General Biology Study Guide Questions
Course
Introduction
General Biology provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of life and living organisms. Topics include cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of plants, animals, and microorganisms. The course emphasizes the scientific method, biological processes, and the relationship between organisms and their environments, providing a solid foundation for further studies in the biological sciences. Laboratory and practical components often accompany this course, reinforcing theoretical concepts through hands-on experimentation and observation.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology 6th Edition by Anu Singh
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following features is LEAST likely to be used to define a biome?
A) shared physical characteristics
B) the presence or absence of humans
C) a distinctive community of organisms
D) the climate
Answer: B
Q2) The basic unit of life is the
A) cell.
B) organ.
C) organelle.
D) tissue.
Answer: A
Q3) An organ is defined as a body structure composed of two or more
A) molecules.
B) cells.
C) tissues.
D) organ systems.
Answer: C
Q4) The scientific method begins with ________.
Answer: observations
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Molecules that are nonpolar and repelled by water are called ________.
Answer: hydrophobic
Q2) The number that represents neutrality on the pH scale is ________.
Answer: 7
Q3) The monomers that are linked together to form a DNA polymer are called ________.
Answer: nucleotides
Q4) One of the symptoms of kidney disease is the presence of proteins in a patient's urine.To quickly test for kidney disease using a urine sample,a doctor might add a chemical that causes a color change when A) nitrogen is present,but not oxygen.
B) nitrogen is present,but not phosphorus.
C) only oxygen and hydrogen are present.
D) only carbon and hydrogen are present.
Answer: B
Q5) Phospholipids are found in cell membranes.
A)True B)False
Answer: True
Q6) The uncharged component in the core of an atom is a(n)________.
Answer: neutron
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inner membranes of both mitochondria and chloroplasts are folded into various arrangements.What is the advantage of having a folded membrane rather than a simple interior membrane that follows the same oval shape as the exterior membrane?
A) The folds in the membranes are a physical barrier against compounds attempting to enter the organelle.
B) The folds allow for more surface area for the chemical reactions that occur across the inner membranes.
C) The folds allow these organelles to interact more efficiently with Golgi bodies.
D) The folds cause a necessary change in the organelle's internal pH.
Answer: B
Q2) Prokaryotic cells are generally larger than eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Microtubules are composed of tubulin monomers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Which of the following statements about hormones is FALSE?
A) They are not used in the part of the body where they are produced.
B) They are long-range signaling molecules.
C) They are not used by multicellular organisms.
D) They are transported in an organism by fluids.
Q2) The principle of cell ________ is that different cells in the same organism may have different functions.
Q3) Objects suspended in the extracellular fluid can cross the plasma membrane and enter a cell by all of the following processes,EXCEPT
A) pinocytosis.
B) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
C) phagocytosis.
D) osmosis.
Q4) Which of the following would directly supply energy to an active carrier protein?
A) starch
B) sugars
C) ATP
D) fatty acids
Page 6
Q5) Water moves across a membrane from a hypotonic solution to a ________ solution.
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) According to the ________ model,an enzyme's active site will adjust its shape to mold around a substrate after binding to that substrate.
Q2) Which of the following organisms is NOT an ectotherm?
A) a snake
B) a lizard
C) most insects
D) a skunk
Q3) Which of the following statements about the role of enzymes in chemical reactions is true?
A) An enzyme can be used for many different kinds of chemical reactions.
B) An enzyme is permanently changed during a chemical reaction.
C) An enzyme has a special site where the products bind before the reaction begins.
D) An enzyme lowers the activation energy of a particular reaction.
Q4) Almost all the chemical reactions that occur in cells are catalyzed by ________.
Q5) An enzyme and its substrate find each other by
A) chance encounter.
B) magnetic attraction.
C) catalysis.
D) oxidative reactions.
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Chapter 6: Photosynthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) A fermentation pathway is an oxidative pathway in which the electrons that are released from a nutrient molecule are transferred to molecules created by the catabolism of the nutrient.In lactic acid fermentation,what molecule receives electrons?
A) pyruvate
B) glucose
C) lactic acid
D) ethanol
Q2) In mitochondria,the energy that electrons release as they move through the electron transport chain is used to transport
A) electrons from the thylakoid matrix to the cytosol.
B) acetyl CoA into the Krebs cycle.
C) protons into the mitochondrial intermembrane space.
D) pyruvate into the first reaction of glycolysis.
Q3) When yeasts are exposed to anaerobic conditions,they regenerate NAD<sup>+ </sup>from NADH in a series of reactions that make CO<sub>2</sub> and ________.
Q4) The conversion of inorganic carbon from air into the carbon atoms found in all living organisms is known as carbon ________.
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are examining the rapidly dividing cells of an onion root tip and you see a cell whose chromosomes are visible and arranged in approximately the same shape and size as the nucleus.What stage of mitosis is this cell in?
A) metaphase
B) prophase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
Q2) After a single cell undergoes meiosis in a male,how many sperm cells will be produced?
A) two
B) four
C) 12
D) 16
Q3) By the time a cell enters meiosis II,it has A) become haploid.
B) re-formed bivalents.
C) temporarily become diploid.
D) rejoined its maternal homologue.
Q4) A zygote contains 16 chromosomes.The diploid number of this cell is ________ [2n = ?].
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) Scientists develop an antibody that binds to telomerase and prevents it from repairing telomeres.This antibody would be useful in treating cancer cells because it would
A) activate tumor suppressor genes.
B) activate proto-oncogenes.
C) give the cell immortality.
D) decrease the amount of times the cell could divide.o
Q2) The p53 gene is nonfunctional in most colon cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A benign growth is noncancerous.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mutations cause only a few types of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Tumor suppressors cause programmed cell death.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Genes that increase the rate of cell division are ________ growth regulators.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Each time a person has another child,the chance that the parent passes on a given allele to a child
A) is reduced. B) is increased. C) is the same. D) changes.
Q2) A pigment in mammals that is responsible for yellow to red hair color is A) eumelanin.
B) pheomelanin.
C) tyrosine.
D) albinin.
Q3) Alternate versions of the same gene,such as blue or brown for eye color,are known as ________.
Q4) Which of the following choices represents the genotype of an individual diploid organism?
A) BbCCdd
B) BCd
C) bCd
D) BbCd
Q5) The expressed characteristics of an organism are known as its ________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Q1) The allele responsible for causing Huntington disease is A) dominant.
B) recessive.
C) sex-linked.
D) not heritable.
Q2) The chromosome theory of inheritance states that A) chromosomes are made of DNA.
B) genes are located on chromosomes.
C) genes are inherited.
D) patterns of inheritance are based on probability.
Q3) The chance that any two siblings will be genetically identical is astronomically small.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Males with a recessive X-linked allele that causes a disorder do not always show symptoms because they can also carry a dominant allele on their Y chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A female who is a carrier of the sex-linked gene A has the genotype ________.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) At any given time,most of the genes in the genome of an organism are actively undergoing gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is true?
A) The two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by covalent bonds.
B) A single strand within a DNA molecule is held together by hydrogen bonds.
C) The bases on one strand of DNA are held to the bases on the other strand by hydrogen bonds.
D) Hydrogen bonding between complementary base pairs causes the DNA molecule to twist into a spiral.
Q3) Assume a cell present in your body has performed a mismatch error during the process of DNA replication.This error has resulted in the generation of a new allele for one of your genes.For this new allele to be inherited by your offspring,which of the following conditions must be true?
A) The error must be repaired.
B) The error must be caused by a chemical mutagen.
C) The error must occur in the germ line cells.
D) The new allele produced must be dominant.
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism used by cells to reduce gene expression?
A) looser packing of DNA
B) a specific increase in mRNA breakdown
C) modification of proteins before their translation
D) stabilization of a protein so that its "shelf-life" is increased
Q2) Which of the following is true of rRNA?
A) It is made up of base pairs.
B) It carries amino acids.
C) It is not translated.
D) It helps transcribe DNA.
Q3) The first amino acid in most proteins is methionine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In tRNA,an amino acid is covalently bonded to an anticodon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A codon can specify up to three different amino acids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) The immune disorder adenosine deaminase (ADA)deficiency is the result of a mutation in one gene.How could gene therapy be used to treat this disorder?
A) Red blood cells could be induced to produce the protein encoded by the mutated ADA gene.
B) Cells containing a corrected ADA gene could be injected into patients with ADA.
C) The patients could swallow synthetic blood cells.
D) Patients could be injected with a hybrid molecule made of the DNA and RNA of the normal ADA gene.
Q2) Which of the following is the best way to make many copies of a vector containing recombinant DNA?
A) polymerase chain reaction
B) DNA hybridization
C) reproductive cloning
D) DNA cloning
Q3) Short tandem repeats are used to create DNA fingerprints because they are highly ________ regions of DNA.
Q4) Genetically modified organisms are also called________ organisms.
Q5) A DNA fingerprint is also called a DNA ________.
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Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) One of the consequences of ________ is a change in the proportions of one or more of the inherited characteristics found in the next generation,compared with the original population.
Q2) Which of the following statements is an example of a behavioral adaptation?
A) Polar bears have white fur and are nearly invisible in their native habitat.
B) Pacific salmon spend the early part of their lives in fresh water but then migrate to the ocean to grow and mature.
C) Caterpillars that hatch on oak trees in the summer resemble twigs,whereas caterpillars that hatch in the spring resemble oak flowers.
D) Deer mice forage at night and are normally inactive during the day.
Q3) In ________ selection,success is related more to attracting a mate than to possessing adaptations that are beneficial for survival.
Q4) All the individuals that constitute any given population will be genetically identical. A)True B)False
Q5) Any characteristic that improves an organism's reproductive success in its environment is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of reproductive isolation?
A) Male deer with large branching antlers are more likely to mate.
B) A blue lizard washes away from a population of mostly green lizards during a hurricane and ends up on an island containing no other lizards to mate with.
C) One population of frogs mates in the deep water of a pond and another population of frogs mates on the shore of the same pond.
D) One individual from a population of fruit flies from an apple orchard is blown by heavy winds into another orchard where it mates with a different population of fruit flies.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT due to the common ancestry of related species?
A) homologous structures
B) vestigial structures
C) analogous structures
D) descendant structures
Q3) Adaptive radiation can only take place in the presence of reproductive isolation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) If the homeotic genes that control limb development in the fruit fly are expressed in the head region of the fly,instead of developing antennae,the fly builds __________.
Q2) For insects,could there be a connection between being the first organism to fly and being the most diverse terrestrial organism today?
A) Probably not;terrestrial insects are only so diverse because they have been around so much longer than other animals and have,therefore,had more time to evolve.
B) Yes;the ability to fly between populations decreases gene flow,resulting in rapid speciation.
C) No;only environmental changes can lead to adaptive radiation of a group as large as insects.
D) Maybe;because insects were the first in the air,they had a variety of habitats to explore without competition,which often leads to adaptive radiation.
Q3) The diversification of groups of organisms to form new species that can occur after a mass extinction or at other times is called adaptive ___________.
Q4) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Pathogens are organisms that cause ________.
Q2) Because the RNA genome of HIV is converted into DNA in an infected host cell,HIV is a rhinovirus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Carbon and energy are among the most basic life resources and organisms that have been classified with respect to how they are obtained.What term describes an organism that obtains these substances from inorganic molecules in rock and air?
A) chemoheterotroph
B) photoautotroph
C) photoheterotroph
D) chemoautotroph
Q4) Using the simplest methods to study the composition of intestinal microbial flora,it is necessary to collect a ________ sample from the subject.
Q5) All bacteria have the same shape.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The domain most similar to Eukarya is ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Eukaryotes display the earliest version of sexual reproduction,whereby
A) separate male and female individuals within the same species mate.
B) females of one eukaryotic species mate with males of another eukaryotic species.
C) special cells called gametes fuse together to produce a new individual.
D) an individual splits into two individuals that then mate with one another.
Q2) Xylem is specialized for transporting water and dissolved nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement best summarizes the adaptive value of phloem?
A) Phloem is specialized for transporting water and dissolved nutrients.
B) Phloem is specialized for transporting food molecules such as sugar.
C) Phloem forms the root structures that house symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
D) Phloem possesses stomata that help to take up carbon dioxide and also release pollen.
Q4) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the ________.
Q5) In nature,fungi function primarily as ________,getting their nutrition from dead and dying organisms.
Q6) The first plant group to evolve a vascular system was the ________.
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) Relationships among the animals having body cavities can be easily determined by examination of embryonic development;vertebrates and echinoderms are grouped together because in each group,the
A) infolding that forms the body cavity eventually becomes the anus.
B) zygote divides repeatedly to become a blastula.
C) death of specific cells creates the internal hollow that eventually becomes the body cavity.
D) embryonic coelom is lined with mesodermal tissues.
Q2) The success of the amniotic egg was the development of a completely water- and airtight shell that prevented moisture loss.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Because of their abundance and the relative scarcity of other types of vertebrates,the ________ era is often called the Age of Reptiles.
Q4) Keratin is an important and widespread structural protein in animals,forming structures as diverse as feathers,toenails,and the carapace of crabs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Problems arise during an El Niño event when
A) warm surface water,depleted of its nutrients,flows toward the South American coast.
B) displaced organisms crowd into adjacent habitats.
C) warm surface waters evaporate more rapidly,causing increased rainfall in every terrestrial biome.
D) ocean current systems reverse their flow directions and impede migrating marine fish and mammals.
Q2) Imagine a situation where the prevailing winds blow across the ocean toward the western side of a mountain range.Where would you expect to find cactus as the most common plant?
A) near the shore on the western side of the mountains
B) inland on the western side of the mountains
C) on the eastern side of the mountains
D) on both sides of the mountains but higher up on slopes on the western side of the mountains
Q3) Meteorologists use the term ________ to describe the temperature,precipitation,wind speed,and other physical conditions at a specific place over a short period of time.
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) If there are 100 people living in a 2-square-kilometer area,the population density in people per square kilometer would be ________.
Q2) The carrying capacity of a population can be affected by weather,the daily fluctuations in temperature,rainfall,and the other factors that contribute to climate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A population of 100 individuals is undergoing exponential growth,with a constant growth rate of 0.2 per year.What size will this population be in 2 years?
A) 100
B) 120
C) 144 D) 200
Q4) Population size is affected by both density-independent and density-dependent factors;daily weather is an example of a density-________ factor.
Q5) The carrying capacity of a habitat always remains the same. A)True B)False
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Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Herring gull chicks beg for food when they see a red dot,whether it is on their parent's beak or on an odd-shaped model.This begging is an example of a(n)________ behavior.
Q2) Which of the following choices is NOT a method of communication?
A) human language
B) learning
C) visual signals
D) scent marking
Q3) Because a frog has a more complex nervous system than a slug,the behaviors of a frog should be more complex than those of a slug.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When you see a speed limit sign,you control your speed according to the "rule." This is an example of
A) fixed behavior.
B) genetically controlled behavior.
C) behavior affected by hormones.
D) learned behavior.
Q5) ________ is a highly advanced form of communication found in humans.
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Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Communities always recover quickly from disturbances caused by humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The release of a parasitic wasp in California helped control the infestation of scale insects on citrus trees.However,it also caused the near extinction of a different species of parasitic wasp.Should we consider this experiment an unqualified success?
A) Yes;the scale insects are controlled,and the extinct wasp was not ecologically important.
B) Yes;as long as we get a result that helps humans,it does not matter what the effect is on other species.
C) No;the effect of the loss of the original species of wasp cannot be predicted and may be more significant than the benefits to the citrus tree crop.
D) No;the citrus tree population in California will now be able to rise to unmanageable numbers.
Q3) Mistletoe participates in forest communities in many beneficial roles;its berries and leaves are food for herbivorous birds and insects,but to the trees that host it,mistletoe is strictly an undesirable ________.
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Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) Net primary productivity on land
A) tends to increase from the equator toward the poles.
B) tends to decrease from the equator toward the poles.
C) is greatest in deserts due to intense sunlight.
D) is very low in tropical areas due to excessive rainfall.
Q2) In an ecosystem,energy differs from nutrients in that
A) energy is recycled through photosynthesis,but nutrients are recycled through the atmosphere.
B) nutrients are recycled,but energy eventually moves out of the system and is lost.
C) nutrients are recycled through plant roots,but energy is recycled through leaves.
D) energy is recycled by producers,but nutrients are recycled by consumers.
Q3) Which of the following would most likely take longest to replace if lost from a terrestrial ecosystem?
A) sulfur
B) carbon
C) oxygen
D) phosphorous
Q4) Urine can be a valuable resource for soil nutrients,especially ________.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Pikas,shown in the photograph,are adapted to mountainous environments.How are species such as pikas changing their habitats in response to global warming?
A) They are moving northward toward the Arctic.
B) They are moving their ranges up the mountains to cooler habitats.
C) They are inhabiting areas that are closer to cool mountain lakes.
D) They are inhabiting areas that are adjacent to mountain glaciers.
Q2) Humans are changing the way many chemicals ________ through ecosystems.
Q3) Which of the following statements about land and water transformations is NOT true?
A) They are caused by humans.
B) They are global in scale.
C) They are now occurring.
D) They have had little effect on the Earth.
Q4) Climate change has not started and it can be prevented with timely action.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Scientists predict that current increases in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations will cause temperatures on Earth to rise,a phenomenon known as
Page 27
Q6) About 50 percent of the human population lives near ________ ecosystems.
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Chapter 26: Internal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) Since the fur color of many mammals darkens in the winter months,it can be concluded that this is an ________ that allows the mammals to ________ radiant energy.
A) adaptation;reflect B) acclimation;absorb C) adaptation;absorb D) acclimation;reflect
Q2) Negative feedback
A) stops a process before it reaches its set point.
B) determines what the set point of a process should be.
C) slows down or shuts off a process when a set point is reached.
D) prevents positive feedback.
Q3) For a vertebrate animal to obtain and use energy,
A) the digestive system is used to break down oxygen to be stored in cells.
B) the circulatory system must provide carbon dioxide to cells.
C) the circulatory,respiratory,digestive,endocrine,and nervous systems are some systems involved.
D) only one organ system,the digestive system,is needed.
Q4) Shivering and goose bumps are ways of producing ________.
Q5) The basic functioning unit of the kidney is the ________.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) Omnivores have
A) flat front teeth.
B) sharp back teeth.
C) flat teeth throughout the mouth.
D) a combination of both sharp and flat teeth.
Q2) How rapidly an organism can absorb nutrients generally depends on
A) the surface area available for absorption.
B) how quickly the nutrients can diffuse into the stomach.
C) the passive mechanisms that carry the nutrients into the organism.
D) the volume of the organism taking up the nutrients.
Q3) Vitamins are an essential source of energy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following food sources would be eaten by carnivores?
A) apples
B) Girl Scout cookies
C) mushrooms
D) deer
Q5) In Third World countries,vitamin ________ are more common and lead to various diseases and disorders.
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Chapter 28: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Gas transport moves oxygen through many locations and fluids,but its ultimate destination is the
A) alveoli.
B) lungs.
C) cells of the body.
D) mitochondria.
Q2) Why do larger animals depend on an internal transport system (like the circulatory system in mammals)to distribute oxygen when small organisms get along fine without one?
A) Diffusion does not occur in organisms with more than about 300 cells.
B) Large organisms have larger cells and use more oxygen per cell than the cells of small organisms;diffusion alone is unable to supply the extra oxygen needed.
C) Larger animals lose oxygen to the atmosphere as it diffuses through their skin;an internal transport system is needed to replenish these losses.
D) Diffusion delivers oxygen very slowly over distances larger than a typical cell's diameter;transport systems move oxygen close to the cell so that the diffusion distance remains small.
Q3) Red blood cells are produced in the ________.
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Chapter 29: Animal Hormones
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Q1) A diabetic would most likely inject insulin
A) after waking up in the morning.
B) preceding mealtime.
C) after a long walk.
D) when blood glucose levels are low.
Q2) The lining of the uterus is thickened and prepared to receive a fertilized egg by
A) follicle-stimulating hormone.
B) progesterone and estrogen.
C) luteinizing hormone.
D) androgens.
Q3) Inadequate amounts of one hormone does NOT affect production of another hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the first two weeks of the menstrual cycle,
A) estrogen levels fall.
B) estrogen levels rise steadily.
C) the egg develops inside the corpus luteum.
D) the corpus luteum develops into a follicle.
Q5) A(n)________ is a specialized organ in which hormones are produced.
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Chapter 30: Nervous and Sensory Systems
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Q1) Nodes of Ranvier are found only in ________ neurons.
Q2) Where would you expect to see an absence of neurotransmitters?
A) in a synapse
B) in a myelin sheath
C) in a synaptic cleft
D) in the terminus of an axon
Q3) The area of the brain that filters and sorts signals from the spinal cord also determines which signals require an action without awareness and which signals need to be sent to the conscious perception centers.This area of the brain is known as the A) cerebrum.
B) pituitary gland.
C) thalamus.
D) cortex.
Q4) If a stimulus is strong enough to reach a threshold level,
A) an action potential is shut down.
B) an action potential occurs.
C) sodium channels in the myelin open.
D) the resting potential is restored.
Q5) Brain activity rises during ________ sleep.
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Chapter 31: Skeletons,Muscles,and Movement
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Q1) Your small intestine has smooth muscle in its walls.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Actin filaments are anchored to A) bones.
B) Z discs.
C) ATP.
D) cartilage.
Q3) Which of the following statements about bone tissue is FALSE?
A) It contains living cells.
B) It has a mineral matrix composed largely of calcium and phosphate.
C) It supports the ear lobes.
D) It is structurally strong yet not brittle.
Q4) Soft-bodied animals rely on ________ for support.
A) bony skeletons
B) cartilage
C) joints
D) a hydrostat
Q5) Tendons are connective tissues that connect ________ to bone.
Q6) The blue whale reduces drag with its streamlined shape and also its ________.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: The Immune System
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Q1) Salt in the sweat is a component of adaptive immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Phagocytosis is one of the primary strategies of the innate immune response,which is hardly surprising considering that approximately 70 percent of the circulating white blood cells are the phagocytic ________.
Q3) Proteins and carbohydrates on the surface of the cells of disease organisms help the vertebrate immune system recognize the specific invader;these molecules are knows as
A) platelets.
B) antigens.
C) lymphocytes.
D) antibodies.
Q4) The immune system is considered to consist of two subdivisions,a nonspecific component consisting primarily of barriers and phagocytes known as the innate response and a highly specific component consisting primarily of antibody and cell-mediated strategies known as the ________ response.
Q5) A disease-causing agent is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 33: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements about sexual and asexual reproduction is true?
A) Sexual reproduction leads to offspring that are genetically identical to their parents,whereas asexual reproduction leads to offspring that differ from their parents.
B) Sexual reproduction leads to offspring that differ genetically from their parents,whereas asexual reproduction leads to offspring that are identical to their parents.
C) Sexual reproduction is always better for a species' survival than asexual reproduction.
D) Asexual reproduction is always better for a species' survival than sexual reproduction.
Q2) Haploid gametes are produced by ________.
Q3) Morning sickness is caused by the hormone ________.
Q4) Once all the organ systems are developed in a human,about 9 weeks after fertilization,the developing child is considered a(n)________.
Q5) In oogenesis,the final steps of meiosis do NOT occur until ________ takes place.
Q6) All layers of skin are derived from the mesoderm.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Plant Structure, Nutrition, and Transport
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Q1) Once sugars have been actively transported into the phloem,
A) the sugars move to other parts of the phloem by diffusion.
B) water is actively transported into the phloem to prevent diffusion.
C) water enters the phloem through osmosis.
D) pressure decreases in the phloem.
Q2) Although plants require nine macronutrients,plant fertilizers typically provide just nitrogen,phosphorus,and ________.
Q3) A benefit of using organic fertilizers over inorganic fertilizers is that organic fertilizers
A) supply energy to plant roots.
B) provide large quantities of potassium.
C) help soil hold water within which nutrients can dissolve.
D) help rid soil of harmful minerals.
Q4) Which plant does NOT capture prey?
A) Venus flytraps
B) the bladderworts in the genus Utricularia
C) pitcher plants
D) Malayan urn vine
Q5) Plants are protected from herbivores by ________ tissue,which also controls gas exchange.
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Chapter 35: Plant Growth and Reproduction
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Q1) Plant growth is indeterminate and animal growth is determinant.Why is indeterminate growth more beneficial to plants than to animals?
A) Plants are stationary in their habitats,whereas animals can move;indeterminate growth allows a plant to respond to varying environmental conditions.
B) Plants are commonly eaten by animals,whereas animals are rarely eaten by plants.
C) Indeterminate growth allows plants to become larger than animals.
D) Indeterminate growth allows plants to avoid reproducing when environmental conditions are unfavorable.
Q2) Meristem cells in plants are similar to ________ cells in vertebrates.
Q3) Anthers are typically attached to filaments and elevated within the flower to
A) improve the transfer of pollen to a pollinator.
B) improve the transfer of pollen to the adjacent stigma.
C) prevent pollen from becoming stuck in the nectar.
D) prevent the pollen from being blown away from the flower.
Q4) In flowering plants,seeds are haploid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A plant's physiological response to day length is called ________.
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