Course Introduction
General Biology Review Questions
General Biology provides a foundational overview of the principles and concepts that underlie the study of living organisms. The course explores topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. Emphasis is placed on understanding fundamental biological processes, the scientific method, and the interdependence of organisms and their environments. Laboratory components help reinforce theoretical knowledge through hands-on experiments and observation, preparing students for advanced studies in biology and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 9th Edition by Peter Raven George B. Johnson
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2
Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Analogous structures
A)have the same evolutionary origin,structure and function.
B)have similar functions and evolutionary origins,but differ in structure.
C)have the same evolutionary origin,but now differ in structure and function.
D)have similar functions,but different evolutionary origins.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following characteristics are not necessary to being "alive"?
A)order
B)sensitivity
C)growth,development,and reproduction
D)regulation
E)movement
Answer: E
Q3) The rate at which evolution is occurring cannot be estimated by
A)studying comparative anatomy.
B)inferring that apes are related to humans.
C)measuring the degree of difference in genetic coding.
D)interpretation of the fossil recorD.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Nature of Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the information provided,you know that acidosis means that
A)your dog's blood pH has moved toward the acidic end of the pH scale and has a higher pH value than normal.
B)your dog's blood pH has moved toward the acidic end of the pH scale and has a lower pH value than normal.
C)your dog's blood pH has moved toward the basic end of the pH scale and has a higher pH value than normal.
D)your dog's blood pH has moved toward the basic end of the pH scale and has a lower pH value than normal.
Answer: B
Q2) Two carbon atoms might be joined to each other by the sharing of two pairs of electrons,forming a(n)
A)single bond.
B)ionic bond.
C)carbon bond.
D)double bonD.
E)quadruple (4 point)bond.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Chemical Building Blocks of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a property of carbon?
A)It can form single,double,and even triple bonds with itself.
B)It can be built into rings and long chains.
C)It constitutes the backbones of an incredible variety of molecules.
D)All compounds made from carbon are soluble in water.
E)All organic molecules contain carbon atoms.
Answer: D
Q2) Proteins are polymers formed of structural units called A)fatty acids.
B)amino acids.
C)nucleic acids.
D)phosphate groups.
E)sugars.
Answer: B
Q3) Proteins are created with A)phosphodiester bonds
B)peptide bonds
C)a phosphate and two fatty acids bonded to glycerol
D)sugar polymers
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Centrioles are organelles which have all of the following except A)a barrel shape.
B)paired structures.
C)they are composed of nine triplets of microtubules.
D)microtubule assembly function.
E)a lipid bilayer.
Q2) The genetic material of which kind of cells is included in a single,circular molecule of DNA devoid of any histone proteins?
A)bacteria
B)protozoa
C)insects
D)flowering plants
E)yeasts
Q3) Given what is known about the minimal essential functions of cellular life,if you could create an artificial cell,which of the following structures must you include?
A)cell wall
B)ribosome
C)mitochondria
D)nucleus
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In individuals with normal blood sugar levels,glucose is reabsorbed into the bloodstream in the kidney by members of the GLUT transporter family,which form an aqueous pore across the membrane through which glucose can move in a passive manner.As a result,no glucose is excreted in urine.However,in people with untreated diabetes mellitus,blood sugar levels are high and glucose is often present in the urine.Which of the following best explains this occurrence?
A)High blood glucose levels reverse the concentration gradient,allowing untransported glucose to be excreted in urine.
B)High blood glucose levels interfere with the coupled transport of water and glucose,allowing untransported glucose to be excreted in urine.
C)The GLUT transporters become saturated,allowing untransported glucose to be excreted in urine.
D)The GLUT transporters cannot hydrolyze ATP quickly enough for ATP to transport the extra glucose,thereby allowing untransported glucose to be excreted in urine.
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Chapter 6: Energy and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ribozyme catalyzes a reaction on itself and actually changes shape.This is an example of
A)intra-enzyme reactions
B)inter-enzyme reactions
C)intramolecular catalysis
D)intermolecular catalysis
Q2) When an atom or molecule gains one or more electrons,it is said to be
A)energized.
B)oxidized.
C)polarized.
D)activateD.
E)reduced.
Q3) The term oxidation is derived from the name of the element oxygen.This is reasonable,because oxygen
A)attracts electrons very strongly.
B)can be oxidized by accepting electrons.
C)contains more electrons than are needed.
D)can react chemically readily in its gas state.
E)is present everywherE.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy
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Q1) The electron transport chain,a series of membrane-associated electron carriers,loses most of the energy by driving several transmembrane A)proton pumps. B)electron pumps.
C)Na<sup>+</sup>/K<sup>+</sup> pumps.
D)active transport pumps. E)water pumps.
Q2) Your friend is having difficulty keeping track of the energy flow from glucose through glycolysis,the Krebs cycle and electron transport.Your best advice would be to A)follow ATP production.
B)follow the protons.
C)follow NAD<sup>+</sup> production.
D)follow the electrons.
Q3) The coenzyme electron carriers produced in the Krebs cycle are A)ATP and ADP.
B)pyruvate and acetyl-CoA.
C)FADH<sub>2</sub> and NADH.
D)NAD and NADH.
E)NADH and ATP.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The connection between carrots and vision is that the \(\beta\)-carotene of carrots can produce two molecules of vitamin A and oxidation of vitamin A produces a pigment used in vertebrate vision.This pigment's name is
A)chlorophyll.
B)ferredoxin.
C)cytochrome.
D)carotene.
E)retinal.
Q2) Engelmann (1883)discovered that the wavelengths of light that chlorophyll most strongly absorbed were
A)in the red-violet wavelengths of the visible light spectrum.
B)in the green wavelength of the visible light spectrum.
C)in the yellow-orange wavelengths of the visible light spectrum.
D)in the ultraviolet wavelengths of the light spectrum.
E)in the infrared wavelengths of the light spectrum.
Q3) The Calvin cycle is driven by ATP and _____ produced in the light reactions.
A)NAD<sup>+</sup>
B)NADH
C)NADP<sup>+</sup>
D)NADPH
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Chapter 9: Cell Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long-lived;affects cells very distant from the releasing cell.
A)paracrine signaling
B)direct contact
C)endocrine signaling
D)synaptic signaling
Q2) A small number of surface receptors can ultimately generate a large intracellular response,as each step of the pathway is often expanded by signal _________.
A)amplification
B)transduction
C)dampening
D)splitting
Q3) The protein SOS is a guanine nucleotide exchange factor for Ras.SOS helps facilitate the exchange of GDP for GTP.What would be the effect of a mutation that inhibits the interaction between SOS and Ras?
A)GTP would remain bound to Ras,thereby disrupting downstream signaling events.
B)GDP would remain bound to Ras,thereby disrupting downstream signaling events.
C)GTP would remain bound to Ras,leading to overstimulation of the Ras pathway.
D)GDP would remain bound to Ras,leading to overstimulation of the Ras pathway.
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11
Chapter 10: How Cells Divide
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Q1) Which one of the following represents interphase?
A)G<sub>1</sub> + G<sub>2</sub> + S
B)S + M + C
C)prophase + metaphase + anaphase + telophase
D)cytokinesis + mitosis
E)G<sub>0</sub> + G<sub>1</sub> + G<sub>2</sub>
Q2) The actual process of cell division in eukaryotic cells is called A)meiosis. B)mitosis.
C)binary fission. D)cytokinesis.
Q3) Growth of the cell;synthesis of enzymes;normal metabolism.
A)G<sub>1</sub>
B)S
C)G<sub>2</sub>
D)M
E)C
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Chapter 11: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Q1) Meiosis also has been called reduction division because
A)new somatic cells are produced but with a reduction in the required amount of time,which promotes faster wound healing.
B)new gametes are produced but their numbers are reduced.
C)there is a reduction in the chromosome number during two separate nuclear and cell divisions to produce gametes.
D)there is a reduction in the chromosome number during two separate nuclear and cell divisions to produce somatic cells.
E)there is an initial reduction in the chromosome number during the first division followed by an increase in chromosome number,the second division quickly follows the increase in number of chromosomes.
Q2) Sexual reproduction increases genetic variability through all of the following except
A)crossing over in prophase I of meiosis.
B)independent assortment in meiosis.
C)fertilization.
D)mitosis.
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13
Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an individual allele has more than one effect on the phenotype it is said to be
A)pleiotropic.
B)epistatic.
C)recessive.
D)dominant.
E)homozygotic.
Q2) Let Y = yellow and y = green,and R = round and r = wrinkled.You cross YYRR peas with yyrr peas.All of the F<sub>1</sub> individuals are yellow and round with a genotype of YyRr.You then perform a F<sub>2</sub> cross and get the expected 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio.Which of the following is the correct genotypic ratio for yellow,round F<sub>2</sub> individuals?
A)1/16 YYRr,2/16 YYRR,2/16 YyRR,4/16 YyRr
B)1/16 YyRr,2/16 YYRr,2/16 YyRR,4/16 YYRR
C)1/16 YYRR,1/16 YYRr,1/16 YyRR
D)1/16 YYRR,2/16 YYRr,2/16 YyRR,4/16 YyRr
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14
Chapter 13: Chromosomes Mapping and the Meiosis -
Inheritance Connection
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Q1) In a two-point cross to map genes A and B,you obtained 98 recombinant flies out of a total of 730 progeny.How far apart are these genes?
A)11.8 cM
B)13.4 cM
C)98 cM
D)632 cM
Q2) In humans,if a non-disjunction event led to an individual with a genotype of XO,they would
A)be female because they do not have a Y chromosome.
B)be male because they only have one X chromosome.
C)display both male and female characteristics.
D)not survive.
Q3) Hemophilia is a
A)recessive condition.
B)dominant condition.
C)epistatic condition.
D)codominant condition.
E)condition that occurs with equal frequency in both sexes.
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Chapter 14: Dna: the Genetic Material
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Q1) After a long week of sunbathing on the beach,what type of DNA damage might you be concerned about?
A)photolyase-induced mutations
B)decreased telomere length
C)thymine dimers
D)uvr A,B,and C
Q2) As the two strands of DNA are unraveled,an enzyme relieves the strain on the two strands.The enzyme is
A)DNA polymerase.
B)DNA ligase.
C)DNA gyrase.
D)DNA endonuclease.
E)DNA exonucleasE.
Q3) The two strands in the DNA molecule contain nitrogen bases which are A)identical.
B)parallel.
C)complementary.
D)the same in all species.
E)exact copies of the protein they makE.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Genes and How They Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) When multiple snRNPs combine to form a larger complex called a ___________ the intron loops out and is excised.
A)synapse
B)introsome
C)exon
D)spliceosome
Q2) The 3-nucleotide sequence of an mRNA is called the A)codon. B)anticodon.
C)amino acid.
D)transcript.
E)templatE.
Q3) Translated,the corresponding protein contains how many amino acids?
A)6
B)7
C)8
D)13
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Control of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eukaryotic cell mRNA transcripts tend to be very ______ and can remain in the cell for hours.
A)stable
B)long
C)isolated
D)analogous
Q2) Histones are tightly packed into ______,which are located within the DNA.
A)operons
B)nucleosomes
C)clusters of proteins
D)repressor genes
E)facilitators sites
Q3) The enzyme dicer chops dsRNA molecules into small pieces of A)mRNA and miRNA.
B)miRNA and siRNA.
C)siRNA and rRNA.
D)mRNA and siRNA.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Biotechnology
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Q1) DNA restriction enzymes are labeled I and II.Type I restriction enzymes
A)cut one strand at random points along the length of the DNA molecule.
B)make simple cuts across both DNA strands.
C)recognize palindromic sequences.
D)cut at multiple cloning sites along the length of the DNA molecule.
Q2) Some of the useful applications of genetic engineering include all of the following except
A)bacteria that can digest oil in an oil spill.
B)growing synthetic cotton.
C)manufacturing biopolymers.
D)using PCR to study ancient fossils.
E)to clone the perfect human being.
Q3) Enzymes that cleave DNA at specific sites are called ______________.
A)vectors
B)peptidases
C)restriction endonucleases
D)DNAses
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Chapter 18: Genomics
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Q1) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are bacterial relatives living within eukaryotes as a result of A)synteny.
B)exosymbiosis.
C)endosymbiosis.
D)draft sequencing of the proteomes of the mitochondria and chloroplasts by the nucleosome.
E)contiguous base pairing.
Q2) Homologous regions of DNA can vary slightly in base-pair composition among individuals in a population.When a homologous stretch of DNA is cut with restriction enzymes in different individuals,fragments of different lengths are produced.These fragments are called
A)landmarks of DNA sequencing.
B)contig fragments.
C)single length polymorphisms.
D)restriction fragments length polymorphisms.
E)sequence-tagged site fragments.
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Chapter 19: Cellular Mechanisms of Development
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Q1) Plants do not utilize the process of cell migration in their development.Instead plants utilize
A)the process of building themselves inwardly via the meristems present in the developing plant tissues.
B)the process of building themselves outwardly via the meristems present in the developing plant tissues.
C)the process of building themselves with epidermal tissues,which eventually become ground tissues,which can then begin the process of photosynthesis.
D)the process of building themselves by using their vascular tissues to form meristems,which eventually cause normal development in the plant.
Q2) One piece of evidence suggesting that HOM and Hox genes are homologous is
A)that the mouse has twice as many Hox gene clusters as DrosophilA.
B)that the homeobox identifies the portion of the genome involved in pattern formation.
C)that the homeobox has been identified in primitive organisms.
D)their linear order of organization on chromosomes is the same in mouse and Drosophila.
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21
Chapter 20: Genes Within Populations
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Q1) When selection acts to eliminate one extreme from an array of phenotypes it is called
A)natural selection.
B)stabilizing selection.
C)disruptive selection.
D)directional selection.
E)artificial selection.
Q2) Migration and hybridization between individuals of adjacent populations causes gene _______.
A)blending
B)flow
C)mutation
D)dominance
Q3) The total of all the alleles of all the genes in a population can be thought of as A)an allele mixture.
B)a gene pool.
C)a genetic melting pot.
D)a genome.
E)variant genes.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Which one of the following is not true about species that show convergent evolution?
A)Do not share a recent common ancestor.
B)Must be found in the same biogeographical region.
C)Subject to similar selection pressures.
D)Have similar phenotypes.
E)Can share homologous structures.
Q2) A rock contains 18 mg of the radioactive isotope carbon-14.The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,600 years.How many half-lives and years will it take before the carbon-14 decays to less than 4 mg?
A)1 half-lives;5,600 years
B)2 half-lives;11,200 years
C)3 half-lives;16,800 years
D)4 half-lives;22,400 years
E)9 half-lives;50,400 years
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Chapter 22: The Origin of Species
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Q1) A type of isolating mechanism that leads to reproductive isolation after a hybrid zygote has formed is called _____________ isolating mechanism.
A)hybridization
B)postzygotic
C)prezygotic
D)adaptive
E)differential
Q2) Species formation among alpine buttercups in New Zealand was promoted by
A)mechanical isolation.
B)gametic isolation.
C)periodic isolation by glaciation.
D)temporal isolation.
E)geographical isolation.
Q3) Which of the following phrases is not an essential part of the biological species concept?
A)morphologically distinct
B)reproductive isolation
C)independent evolutionary unit
D)actually or potentially interbreeding
E)no gene flow with other species
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Chapter 23: Systematics and the Phylogenetic Revolution
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Q1) The table shows the distribution of traits (A-E)in six extant species (1-6).A "0" indicates the ancestral condition;a "1" is the derived condition.Construct a cladogram from these data.Based on this cladogram,which trait is least informative of phylogenetic relationships within the group?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q2) Consider the cladogram associated with the question.Based on this cladogram,which species has the greatest number of ancestral character states?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) The biological specialty that deals with the study of evolutionary relationships is called __________.
Q4) A ______________ group does not contain the most recent common ancestor.
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Chapter 24: Genome Evolution
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Q1) One of the ways that two species can be compared,and information about the genetic basis of human diseases extracted,is by using their sequenced genomes and A)looking at the allelic differences.
B)investigating the introns.
C)looking at the conserved sequences.
D)exchanging genomic information between them.
Q2) Which one of the following statements describing what we know about Plasmodium falciparum,the parasitic protist that causes malaria,is false?
A)P.falciparum has many genes with similar function clustered together on its chromosomes.
B)P.falciparum is difficult for the immune system to target because it "cloaks" itself inside of red blood cells.
C)P.falciparum has inherited a unique subcellular organelle called an apicoplast from the chloroplast of an alga.
D)Although the P.falciparum apicoplast has no known function,targeting the apicoplast with chloroplast-specific herbicides might kill the parasite.
Q3) In plants,_________________ induces elimination of duplicated genes.
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Chapter 25: Evolution of Development
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Q1) Which of the following is not usually involved in the development of a new morphology?
A)evolution of a new gene to code for the new morphology
B)homeosis
C)heterochrony
D)changes in signaling pathways
E)changes in the regulatory sequence of a transcription factor gene
Q2) Regarding genome sequences and organismal development,it is important to remember that
A)development occurs almost exactly the same way in closely related species.
B)development takes longer in some species than in others,and this time factor is important.
C)gene sequence within a chromosome determines the timing of the gene expression.
D)timing plays an important part in genome sequencing.
E)changing the timing of gene expression can have dramatic changes in development.
Q3) Indirect development in sea urchins involves the presence of a _________________ stage.
Q4) Another name for analogous structures is _________________ structures.
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Chapter 26: The Tree of Life
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Q1) The hypothesis of __________ proposes that meteors or cosmic dust may have brought complex organic molecules to Earth.
Q2) The oldest microfossils are of A)prokaryotes.
B)eukaryotes. C)insects.
D)pollen grains.
E)small animals.
Q3) Segmentation is thought to have evolved three times,twice in protostomes and once in deuterstomes as seen in the A)echinoderms. B)nematodes.
C)flatworms. D)mollusks.
E)chordates.
Q4) Prokaryotes were the only organisms for about _________ billion years after life began on Earth.
Q5) The names of genera were the basic point of reference in _____________ systems.
Page 28
Q6) Organelles such as the nucleus are not present in _________ organisms.
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Chapter 27: Viruses
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Q1) The infection cycle of HIV includes all of the following steps except A)attachment.
B)entry.
C)replication.
D)immediately killing the host cell.
E)viral DNA integrates into the host chromosomE.
Q2) Which of the following statements about TSEs (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies)is false?
A)TSEs include scrapie in sheep,mad cow disease,chronic wasting disease in deer and elk,and kuru and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans.
B)The incidence of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans increased after an outbreak of mad cow disease in England suggesting that mad cow disease may be transmitted to humans.
C)Viroids are the likely cause of TSEs.
D)TSEs do not seem to be affected by treatments that would eliminate nucleic acid-based diseases.
E)Infectious TSE preparations do not seem to contain DNA or RNA.
Q3) _____________ infects the CD4 + T cells,which are required for normal immunity.
Q4) The SARS virus is a completely new form of _______ _________.
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Chapter 28: Prokaryotes
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Q1) Current classification of prokaryotes is based on A)morphology of flagellA.
B)sequencing of proteins,DNA,and RNA.
C)occurrence of transverse binary fission.
D)type of colony formation.
E)ability to stain the cell wall with Gram stain.
Q2) Some prokaryotes attach to other substrates by hairlike outgrowths,which are shorter than flagella.These are called A)endospores.
B)flagellin.
C)pili.
D)plasmids.
E)fission products.
Q3) Carbon fixation carried out by the prokaryotes known as the __________ involves chlorophyll a.
Q4) Most bacteria that cause plant diseases are members of the group of rod-shaped bacteria known as _________________.
Q5) Sedimentary deposits known as ___________ were formed by mats of ancient prokaryotes known as cyanobacteria.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Trypanosomiasis is spread by A)mosquitoes.
B)airborne droplets.
C)tsetse flies.
D)fleas on rats.
E)contaminated water.
Q2) A group of mostly unicellular protists;includes some organisms that are photosynthetic and free-living,but also some that are parasitic.
A)oomycetes
B)cellular slime molds
C)brown algae
D)Euglenozoa
E)Plasmodium
Q3) The tropical diseases such as African sleeping sickness,Chaga's disease,and leishmaniasis are caused by
A)foraminiferA.
B)sporozoans.
C)phytomastigotes.
D)trypanosomes.
E)oomycetes.
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Chapter 30: Overview of Green Plants
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Q1) Which of the following is not a gymnosperm?
A)cycads
B)ginkgoes
C)conifers
D)anthophytes
E)cypress
Q2) Tracheophyte plants are characterized by all of the following except
A)specialized conducting systems.
B)waxy cuticle.
C)stomata.
D)homospory or heterospory.
E)seeds.
Q3) All of the following statements about ferns are correct except A)ferns flourish in many habitats,but the majority are located in the tropics.
B)the sporophyte is a conspicuous generation.
C)the gametophyte is a conspicuous generation.
D)ferns have underground stems called rhizomes.
E)sori are located on the back or ventral surface of fronds.
Q4) The object called a ______ contains the embryo and food supply in heterosporous plants.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) The first antibiotic,Penicillin,that was used on a wide scale was derived from a fungus whose genus name is
A)Penicillium.
B)streptomycin.
C)sulfanilamide.
D)neomycin.
E)actinomycin.
Q2) Which one of the following statements comparing ascomycetes and basidiomycetes is false?
A)Both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes have secondary myceliA.
B)In both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes,the zygote is the only diploid stage.
C)In both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes,spores are the dispersal stage of the life cycle.
D)In both ascomycetes and basidiomycetes,only the fruiting bodies (ascocarp and basidiocarp)are conspicuous.
E)Although some ascomycetes are unicellular,all basidiomycetes are multicellular.
Q3) Mushrooms are fungi belonging to the phylum ____________.
Q4) Fungi,together with bacteria are the principal _________ in the biosphere.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) In which phylum of marine animals did symmetrical body plans first evolve?
A)Radiata
B)Ctenophora
C)Cnidaria
D)Echinodermata
E)Parazoa
Q2) Which one of the following terms applies to the phylum Nematoda?
A)Parazoa
B)radial cleavage
C)diploblastic
D)deuterostome
E)pseudocoelomate
Q3) Which one of the following terms does not apply to the phylum Annelida?
A)bilateral symmetry
B)triploblastic
C)protostome
D)indeterminate cleavage
E)spiral cleavage
Q4) In the animal subkingdom ______,the animals lack symmetry and possess neither tissues nor organs.
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Chapter 33: Noncoelomate Invertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following is not a type of cnidarian?
A)Hydra
B)Obelia
C)box jellyfish
D)comb jelly
E)sea anemone
Q2) All of the following statements about Cnidaria are correct with the exception of
A)Cnidarians can have two body forms,polyp and medusA.
B)Cnidarians are triploblastic,having ectoderm,mesoderm,and endoderm.
C)Cnidarians have radical symmetry.
D)Cnidarians do not have circulatory,respiratory,or excretory systems.
E)Cnidarians have specialized cells called cnidocytes with nematocysts insidE.
Q3) In 1995,organisms belonging to the species Symbion pandora were discovered and assigned to the phylum
A)RotiferA.
B)Nematoda.
C)Cycliophora.
D)Platyhelminthes.
E)Cnidaria.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Coelomate Invertebrates
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Q1) Typically possess a hard shell,in which they live;unequal growth during development produces a twisting of visceral mass;include snails and slugs.
A)lophophorates
B)gastropods
C)cephalopods
D)annelids
E)leeches
Q2) Air passage into the trachea of most insects is controlled by the closing and opening of valves,which operate special openings called A)spiracles.
B)ocelli.
C)ommatidia.
D)book lungs.
E)Malpighian tubules.
Q3) Echinoderms show ______ symmetry as adults and have a five-part body plan.
Q4) The molluscan class ________ includes the snails and slugs.
Q5) Arachnids are generally carnivorous,_____ being the main exception.
Q6) Members of the class ________,octopuses,squids,and nautilus,are highly intelligent.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Vertebrates
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Q1) Of the following sequences,which one reflects the best scientific knowledge about the succession of Homo species from the past until the present?
A)Homo beidelbergensis \(\rarr\) Homo habilis \(\rarr\)Homo sapiens \(\rarr\)
Homo erectus
B)Homo habilis \(\rarr\) Homo beidelbergensis \(\rarr\) Homo erectus \(\rarr\) Homo sapiens
C)Homo beidelbergensis\(\rarr\) Homo sapiens \(\rarr\)Homo erectus \(\rarr\)
Homo habilis
D)Homo sapiens \(\rarr\) Homo beidelbergensis \(\rarr\)Homo habilis \(\rarr\) Homo erectus
E)Homo habilis \(\rarr\) Homo erectus \(\rarr\) Homo beidelbergensis \(\rarr\) Homo sapiens
Q2) Amphibians are not completely free to live on dry land because
A)their ancestors were fish.
B)their food organisms live in water.
C)their reproduction depends on water.
D)they can escape from predators by jumping into the water.
E)they obtain oxygen from water through gills.
Q3) The material of which the skeleton of Chondrichthyes is composed is _______.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Plant Form
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Q1) Which statement about secondary growth in plants is not correct?
A)Secondary growth in plants is a result of lateral meristems.Trees and shrubs have active lateral meristems.
B)Secondary growth in plants increases the girth (diameter)of woody plants.
C)Secondary growth in woody plants results because there are two cylinders of actively dividing cells.The cylinders are cork cambium and vascular cambium.
D)The cork cambium produces secondary phloem while the vascular cambium produces secondary xylem.
E)Only some plants have secondary growth.
Q2) Which of these might produce the longest cells?
A)tracheids
B)sieve cells
C)vessel members
D)sclerenchyma
E)root hairs
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Chapter 37: Vegetative Plant Development
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Q1) Scratching or chipping the seed coat (scarification)of certain seeds (like alfalfa)may speed up germination of hard coated seeds because it allows
A)The mechanical stress activates enzymes.
B)Water and oxygen can enter the seed to reach the embryo more quickly.
C)Carbon dioxide can enter the seed and stimulate photosynthesis to start.
D)Bacteria or fungi can enter the seed and trigger hormones.
E)Damage to the seed coat releases \(\alpha\)-amylases into the endosperm.
Q2) The seed leaves that are produced by embryonic cells and are formed from bulges on the embryo are called A)radicles.
B)embryo sacs.
C)petioles.
D)cotyledons.
E)ovules.
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Chapter 38: Transport in Plants
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Q1) The process by which water is "pulled" up through the xylem columns of plants and evaporated out of the leaves is called
A)root pressure.
B)transpiration.
C)osmosis.
D)adhesion of water molecules.
E)cohesion of water molecules.
Q2) Which of the following statements does not apply to aquaporins?
A)They are water transport channels.
B)They are unique to plant cells.
C)They occur in the plasma membrane.
D)They speed up osmosis.
E)They do not alter the direction of water movement.
Q3) Mycorrhizal fungi interact with plants at the A)stomates.
B)seed coat.
C)roots.
D)edge of ponds.
E)cuticlE.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Plant Nutrition and Soils
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Q1) The effects of elevated atmospheric CO<sub>2</sub> concentrations
A)have the potential to alter the nutritional status of plants.
B)have the potential to allow herbivores to eat less plant matter.
C)have no effect on nutrient levels found in plant leaves.
D)allow the plant to use O<sub>2</sub> more efficiently in photosynthesis.
E)cause an increase in Rubisco production.
Q2) When legumes with nitrogen-fixation nodules are given chemical fertilizers with high nitrogen concentrations,they abandon support of the nodules and end the symbiosis.Why?
A)The mineral nutrients inhibit nitrogenase activity.
B)Nitrogen gas is no longer available in the soil.
C)The nitrogen-fixation process is very expensive for the plant.
D)The dissolved chemical nutrients are toxic to Rhizobium bacteria.
E)Dissolved nitrogen uncurls the root hairs,releasing the nodulE.
Q3) Plants can remove harmful chemicals from the soil by the process of
A)glandular secretion by leaves.
B)CO<sub>2</sub> activation.
C)phytoremediation.
D)fertilization.
E)root nodule formation.
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Chapter 40: Plant Defense Responses
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Q1) An invader is considered to be virulent if
A)it expresses avr genes.
B)it induces the hypersensitive response.
C)rapid cell death occurs around the site of the attack.
D)there is no R gene recognition of the invader.
E)systemic acquired resistance is triggered.
Q2) Why don't ants that protect the Acacia tree scare off bees trying to pollinate the tree's flowers?
A)They can't climb to the tops of the tree.
B)The bees are too big.
C)The bees fly in and out quickly.
D)The open flowers contain a chemical that is an ant deterrent.
E)Parasitoid wasps protect the bees from attack.
Q3) The series of metabolic events that occurs within tomato plants in response to wounding is known as
A)a systemic response.
B)a waterfall effect.
C)the hypersensitive response.
D)a pathogen-specific response.
E)resistance to coevolution.
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Chapter 41: Sensory Systems in Plants
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Q1) A chemical derivative of adenine.
A)abscisic acid
B)auxin
C)ethylene
D)cytokinin
E)gibberellin
Q2) Cytokinins promote cell division and differentiation in plant tissues,but only in the presence of what other plant hormone?
A)auxin
B)ethylene
C)abscisic acid
D)gibberellin
E)oligosaccharin
Q3) Red light and phytochrome are involved in all of the following plant growth responses except
A)thigmotropic responses.
B)inhibition of seed germination.
C)elongation of etiolated shoots.
D)signals for overlapping distances between plants.
E)photomorphogenesis.
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Chapter 42: Plant Reproduction
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Q1) The androecium is a collective term for the A)carpels.
B)stamens.
C)petals.
D)sepals.
E)ovules.
Q2) Which of these characteristics would most likely discourage self pollination in a flower with both stamens and pistils?
A)many more stamens than pistils
B)long stamens and short pistils
C)long pistils and short stamens
D)pollen released before stigma is receptive (mature)
E)flower is wind pollinated
Q3) Which of these statements about florigen is not true?
A)Florigen is triggered by the ratio of auxin to phytochrome.
B)The structure of florigen is unknown.
C)Florigen transferred from a flowering plant to a nonflowering one can trigger flowering.
D)Florigen is produced in leaves,not flowers.
E)The florigen response may involve several chemical messengers.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: The Animal Body and Principles of Regulation
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Q1) All connective tissues share which of the following structural features?
I-contain cells
II-contain a matrix filled with extracellular material
III-contain sarcomere units
A)I and III
B)just II
C)II and III
D)I,II,and II
E)I and II
Q2) Which of the following systems is most likely to function as a defense system?
A)the integumentary system
B)the musculoskeletal system
C)the endocrine system
D)the sensory system
E)the nervous system
Q3) Which of the following would not provide protection to the epidermis?
A)keratinized epithelium
B)simple squamous epithelium
C)stratified squamous epithelium
D)layers of dead squamous cells
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Chapter 44: The Nervous System
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Q1) The hindbrain consists of all of the following except the A)pons and cerebellum.
B)medulla oblongata.
C)ascending tracts.
D)pons,cerebellum,and ascending tracts.
E)medulla oblongata and ascending tracts.
Q2) The autonomic nervous system regulates the activity of all of the following except A)skeletal muscles.
B)cardiac muscles.
C)glands of the body.
D)smooth muscles.
E)none of these
Q3) __________ neural excitations are the electrical forms in which short-term memories are stored.
A)Peripheral
B)Sympathetic
C)Transient
D)Autonomic
E)Limbic
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Sensory Systems
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Q1) The lateral line system provides ________ with a sense of "distant touch," enabling these animals to sense objects that reflect pressure waves and low-frequency vibrations.
A)amphibians
B)reptiles
C)birds
D)mammals
E)fish
Q2) All input from sensory neurons to the central nervous system arrives in the same form,as ____________ propagated by afferent sensory neurons.Perception of the stimuli about type and intensity depend on the projection of the impulse to which part of the brain and its frequency by the sensory neuron.
A)action potentials
B)receptor potentials
C)reflexes
D)frequency localizations
E)thresholds
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Chapter 46: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Unlike other hormones,the hormones of the posterior pituitary gland are transported to the hypothalamus by
A)the limbic system.
B)blood vessels.
C)neuron axons.
D)the lymphatic system.
E)the hypopituitary shunt.
Q2) The action of a lipophilic hormones involve all of the following except:
I-Hormone molecules pass through the target cell's plasma membrane and bind to intracellular receptor proteins.
II-The hormone-receptor complex binds to specific regions of DNA,thereby activating genes and producing action in the target cells.
III-The second messengers activate previously inactive enzymes.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)I and II
E)I,II,and III
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Page 48
Chapter 47: The Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) In bone,crystals of calcium phosphate impregnate the extracellular matrix containing fibers of A)actin.
B)cellulose.
C)collagen.
D)myosin.
E)troponin.
Q2) _________ is a sustained muscle contraction.
A)Tetanus
B)A fast-twitch
C)Tension
D)A slow-twitch
Q3) Which of the following regarding bone growth is false?
A)Cartilage of growth plates actively grow in lengthwise direction.
B)Increase in bone thickness results from the adding of bone layers on top of the periosteum.
C)Some cartilage remains after it is replaced by bone.
D)Cartilage calcification encroaches on the cartilaginous growth plate.
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Chapter 48: The Digestive System
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Q1) If one examined the various layers of the gastrointestinal tract of a vertebrate,they would encounter (going from outside the tract to inside of the tract)
A)the submucosa,the mucosa,the lumen,the plexuses,and the serosA.
B)the serosa,submucosa,and the mucosa.
C)the serosa,submucosa,and the lumen.
D)the mucosa,the plexuses,and the serosa.
E)the serosa,the mucosa,and the submucosa.
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the components of the gastrointestinal tract?
A)mouth
B)larynx
C)esophagus
D)stomach
E)small intestine
Q3) Why doesn't the stomach acid just digest right through the wall of the stomach?
A)It does,we just rebuild the layers faster than they can be digested.
B)Neutralizers are imbedded in the stomach lining.
C)The ph of the stomach acid is not low enough to be able to digest the lining.
D)Food prevents the acid from digesting the wall of the stomach.
E)The lining of the stomach is protected by mucus.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is not a solute found in the plasma?
A)metabolites,wastes,and hormones
B)ions
C)albumins
D)collagen
E)globulins
Q2) In the countercurrent exchange in a fish's gills,the oxygen concentration is always _______ in the water than the blood along the entire pathway of each lamella.
A)higher
B)lower
C)the same
Q3) A second oxygen reserve is found in muscle cells using the oxygen-binding protein
_______________.
A)myoglobin
B)hemocyanin
C)oxyhemoglobin
D)deoxyhemoglobin
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Chapter 50: The Circulatory System
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Q1) The fish heart is a modified tube with _____ chambers arrayed one after the other.
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)six
E)eight
Q2) Which of the following vessels carries oxygenated blood?
A)pulmonary arteries
B)pulmonary veins
C)femoral vein
D)inferior vena cava
E)renal vein
Q3) Basophile
A)lymphoid stem cell
B)megakaryocyte
C)monoblast
D)reticulocyte
E)myeloblast
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52
Chapter 51: Osmotic Regulation and the Urinary System
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Q1) All of the following are reabsorbed in the nephron except A)glucose.
B)amino acids.
C)urea.
D)vitamins.
E)certain ions.
Q2) Most vertebrates maintain homeostasis in regard to the total solute concentrations of their extracellular fluids and in regard to concentrations of specific inorganic ions.Which of the following ions should be excluded from consideration in the extracellular regulation of their concentration?
A)Fe ions
B)Ca ions
C)Mg ions
D)Na ions
E)Cl ions
Q3) ADH makes the collecting ducts _____________.
A)impermeable to water
B)more permeable to water
C)less permeable to water
D)semipermeable to water
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Chapter 52: The Immune System
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Q1) When a person is tested for HIV,if _______ to the HIV are present the test is called positive.
A)bacteria
B)antigens
C)antibodies
D)T-cells
E)natural killer cells
Q2) __________ are helper and inducer cells.
A)B cells
B)Macrophages
C)Plasma cells
D)T cells
E)Monocytes
Q3) Which of the following is not a nonspecific defense of the vertebrate system?
A)cells that ingest invading microbes
B)antimicrobial proteins that kill pathogens
C)immunoglobulin synthesis
D)the inflammatory response
E)the temperature response
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Page 54
Chapter 53: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Vertebrates that practice internal fertilization employ three strategies for embryonic and fetal development.The strategy in which the female retains the eggs within her body and the young are fully developed when they hatch inside of her is called A)oviparity.
B)ovoviviparity.
C)viviparity.
D)protogyny.
E)protandry.
Q2) Ovulation occurs by the sudden secretion of A)estrogen hormone.
B)luteinizing hormone.
C)follicle stimulation hormone.
D)progesterone hormone.
E)hCG hormonE.
Q3) The only mammals that lay eggs are called A)monotremes.
B)placentals.
C)marsupials.
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Animal Development
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Q1) Step IV
A)Some of the zona pellucida is degraded by acrosomal enzymes.
B)Enzymes are released by cortical granules that harden the zona pellucida.
C)Sperm and egg fuse at the plasma membrane.
D)Sperm penetrates the cronoa radiata.
E)The sperm nucleus dissociates and enters the cytoplasm.
F)Additional sperm can no longer penetrate.
Q2) Step I
A)Some of the zona pellucida is degraded by acrosomal enzymes.
B)Enzymes are released by cortical granules that harden the zona pellucida.
C)Sperm and egg fuse at the plasma membrane.
D)Sperm penetrates the cronoa radiata.
E)The sperm nucleus dissociates and enters the cytoplasm.
F)Additional sperm can no longer penetrate.
Q3) Milk production in mammary alveoli is stimulated by
A)oxytocin.
B)prolactin.
C)chorionic gonadotropin.
D)progesterone.
E)estrogen.
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Chapter 55: Behavioral Biology
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Q1) Tinbergen is credited with founding the field of behavioral _______,the study of how natural selection shapes behavior.
A)genetics
B)ecology
C)symptomology
D)demographics
Q2) Artificial selection and hybridization can demonstrate the __________ basis of behavior.
A)cognitive
B)instinctive
C)genetic
D)associational
E)endogenous
Q3) By evaluating and selecting mates with superior qualities,an animal can increase its A)reproductive success.
B)learning.
C)competitive strategies.
D)foraging efficiency.
E)length of lifE.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Population Ecology
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Q1) In the sigmoid growth curve,the number of individuals at any one time is A)r.
B)N.
C)K.
D)dN/dt.
E)N/K.
Q2) The rate at which a population of a given species will increase when no limits are placed on its rate of growth is called its __________.
A)maximum growth
B)carrying capacity
C)biotic potential
D)optimal growth
Q3) A small group of mice are released on an island without mice but with abundant food for mice and no predators.Initially,the growth of the mouse population will be limited mainly by
A)the carrying capacity.
B)its birth rate.
C)its biotic potential.
D)only density-dependent factors.
E)only independent-dependent factors.
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Chapter 57: Community of Ecology
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Q1) Most important in the defense of plants against herbivores;compounds are characteristic of individual plant families.
A)coevolution
B)aposematic coloration
C)cryptic coloration
D)secondary chemical compounds
E)Batesian mimicry
Q2) A relationship in which both members benefit is called
A)predation.
B)parasitism.
C)mutualism.
D)commensalism.
E)sympatric.
Q3) In ________ mimicry,two or more unrelated but protected species resemble one another,thus achieving a kind of group defense.
A)Batesian
B)disruptive
C)Müllerian
D)cooperative
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Dynamics of Ecosystems
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69 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ is a permeable underground layer of rock,sand,and gravel saturated with groundwater.
A)natural spring
B)aquifer
C)hot spring
D)submergence
Q2) Except for nitrogen,_________ is the element most likely to be present in amounts so small as to limit the growth of plants.
A)phosphorus
B)potassium
C)sulfur
D)magnesium
Q3) What feature do the carbon and nitrogen cycles have in common?
A)a large atmospheric component
B)involvement in global climate change
C)often a limiting nutrient
D)mostly local cycling
E)many microbes involved in cycling
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Chapter 59: The Biosphere
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Q1) The eastern sides of the Sierra Nevada mountains are much drier than the western sides,and the vegetation is often different;this phenomenon is called the A)solar effect.
B)precipitation effect.
C)latitude effect.
D)rain shadow effect.
E)cloud shadow effect.
Q2) Non-biodegradable material that still remains largely unchanged in the solid waste dumps.
A)chlorofluorocarbons
B)ozone layer
C)carbon dioxide and sulfur
D)coal,natural gas,oil
E)plastics
Q3) About three-quarters of Earth is covered by _________ ecosystems.
A)freshwater
B)terrestrial
C)forested
D)marine
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Conservation Biology
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Q1) Starting with the overharvesting of plankton-eating whales by humans and ending with the thinning of the kelp forests in the Alaska near-shore community,which one of the following intervening events would have occurred fourth?
A)sea otter populations decline
B)killer whales switch to a new prey
C)pollock populations increase
D)sea urchin populations explode
E)sea lion and harbor seal populations drastically decline
Q2) The various endemic cichlid species of Lake Victoria have suffered losses in their population numbers and species due to the introduction of
A)the Nile crocodile.
B)the Nile perch.
C)a new algae species.
D)a new ectoparasite that lives on the gills.
E)a fish hawk.
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