues observed that most success in producing fertilized eggs was attributed to the males guarding mated females from subsequent mating attempts by other males.What additional behavior contributed to successful production of fertilized eggs?
A) As opportunistic hermaphrodites, smaller males were able to mate and reproduce as females.
B) All of the answer choices are correct.
C) Smaller, less aggressive males used mimicry of females to approach guarded females repeated times in attempts to mate.
D) Smaller males distracted larger males for more than 40 minutes, past the viability of their sperm, and then the smaller males mated with the females.
E) The sparse population density of Sepia apama cuttlefish results in lower but equal reproductive successes among smaller and less aggressive males.
Q2) The type of animal behavior that is inborn and does not require experience or learning to be performed correctly is innate behavior.
A)True
B)False
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The United Nations issued a highest projection of the global human population in 2100 to be 15.8 billion people.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The study of the factors that influence changes in a population's size is
A) population dynamics.
B) population geology.
C) population dispersion.
D) population density.
E) population ethology.
Q3) In a survivorship curve,a type III species,like most insects and plants,is a species that has
A) an extremely long life span.
B) an equal probability of dying at any age.
C) the highest probability of dying at a very young age.
D) a strong possibility of becoming extinct in a relatively short period of time.
E) the highest probability of dying as it reaches its maximum life span.
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Chapter 38: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When two or more species vie for the same limited resource,_____ occurs.
A) competition
B) succession
C) stotting
D) symbiosis
E) coevolution
Q2) The species that appear in a climax community usually are short-lived,early-maturing,r-selected species that are strong competitors in a changing environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A state or national park in your area conserves natural wildlife and plant florae in a community that remains fairly constant over time.This is an example of _____.
A) species evenness
B) competitive exclusion
C) commensalism
D) an apparent climax community
E) succession
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Chapter 39: Biomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you moved plants from a desert-like white sand area north of Perth,Australia,to a moist-soiled forest south of Perth,what would probably happen?
A) The plants would probably do poorly since the two biomes are so different.
B) The plants would probably become weeds.
C) The plants would probably switch to asexual reproduction.
D) The plants would probably find different pollinators.
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q2) At the equator,the earth receives the _____ amount of solar radiation _____.
A) maximum; per unit area
B) minimum; per unit area
C) maximum; only over the ocean
D) maximum; only over the land mass
Q3) All deserts are characterized by being hot and dry.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The rain shadow of a mountain is found on the downwind side of the mountain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Preserving Biodiversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary cause for loss of biodiversity is
A) predation.
B) parasitism.
C) genetic mutation.
D) habitat destruction.
E) global warming.
Q2) Which of the following is an important invasive species?
A) Sumatran rhino
B) California condor
C) zebra mussel
D) Northern bluefin tuna
E) green pitcher plant
Q3) How does damming or altering the path of a river destroy wetlands?
A) Fish can no longer migrate up and down the river.
B) Wetlands can no longer obtain nutrients from annual floods.
C) Wetlands can no longer obtain oxygen from the flowing water of the river.
D) Birds can no longer get to the wetlands.
E) Increased nutrients flow into the wetlands, causing eutrophication.
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