Course Introduction
General Biology II Exam Practice Tests
General Biology II builds upon the foundations established in the first semester of introductory biology, delving into the diversity, structure, function, and evolution of living organisms beyond the molecular and cellular levels. This course covers major topics such as the classification and characteristics of plants, animals, fungi, and other life forms, with an emphasis on their physiology, development, and ecological roles. Students will also explore broader themes like evolutionary processes, systematics, population biology, and ecosystems, gaining a comprehensive understanding of how living organisms interact with each other and their environments. Laboratory activities complement lectures by providing hands-on experience in observation, experimentation, and scientific analysis.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Concepts and Investigations 2nd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels
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Page 2
Chapter 1: What Is Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ammonium nitrate is:
A)An atom
B)A molecule
C)A cell
D)A tissue
E)A biosphere
Answer: B
Q2) Which class do humans belong to?
A)Animalia
B)Mammalia
C)Primates
D)Eukarya
E)Hominidae
Answer: B
Q3) A theory is an advanced hypothesis that has been proven to be true.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Saturated fats have long straight tails of fatty acids,while unsaturated fats have kinks in their tails due to double bonds.These kinks prevent the fats from packing together as tightly.Animals that are ectothermic (cold blooded)need to keep their membranes fluid at cooler temperature and thus use ______ in their membranes.
A)Mostly unsaturated fats
B)Mostly saturated fats
C)Equal amounts of saturated and unsaturated fats
D)Carbohydrates
E)Proteins
Answer: A
Q2) If a fossil has only 25% of its <sup>14</sup>C remaining,how old is it?
A)5,730 years
B)2,865 years
C)1,432.5 years
D)22,920 years
E)11,460 years
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: The Dynamic Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are recycling centers for the cell?
A)Ribosome and Golgi apparatus
B)Endoplasmic reticulum and chloroplast
C)Mitochondria and nucleus
D)Central vacuole and lysosome
E)All are correct
Answer: D
Q2) In a human,the intestines need to form a barrier to prevent bacteria and other microbes from moving into the bloodstream from the gut.Which of the following would prevent bacteria from moving between intestinal cells?
A)Gap junction
B)Plasmodesmata
C)Anchoring junction
D)Cell wall
E)Tight junction
Answer: E
Q3) All living cells have a cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A contractile vacuole is not:
A)Used to pump water into a cell
B)Found in Paramecium
C)Used to pump water out of a cell
D)An organelle
E)None of these are correct
Q2) An enzyme:
A)Is not catalytic
B)Is not necessary to sustain life in a cell
C)Both A and B are correct
D)Is a protein
E)Both A and C are correct
Q3) Whenever ATP is produced by a chemical reaction some energy is lost into the surroundings as heat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When an end product of a reaction pathway is in excess and inhibits the first enzyme of the pathway,this is an example of positive feedback.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rise of photosynthetic organisms:
A)raised the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere lowering sea levels.
B)decreased the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere lowering sea levels.
C)decreased the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere raising sea levels.
D)raised the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere raising sea levels.
Q2) Photosynthesis:
A)is not dependent on chlorophyll.
B)is not an oxidation-reduction reaction.
C)is a process that produces water and carbon dioxide.
D)is a process that produces glucose and oxygen.
E)none are correct
Q3) The Calvin Cycle:
A)is a cyclic pathway that produces three carbon molecules from CO<sub>2</sub>.
B)is a linear pathway that produces three carbon molecules from CO<sub>2</sub>.
C)is a cyclic pathway that produces ATP and NADPH.
D)is a linear pathway that produces ATP and NADPH.
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Chapter 6: How Cells Release Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as its final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anaerobic respiration uses an inorganic molecule other than O<sub>2</sub> as the electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The largest molecule in the Krebs cycle contains ____ carbon atoms.
A)1
B)3
C)5
D)4
E)6
Q4) Cellular respiration includes glycolysis,the Kreb's cycle,and electron transport.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Dna Structure and Gene Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are only two main types of RNA needed to make proteins.They are tRNA and rRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A gene is any DNA sequence that is transcribed to any type of RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A transgenic organism is an organism that receives all of its genes from only a single parent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) FOXP2 sequences were the most different between mice and _____.
A)Rhesus monkeys
B)Gorillas
C)Chimpanzees
D)Humans
E)All had the same number of changes from the mouse sequence
Q5) A somatic mutation is a mutation that occurs in cells that give rise to gametes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Dna Replication, mitosis and the Cell Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence of 5' ATGTGCC 3' the complementary strand of DNA will read:
A)3' ATGTGCC 5'
B)3' TACACGG 5'
C)3' UACACGG 5'
D)3' CGTGTAA 5'
E)3' GGCACAT 5'
Q2) An example of a haploid cell is:
A)A skin cell
B)A sperm cell
C)A zygote
D)A stem cell
E)All are correct
Q3) A micron is:
A)One tenth (.1) of a meter
B)One thousandth (.001) of a meter
C)One millionth (.000001) of a meter
D)One hundredth (.01) of a meter
E)One thousand meters
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tragopogon mirus is a hybrid of T.dubius and T porrifolius.Based on Figure 9.19,T.mirus has:
A)12 chromosomes from T. d ubius and 12 chromosomes from T porrifolius
B)6 chromosomes from T. dubius and 6 chromosomes from T porrifolius
C)24 chromosomes from T. dubius and 24 chromosomes from T porrifolius
D)24 chromosomes from T. dubius
E)24 chromosomes from T porrifolius
Q2) Diploid means having:
A)One complete set of chromosomes
B)Three complete sets of chromosomes
C)Two complete sets of chromosomes
D)Two chromosomes in each somatic cell
E)Two chromosomes in each gamete
Q3) When a woman's egg ovulates it arrests in metaphase II until it is fertilized by a sperm.How many chromosomes will be present in the egg?
A)46
B)2
C)4
D)23
E)1
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Crossing over is more likely to separate genes on a chromosome if they are:
A)Close together
B)Far apart
C)Recessive genes
D)Dominant genes
E)Mutated genes
Q2) Bollworms raised for decades in a lab without exposure to Bt were ___ while those fed Bt were ___.
A)rr, RR
B)Rr, rr
C)RR, Rr
D)RR, rr
E)Rr, RR
Q3) In Figure 10.28,the genotype of the resistant parental bollworms is ___ while the susceptible parental bollworms have a ___ genotype.
A)rr, RR
B)RR, rr
C)Rr, rr
D)RR, Rr
E)Rr, RR
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Chapter 11: The Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Sample Questions
Q1) Convergent evolution means:
A)That organisms living in similar habitats may develop similar traits even though they are not closely related
B)Different organisms will never have similar traits
C)That evolution converges on a desired body form based on an external plan or design
D)That all species will eventually have the same traits
E)That some life forms are more evolved and therefore superior to other life forms
Q2) The scientist who was the first to recognize the principle of superposition was:
A)Charles Darwin
B)Georges Cuvier
C)James Hutton
D)Georges Buffon
E)Charles Lyell
Q3) Natural populations usually fulfill the conditions needed for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
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13
Chapter 12: Evidence for Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Earth once consisted of a single large landmass and one ocean.The landmass is named:
A)Panthalassa
B)Pangaea
C)Laurasia
D)Gondwana
E)Ultima Continenta
Q2) Carbon-14 is useful in determining the age of a fossil up to about:
A)40,000 years ago
B)10,000 years ago
C)20,000 years ago
D)50,000 years ago
E)100,000 years ago
Q3) Some dinosaurs and birds share characteristics that make flight possible such as:
A)Hollow bones
B)A horizontal back
C)A short tail
D)A bipedal stance
E)All are correct
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Speciation and Extinction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which new species originate:
A)Is germination
B)Is extinction
C)Occurred only once in Earth's history
D)Is speciation
E)Occurred for millions of years but is no longer occurring
Q2) Tortoises colonizing the different Gala pagos islands and evolving into different species is an example of ____ speciation.
A)prezygotic
B)allopatric
C)postzygotic
D)sympatric
E)parapatric
Q3) Polyploid means:
A)Having an abnormal number of two or more individual chromosomes
B)Having only one set of chromosomes
C)Having three or more chromosomes
D)Having an abnormal number of one particular chromosome
E)Having three or more sets of chromosomes
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Origin and History of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A buried skeletal find of a specimen has the foramen magnum tucked beneath the skull; this indicates that the skeletal remains are:
A)Of a chimpanzee
B)Of a human
C)Of a lesser ape
D)Of a gorilla
E)All are correct
Q2) Based on DNA sequence analysis,humans and chimps have 96% of their DNA sequences alike,with 99% of the coding regions alike.The biggest differences between the sequences of chimps and humans are in which of the following?
A)Regions are transcribed into proteins
B)All regions are equally different
C)Regions that do not encode proteins
D)Regions that are transcribed into RNA
E)DNA found outside of the chromosomes
Q3) A time of great adaptive radiation for mammals occurred during the Tertiary period.
A)True
B)False
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16
Chapter 15: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reviewing figure 15.4,why could researchers use PCR to amplify viral DNA from the chimp Marilyn's tissues?
A)Because the HIV is converted to DNA and integrated into a cell's chromosome
B)Because PCR uses a reverse transcriptase and can thus detect RNA
C)Because HIV uses DNA as its genetic material
D)Because some of the HIV will be stuck to the outside of a cell
E)Because PCR can amplify any genetic material
Q2) An infectious protein is a:
A)Virus
B)Viroid
C)Prion
D)Virion
E)Prophage
Q3) The type of viral infection in which a virus enters a host cell and then remains dormant (hidden)in a host cell's chromosome is:
A)A rare form of viral infection
B)A transgenic infection
C)A lytic infection
D)A systematic infection
E)A lysogenic infection
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Chapter 16: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a tetanus shot,patients are injected with small amounts of tetanospasmin,a toxin produced by the Clostridium tetani,the bacterium that causes tetanus.The gene for this protein is carried on a plasmid in the bacterium.Which of the following is true of this gene?
A)It is part of the Clostridium tetani chromosome
B)It cannot go through horizontal gene transfer
C)It can enter another bacterium by transformation
D)It cannot go through vertical gene transfer
E)It is found in the nucleus of the Clostridium tetani
Q2) Polymyxins are antibiotics that bind to lipopolysaccharide (LPS)in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria,disrupting both the outer and inner membranes.The hydrophobic tail is important in causing membrane damage,suggesting a detergent-like mode of action.Why doesn't polymyxin also damage human membranes?
A)Because human cells do not have inner and outer membranes
B)Because human membranes do not contain LPS
C)Because human cells do not have cell walls
D)Because human membranes have enzymes that degrade LPS
E)Because bacterial membranes do not contain phospholipids like human membranes
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chloroplasts in algae are thought to have arisen from which source?
A)Cyanobacteria
B)Aerobic bacteria
C)Anaerobic bacteria
D)Photosynthetic viruses
E)Aerobic fungi
Q2) One reason that malaria continues to be the world's most significant infectious disease is because Plasmodium falciparum continues to develop resistance to the drugs that have been used to treat malaria.This is due to which of the following?
A)Some Plasmodium falciparum have pre-existing mutations that make them resistant to antimalarial drugs
B)Some mosquitoes have pre-existing mutations that make them resistant to antimalarial drugs
C)Some people have pre-existing mutations that make them resistant to antimalarial drugs
D)The antimalarial drugs cause mutations to occur in Plasmodium falciparum
E)The antimalarial drugs cause mutations to occur in the mosquito
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Chapter 18: Plants
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Q1) The first land plants were bryophytes,which then branched into ferns,gymnosperms,and finally angiosperms.What advantage did gymnosperms have over ferns?
A)Gymnosperms produce pollen and do not require water to reproduce
B)Gymnosperms go through alternation of generations
C)Gymnosperms have a vascular system, which allowed them to grow taller
D)The gymnosperms can grow larger gametophytes
E)Gymnosperms can produce flowers and fruits to aid in seed dispersal
Q2) The first land plants were bryophytes,which then branched into ferns,gymnosperms,and finally angiosperms.What advantage did angiosperms have over gymnosperms?
A)Angiosperms can produce flowers and fruits to aid in seed dispersal
B)Angiosperms produce pollen and do not require water to reproduce
C)Angiosperms go through alternation of generations
D)Angiosperms have a vascular system, this allowed them to grow taller
E)The angiosperms can produce spores which are more stable than seeds from gymnosperms
Q3) In bryophytes the sporophyte is conspicuous or dominant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a difference between how a frog and Chytridiomycetes obtain energy?
A)Frogs ingest their food, while Chytridiomycetes secrete digestive enzymes
B)Chytridiomycetes ingest their food, while frogs secrete digestive enzymes
C)Frogs are heterotrophs, while Chytridiomycetes are phototrophs
D)Chytridiomycetes are heterotrophs, while frogs are phototrophs
E)Frogs are autotrophs, while Chytridiomycetes are phototrophs
Q2) Chytridiomycetes produce enzymes that digest cellulose,chitin,and similar molecules.These fungi are contributing to the decline of amphibians world-wide through what mechanism?
A)By infecting their lungs
B)By digesting keratin in the frog's skin
C)By killing their eggs in the water
D)By digesting chitin in the cell wall of the frog's cells
E)By digesting cellulose in the cell wall of the frog's cells
Q3) Molecular evidence places fungi closer to plants than animals.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most successful phylum in regards to diversity and numbers is:
A)Mollusca
B)Nematoda
C)Platyhelminthes
D)Arthropoda
E)Echinodermata
Q2) When Tiktaalik was under water it would take up oxygen dissolved in the water by ___________ into cells in its gills.
A)Simple diffusion
B)Facilitated diffusion
C)Active transport
D)Osmosis
E)Facilitated transport
Q3) Mammals that lay eggs are:
A)Marsupials
B)Placentals
C)Bats
D)Birds
E)Monotremes
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) One way to kill a tree is to girdle it by cutting a groove a centimeter into the bark all around the trunk of the tree.The tree will typically survive that growing season,but will die over the winter.Why wouldn't girdling work on a large grass?
A)The vascular bundles are in a ring just under the bark
B)The vascular bundles are scattered throughout the ground tissue
C)Monocots don't have vascular bundles
D)Eudicots don't have vascular bundles
E)Grasses have taproots
Q2) A collective term for all plant tissues outside the vascular cambium is:
A)Mesophyll tissue
B)Bark
C)Leaf
D)Wood
E)Cork cambium
Q3) If a gardener wanted to help prevent erosion along a slope it would be best to:
A)Plant grasses because they have fibrous roots
B)Plant grasses because they have taproots
C)Plant trees because they have taproots
D)Plant trees because they have fibrous roots
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water and minerals can move through a root's intracellular pathway from one cell to another through:
A)Stomata
B)Plasmodesmata
C)Guard cells
D)Companion cells
E)The Casparian strip
Q2) During drought stress a plant hormone called _____________________ causes the stomata of a plant's leaf to close.
A)Abscisic acid
B)Estrogen
C)Ethylene
D)Malic acid
E)Cuprous oxide
Q3) "P" is the chemical symbol for:
A)Nickel
B)Potassium
C)Plutonium
D)Phosphorous
E)Copper
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Chapter 23: Reproduction and Development of Flowering Plants
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Q1) Where are floral megaspores located?
A)Anther
B)Ovule
C)Corolla
D)Sepal
E)Stigma
Q2) Which structures do fruits arise from?
A)Flowers
B)Leaves
C)Stems
D)Roots
E)Apical meristems
Q3) The plant hormone that stimulates cell division in seeds and fruits is:
A)Cytokinin
B)Jasmonic acid
C)Auxin
D)Ethylene
E)Abscisic acid
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Chapter 24: Animal Tissues, organ Systems and Homeostasis
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Q1) The study of an organism's structure is:
A)Physiology
B)Kinesiology
C)Endocrinology
D)Anatomy
E)Immunology
Q2) The primary function of muscle tissue is:
A)Contraction
B)Absorption
C)Secretion
D)Impulse transmission
E)Compression
Q3) The tissue that makes up the spinal cord and brain consist of:
A)Neurons and adipocytes
B)Platelets and neuroglia
C)Platelets and adipocytes
D)Neurons and platelets
E)Neurons and neuroglia
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Chapter 25: The Nervous System
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Q1) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis,or Lou Gehrig's disease,causes muscle weakness and atrophy due to a decrease in stimulation by which types of neurons?
A)Motor neurons
B)Sensory neurons
C)Interneurons
D)Motor and sensory neurons
E)Sensory and interneurons
Q2) The dendrite,also called the nerve fiber is typically a single long extension of the cell body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The part of the central nervous system that conducts information to and from the brain is the:
A)Motor neuron
B)Spinal cord
C)Sensory neuron
D)Brainstem
E)Medulla oblongata
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Chapter 26: The Senses Content
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Sample Questions
Q1) A phenomenon in which sensations become less noticeable with prolonged exposure is called:
A)Gradient adaptation
B)An action potential
C)A graded potential
D)Radiating adaptation
E)Sensory adaptation
Q2) The fluid that cleanses and nourishes the cornea and lens of the eye is:
A)The vitreous humor
B)Tear fluid
C)The aqueous humor
D)Rhodopsin
E)Both A and C are correct
Q3) To correct for nearsightedness concave lenses should be used in eyeglasses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A pheromone is a volatile chemical substance that elicits a specific response in members of a different species.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurotransmitters and hormones never share the same target cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) BPA would be considered which of the following?
A)A neurotoxin
B)An endocrine disruptor
C)An antibiotic
D)A synthetic hormone
E)A positive feedback stimulator
Q3) The parathyroid gland is a homologous structure to which of the following in a fish?
A)Gills
B)Fins
C)Lungs
D)Thyroid gland
E)Parathyroid gland
Q4) In Type II diabetes,specialized cells in the pancreas fail to produce insulin and release it into the blood stream.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which of the following is not an important function of calcium in vertebrates?
A)Blood clotting
B)Muscle contraction
C)Transport of oxygen to the body's cells
D)Cell membrane permeability
E)Strengthening of bone
Q2) Skeletal muscle contraction is important in maintaining body temperature homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are trying out for the USA Olympic gymnastics team.Everything is going well until you turn your ankle on the landing and tore a connection between two bones.Now you will have to wait another four years.Which of the following could you have done to your ankle?
A)Sprained a ligament
B)Strained a ligament
C)Sprained a tendon
D)Strained a tendon
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Chapter 29: The Circulatory System
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Q1) If a person has type "O" blood they have both the "A" and "B" markers on their red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The semilunar valves:
A)Prevent arterial blood from reentering the ventricles
B)Prevent blood from reentering the atria when ventricles contract
C)Prevent the back flow of blood in large veins
D)Are located between the atria and ventricles
E)Prevent blood from entering the arteries
Q3) Why could you donate plasma twice a week?
A)Plasma only contains proteins and fluid which can be rapidly replaced
B)Plasma contains platelets which can be replaced quickly
C)Plasma contains red blood cells which can be replaced quickly
D)Plasma contains only water and can be rapidly replaced
E)Plasma is regenerated from the blood cells injected back into the donor
Q4) The sinoatrial node,also called the pacemaker,sets the tempo of the heart beat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is oxygen used in a eukaryotic cell?
A)Cytoplasm
B)Nucleus
C)Plasma membrane
D)Mitochondria
E)Lysosome
Q2) How does an insect "hold its breath"?
A)By closing its tracheae
B)By closing its mouth
C)By closing its spiracles
D)By closing its gills
E)By closing its nostrils
Q3) Air moves into the lungs when the air pressure in the lungs is __________________ than the air pressure outside of the lungs.This occurs when the muscles of the diaphragm _______________.
A)Lower, relax
B)Lower, contract
C)Higher, relax
D)Higher, contract
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Chapter 31: Digestion and Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Rhythmic smooth muscle contractions occurring along the human digestive system that propel food along the system are termed:
A)Countercurrent exchange
B)Phagocytosis
C)Peristalsis
D)Rumination
E)Sphincter contractions
Q2) When people with celiac disease eat foods or use products containing gluten,their immune system responds by damaging or destroying villi.Which of the following symptoms would a person with celiac disease have?
A)Decreased peristalsis
B)Increased pH in their intestines
C)Increased digestive enzymes in their intestines
D)Decreased absorption of nutrients
E)Decreased bile in their intestines
Q3) A person who is lactose intolerant may be able to eat dairy products such as yogurt because those products have already been fermented.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Regulation of Temperature and Body Fluids
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Q1) In animals,which of the following help retain body heat?
A)Fat and feathers
B)Feathers and fur
C)Fur, fat, and feathers
D)Fur and fat
E)Fur
Q2) Kidney stones are calcium-rich crystals that form inside the kidney.What symptoms would you expect if the stones lodge in a ureter?
A)Increased urine production
B)Decreased urine pH
C)Increased urine pH
D)Decreased urine production
E)Decreased urine osmolarity
Q3) Since small amounts of ammonia are very toxic,mammals convert ammonia to urea for concentration before excretion occurs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: The Immune System
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Q1) How did the authors test if flatworms could moderate the immune system?
A)By exposing white blood cells to flatworm antigens and measuring IL-10 concentrations
B)By exposing white blood cells to dust mite antigens and measuring IL-10 concentrations
C)By exposing white blood cells to flatworm antigens and measuring histamine concentrations
D)By exposing white blood cells to dust mite antigens and measuring histamine concentrations
E)By infecting children with flatworms and looking at their number of white blood cells
Q2) The region of an antibody molecule that recognizes and binds to an antigen is the: A)Hinge region
B)Variable region
C)Constant region
D)Base of the antibody molecule
E)Heavy chain only
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Chapter 34: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) The hormone released from the hypothalamus that stimulates release of LH and FSH in both the male and female is:
A)Human growth hormone
B)Testosterone
C)Gonadotropin releasing hormone
D)Antidiuretic hormone
E)Epinephrine
Q2) In the male,the tube that extends the length of the penis and carries semen out of the body is the:
A)Ejaculatory duct
B)Ureter
C)Urethra
D)Seminiferous tubule
E)Vas deferens
Q3) The end of the uterus that opens to the vagina is the:
A)Labia minora
B)Cervix
C)Vaginal orifice
D)Clitoris
E)Labia majora
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Chapter 35: Animal Behavior
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Q1) What was the purpose of the Group C control in figure 35.26?
A)To determine if injection of any gene into the reward area of the brain caused a change in bonding.
B)To determine if injection of the ADH receptor in other areas of the brain caused a change in bonding.
C)To determine if injection of any gene into other areas of the brain caused a change in bonding.
D)To determine if injection of the ADH receptor into the reward area of the brain caused a change in bonding.
E)To determine if injection of ADH into the reward area of the brain caused a change in bonding.
Q2) A movement toward or away from a stimulus is a(an):
A)Reflex
B)Fixed action pattern
C)Taxis
D)Aneurysm
E)Methodology
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Chapter 36: Populations
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Q1) If a deer herd has a population of 1000,a carrying capacity of 2000,and an intrinsic rate of growth of 10% (0.1),how much will the deer population grow in a year?
A)100
B)50
C)10
D)500
E)1000
Q2) In a population growth curve that is affected by environmental resistance the formula G = rN(K-N)/K is used to calculate the number of new individuals added after each time interval.In this equation "K" represents the:
A)Environmental resistance
B)Per capita rate of increase
C)The number of individuals added per unit time
D)The carrying capacity for the organism being studied
E)The number of individuals at the start of a time interval
Q3) When exponential growth is plotted over time a J-shaped curve emerges.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) All the organisms plus the nonliving components of a defined area is a(an):
A)Population
B)Community
C)Ecosystem
D)Habitat
E)Niche
Q2) What did the scientists conclude from figure 37.19?
A)Plants survived the heat best with virus-infected fungi
B)Plants survived the heat best with virus-free fungi
C)Plants survived the heat best without fungi
D)Plants survived the heat best when infected by the virus
E)Plants survived the heat best when not infected by the virus
Q3) The tidal zones in which the barnacles Balanus and Cthalamus thrive when both species are present illustrate the principle of:
A)Symbiotic inclusion
B)Parasitism
C)Oceanic restriction
D)Competitive exclusion
E)None of the above are correct
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Chapter 38: The Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Streams include brooks,creeks,and rivers that carry water and sediment toward the ocean or an interior basin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As you climb the mountain,why are the biomes changing?
A)The air is thinner
B)The latitude is changing
C)More rain falls in a rain shadow
D)Some animals live better at higher elevations
E)It is colder
Q3) The area of an ocean consisting of all the water above the ocean floor is the:
A)Benthic zone
B)Intertidal zone
C)Pelagic zone
D)Neritic zone
E)Littoral zone
Q4) Nutrient-rich lakes are termed eutrophic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Conserving Biodiversity
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Q1) Overexploitation is harvesting a species faster than it can reproduce.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One important conservation tool used to restore native populations is to set aside an area and protect it from overexploitation,invasive species,and habitat destruction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What was a disadvantage of digging canals in the Everglades?
A)Increased cropland
B)Increased flooding during hurricanes
C)Increased risk of algae blooms
D)Increased floodplain wetlands
E)Increased water shortages during drought
Q4) In addition to filling in lakes,why is eutrophication a biological concern?
A)Filling in lakes is the only major concern
B)Excess plant growth leads to high levels of dissolved oxygen
C)Excess plant growth makes it difficult for primary consumers to find food
D)High levels of nutrients are toxic to plants
E)When the plants die and decompose dissolved oxygen levels drop
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