
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of the biological sciences. This course covers a wide range of topics including cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, biological molecules, energy production and utilization, and the interactions between organisms and their environments. Through lectures, laboratory work, and discussions, students acquire a foundational understanding of biological processes that underpin life, preparing them for further study in advanced biological and health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Q1) Often found in extreme environments while having no nucleus,this domain is closer genetically to eukarya.
A)archaea
B)bacteria
C)eukarya
D)plantae
E)fungi
F)animalia
G)protists
Answer: A
Q2) All of the following are used to construct a theory with one exception.Select the exception.
A) repetitions of experiments.
B) increased observations.
C) time.
D) faith.
E) confirmation by many scientists.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following inventions led to trans fats being marketed as a solid cooking fat?
A) the electric light
B) the telephone
C) the automobile
D) the microwave oven
E) the refrigerator
Answer: A
Q2) Cellulose is
A) the most complex of the organic compounds.
B) a polymer of glucose and fructose.
C) a polymer of glucose and galactose.
D) a component of plasma membranes.
E) a material found in plant cell walls.
Answer: E
Q3) the two units that combine in various ways to form lipids
Answer: J
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Q1) An organelle that finishes a protein and packages it for export is a
A) lysosome
B) Golgi body
C) peroxisome
D) smooth ER
E) rough ER
Answer: B
Q2) The cellular digestion and disposal of biological molecules occur inside this organelle.
A)nucleus
B)mitochondrion
C)lysosome
D)Golgi body
E)rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C
Q3) cell wall

Answer: C
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Q1) the currency in a cell's economy
Q2) Energy inputs and outputs in chemical reactions are explained by
A) the first law of thermodynamics.
B) the second law of thermodynamics.
C) the cell theory.
D) the theory of evolution.
E) the big bang theory.
Q3) molecule remaining at the end of a reaction
Q4) Alcohol dehydrogenase converts ethanol to
A) acetaldehyde.
B) acetate.
C) carbon dioxide.
D) acetate and acetaldehyde.
E) acetate and carbon dioxide.
Q5) To engulf a bacterium,a white blood cell would use
A) facilitated diffusion
B) osmosis
C) phagocytosis
D) exocytosis
E) sodium-potassium pumps

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Q1) ATP is formed when ____ the thylakoid compartment.
A) hydrogen ions enter
B) hydrogen ions leave
C) electrons leave
D) electrons enter
E) water is split in
Q2) Light travels from space to earth
A) in circle lines.
B) in straight lines.
C) in waves.
D) in circle and straight lines.
E) in circle lines and in waves.
Q3) results in the formation of ATP,NADH,and CO?
Q4) For glycolysis to occur,
A) glucose must enter the mitochondria.
B) there must be an input of energy from ATP.
C) oxygen must be available.
D) ATP syntase must be activated.
E) heat must be supplied.
Q5) pathway used by white muscle fibers
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Q1) this mutagen transfers methyl groups to nucleotide bases in DNA
Q2) DNA varies from species to species in
A) how much adenine binds with thymine rather than with cytosine.
B) whether DNA is a double or a single helix.
C) the variation in the backbone structure.
D) how many different bases it contains.
E) its sequence of DNA base-pairs.
Q3) What does ionizing radiation cause in DNA?
A) faster replication
B) the formation of nucleotide dimers
C) kinks in the DNA molecule
D) breaks in the DNA molecule
E) base pair mismatching
Q4) In DNA molecules,
A) the nucleotides are arranged in a linear, unbranched pattern.
B) the nitrogenous bases are found on the outside of the molecule.
C) the phosphate-sugar pattern runs the same way on each DNA strand.
D) the backbone is internal to the molecule.
E) the pairing of bases is non-specific.
Q5) breakdown products of this mutagen binds irreversibly to DNA
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Q1) complex with proteins to form ribosomes
Q2) Which of the following is true of a methylation?
A) the particular methylation is passed on in mitosis
B) chemicals in cigarette smoke remove methyl groups
C) methylation is never a random event
D) histones are immune to methylation
E) methylation is always harmful
Q3) Mutations can be
A) neutral.
B) beneficial.
C) lethal.
D) heritable.
E) all of these.
Q4) Which of the following NOT a protection from most mutations?
A) very few bases actually change
B) the genetic code is redundant
C) most of our DNA is non-coding
D) genes contain non-coding regions
E) all of these protect us from mutations
Q5) a mRNA code for one amino acid
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Q1) HeLa's cells were critical in
A) the development of polio vaccines.
B) developing a cure for malaria.
C) understanding fertilization.
D) the development of a cervical vaccine.
E) more than one of these.
Q2) If a eukaryotic cell divided by binary fission,
A) only one of its offspring would get the nucleus.
B) only one of its offspring would get a complete cytoplasm.
C) only sperm would be produced.
D) only eggs would be produced.
E) the chromosome number would be halved.
Q3) An oncogene is
A) a normal gene that promotes mitosis.
B) a gene that codes for a growth factor that stimulates cell division.
C) a gene that codes for tumor suppressing proteins.
D) a mutated gene that results in tumors.
E) more than one of these.
Q4) period in which metaphase occurs
Q5) the beginning of interphase
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Q1) In the figure above,what would be the genotype of plant #9?
A) Aabb
B) aaBb
C) AaBB
D) AABB
E) aaBB
Q2) If a pure-breeding wired-hair terrier (WW)is crossed with a pure-breeding smooth-hair terrier (ww),and a puppy with a wavy hair is produced,the simplest explanation is
A) a mutation.
B) an X-linked gene.
C) an incompletely dominant gene.
D) a lethal gene.
E) codominance.
Q3) The ABO blood types have ____ different genotypes.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 12
E) 16
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Q1) Which of the following molecules are able to cut DNA molecules at specific sequences?
A) assembly enzymes
B) hydrolytic enzymes
C) restriction enzymes
D) ligase enzymes
E) repair enzymes
Q2) replacing diseased organs with healthy ones from other species
Q3) Which of the following organisms is (are)easily modified by genetic engineering?
A) bacteria and yeasts
B) bacteria and mice
C) yeasts and mice
D) molds and mice
E) humans
Q4) Currently,the only possible cure for genetic disorders is
A) genetically modified drugs.
B) xenotransplantation.
C) whole genome replacement.
D) gene therapy.
E) GMOs.

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Q1) Typically,where would we expect to find older fossils?
A) superficial layer of the Earth
B) deep layer of the Earth
C) both layers will have old fossils
D) neither layer will have old fossils
E) none of these
Q2) The study of the distribution of plants and animals around the Earth is called
A) comparative morphology.
B) botany.
C) biogeography.
D) geology.
E) paleontology.
Q3) When measuring the age of a fossil using Carbon dating,what is the oldest age that a fossil can be?
A) 2.2 million years old
B) 200,000 years old
C) 85,000 years old
D) 72,000 years old
E) 60,000 years old
Q4) Wallace

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Q1) What event will increase the frequency of a mutation in a population over time?
A) fitness
B) natural selection
C) artificial selection
D) adaptive radiation
E) none of these
Q2) When allele frequency changes,a population is said to no longer be in
A) genetic equilibrium.
B) isolation.
C) upheaval.
D) fluctuation.
E) transition.
Q3) ____ is a random change in allele frequency over time that is brought about by chance.
A) Genetic drift
B) Gene flow
C) Natural selection
D) Disruptive selection
E) Balanced polymorphism
Q4) an example is flowering plants and their pollinators
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Q1) Two researchers suggested in the 1960s that ____ may have been the first informational molecule.
A) DNA
B) a protein
C) RNA
D) a saccharide
E) a peptide
Q2) How do viruses differ from all other microorganisms?
A) they do not evolve
B) they have no nucleus
C) they are non-cellular
D) they are pathogens
E) more than one of these is a difference between viruses and all other microorganisms
Q3) makes its own carbohydrates
Q4) cause of red tide
Q5) This group of protozoans has no locomotor organelles.
Q6) multicelled protist able to live in deep ocean water
Q7) thrives in high salt conditions
Q8) weapon used against pathogenic bacteria
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Q1) Which of the following lists is the correct proposed sequence in the evolution of plants?
A) angiosperms >>> bryophytes >>> seedless vascular plants >>> gymnosperms
B) bryophytes >>> seedless vascular plants >>> gymnosperms >>> angiosperms
C) gymnosperms >>> angiosperms >>> bryophytes >>> seedless vascular plants
D) seedless vascular plants >>> gymnosperms >>> bryophytes >>> angiosperms
E) gymnosperms >>> bryophytes >>> angiosperms >>> seedless vascular plants
Q2) Which of the following structures in the life cycle of a plant are diploid?
A) spores
B) gametophytes
C) gametes
D) sporophytes
E) all of these are diploid
Q3) A pine tree is
A) an angiosperm.
B) a haploid plant body.
C) a sporophyte.
D) a living fossil.
E) a gametophyte.
Q4) seed plant with seeds that do not contain endosperm
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Q1) The ___ model of human origins is supported by genetic studies.
A) replacement
B) multiregional
C) transitional
D) relational
E) allopatric
Q2) This animal as an adult has radial symmetry,an internal skeleton,fluid-filled feet,and is a deuterostome.This animal is ___.
A) a sea star
B) a jellyfish
C) a slug
D) an isopod
E) more than one of these
Q3) Humans are least closely related to the A) chimpanzee.
B) orangutan.
C) gorilla.
D) tarsier.
E) gibbon.
Q4) the last population of this species went extinct 28,000 years ago
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Q1) A cohort is
A) a collection of same-aged individuals of the same species.
B) any member of the same species.
C) any member of the same species and sex within a population.
D) a sexual mate.
E) a litter mate or sibling within a large population.
Q2) In a population of Asian elephants,the death rate equals the birth rate.This population has
A) reached its biotic potential.
B) achieved zero population growth.
C) not exceeded its carrying capacity.
D) exponential growth.
E) geometric growth.
Q3) Which of the following is a density-dependent factor that would control the size of a population?
A) wind velocity
B) light intensity
C) resource availability
D) rainfall
E) wave action in an intertidal zone
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Q1) Two species of closely related squirrels both feed on acorns produced by oak trees.One species feed exclusively near the top of the tree and the other feeds exclusively towards the bottom of the tree.This is an example of A) competitive exclusion.
B) resource partitioning. C) mutualism.
D) commensalism.
E) mimicry.
Q2) A wolf and a fox live in the same community.The primary prey for both of them are rabbits.
Q3) primary consumer
Q4) Detritivores are A) bacteria. B) plants.
C) fungi.
D) animals.
E) more than one of these.
Q5) spotted owls eating mice
Q6) primary consumers
Q7) second-level consumer
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Q1) The conversion of grasslands or woodlands to desert-like conditions is called
A) desertification.
B) bleaching.
C) eutrophication.
D) deforestation.
E) degrassification.
Q2) Which of the following represents an example of climate?
A) July 20, 1930 was the hottest day on record in Washington, DC
B) April 14th, 1921 Silver Lake, Colorado received 1.7 meters of snow
C) the rainfall in Seattle, Washington on July 4, 2010 was 2 centimeters
D) the average summer temperature in Miami, Florida is 27 Celsius
E) none of these are an example of climate
Q3) The Earth's orbit shifts approximately every ___ years.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 100,000
D) 1,000,000
E) 1,000,000,000
Q4) youngest of all the biomes
Q5) found on the ocean floor
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Q1) Which factor would most likely lead to hypothermia?
A) cutting the grass
B) exercising
C) falling through the ice
D) getting the flu
E) none of these
Q2) allows substances to cross by diffusion
Q3) brain
Q4) What tissue type makes up the outer layer of the skin?
A) simple squamous
B) simple cuboidal
C) stratified columnar
D) simple columnar
E) stratified squamous
Q5) cells appear to be flattened
Q6) Controls and coordinates responses to stimuli
Q7) lines the kidneys
Q8) connective tissue that is involved in transport of nutrients
Q9) Defends against infection and tissue damage
Q10) Removes carbon dioxide and wastes; receives and delivers oxygen Page 21
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Q1) In a muscle contraction,what specifically is the role of calcium?
A) it causes the hydrolysis of ATP
B) it connects actin with myosin to form a cross-bridge
C) it causes the uncovering of the myosin binding site on actin
D) it catalyzes the formation of ATP from ADP and Pi
E) it causes the release of Pi from the myosin head
Q2) contains pads or discs that connect bones
Q3) ball-and-socket is a type of this kind of joint
Q4) connective tissue holds bones of these joints together
Q5) Which of the following is NOT found in white muscle fibers?
A) stored ATP
B) creatine phosphate
C) myoglobin
D) hemoglobin
E) more than one of these
Q6) composed of lightweight tissues with internal spaces
Q7) ligaments hold bones of these together
Q8) soft-bodied invertebrates have this type of skeleton
Q9) type of bony internal skeleton
Q10) fluid filled chamber Page 23
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Q1) As blood leaves the heart,which of the following is the correct order of vessels traveled?
A) vein, arteries, capillaries, venules, arterioles
B) arteries, veins, capillaries, arterioles, venules
C) arteries, capillaries, arterioles, venules, veins
D) arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
E) veins, venules, capillaries, arterioles, arteries
Q2) Systolic pressure measures
A) the contracting force of the ventricles.
B) the pressure of fully relaxed ventricles.
C) the contracting force of the atria.
D) the pressure of fully relaxed atria.
E) the contracting force of the entire heart.
Q3) As blood flows through a capillary bed,
A) blood pressure increases.
B) blood pressure remains constant.
C) blood pressure decreases.
D) blood doesn't move through capillaries.
E) none of these occur.
Q4) the windpipe
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Q1) HIV can be transmitted by
A) unprotected sex.
B) sharing needles.
C) mother to infant during pregnancy.
D) mother to infant during breast feeding.
E) all of these.
Q2) What was Frankie's last wish?
A) that young women have a yearly PAP test
B) to not assume youth is a protection against cervical cancer
C) to tell young women that cancer does not discriminate
D) awareness
E) all of these were a part of Frankie's last wish
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the evolution of immunity?
A) immunity evolved before there were multicelled eukaryotes
B) nonself recognition evolved about 1 billion years ago
C) innate immunity evolved out of adaptive immunity
D) ways of indentifying "self" evolved after multicelled eukaryotes evolved
E) more than one of these statements is NOT true about the evolution of immunity
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Q1) What might a disruption of the stomach's protective mucus layer give rise to?
A) acid reflux
B) ulcers
C) peristalsis
D) heart burn
E) none of these
Q2) Throughout the digestive tube are a number of sphincters.The first sphincter encountered by food being digested is between the ___ and the ___.
A) esophagus --stomach
B) pharynx--esophagus
C) stomach--small intestine
D) small intestine--large intestine
E) colon--rectum
Q3) Where is the epiglottis located?
A) above the pharynx
B) below the pharynx
C) below the larynx
D) below the esophagus
E) in the middle of the pharynx
Q4) the process associated with kidney tubule cups and capillary clusters
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Q1) The order of signal transmission beginning with a stimulus is from
A) sensory neuron to interneuron to motor neuron.
B) motor neuron to sensory neuron to interneuron.
C) interneuron to sensory neuron to motor neuron.
D) sensory neuron to motor neuron to interneuron.
E) motor neuron to interneuron to sensory neuron.
Q2) Referring to the above diagram of the brain,D identifies which lobe of the cerebrum?
A) frontal lobe
B) parietal lobe
C) occipital lobe
D) temporal lobe
E) primary motor cortex
Q3) unevenly curved cornea
Q4) works with the pituitary to maintain homeostatic control
Q5) nicotine blocks receptors for this neurotransmitter
Q6) ciliary muscles react too strongly
Q7) coordinates motor activity for moving limbs and maintaining posture
Q8) a shortage of this neurotransmitter causes Parkinson's disease
Q9) relays sensory signals to and from cerebral cortex
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Q1) Which choice is FALSE about Addison's disease?
A) It could be caused by low cortisol levels.
B) It could be caused by tuberculosis.
C) It could be caused by an autoimmune condition.
D) Blood pressure and blood sugar levels can fall into life-threatening range.
E) The condition is treated with synthetic aldosterone.
Q2) Makes and secretes thyroid stimulating hormone
Q3) If you eliminated all sources of calcium (dairy products,some vegetables)from your diet,the level of which of the following would rise in an attempt to supply calcium stored in your body to the tissues that need it?
A) aldosterone
B) calcitonin
C) mineralocorticoids
D) parathyroid hormone
E) GH
Q4) Cushing's syndrome
Q5) This hormone induces protein synthesis and cell division in young animals.
Q6) cAMP
Q7) The mammary glands are the target for this hormone.
Q8) adrenal medulla
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Q1) By the end of the fourth week the embryo is ____ times larger than its starting size.
A) 100
B) 200
C) 300
D) 400
E) 500
Q2) The membrane that contacts the endometrium of the uterus is the
A) amnion.
B) allantois.
C) chorion.
D) yolk sac.
E) umbilical cord.
Q3) In what stage of a pregnancy are drugs used to induce an abortion?
A) the first nine weeks
B) the first twelve weeks
C) the first 24 weeks
D) up until the 30th week
E) throughout the entire pregnancy
Q4) Sperm are stored to allow for maturation in the structure at letter ________.
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Q1) periderm
Q2) plasmodesmata are involved in this process
Q3) A cotyledon is which of the following?
A) embryonic root
B) seed cover
C) flower part
D) an embryonic leaf
E) fruit
Q4) xylem
Q5) Four of the five answers listed below are characteristics of xylem.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) dead at maturity
B) cell walls are impregnated with lignin
C) conducts dissolved sugars
D) includes tracheids and vessels
E) has pits in the walls of the cells
Q6) This tissue gives rise to the protective covering that forms the bark of a tree.
Q7) plant tissue involved in regeneration following a wound
Q8) leaves wrap around the stem
Q9) potatoes are examples

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Q1) A flower is sweet smelling and reflects UV light.This flower is likely ___ pollinated.
A) bee
B) hummingbird
C) bat
D) fly
E) wind
Q2) Pollen grains are produced directly by
A) carpels.
B) mitosis.
C) meiosis.
D) stigmas.
E) pollen sacs.
Q3) What do gametes,spores,and gametophyte generations have in common?
A) They are all diploid.
B) They are all haploid.
C) They are limited to vascular plants.
D) They have nothing in common.
E) They are asexual structures.
Q4) stimulates cell division in shoot apical meristems
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