General Biology I Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
General Biology I provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, focusing on the molecular and cellular basis of life. The course explores key topics such as the structure and function of cells, biochemical processes, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of living organisms. Students will gain a foundational understanding of how organisms grow, reproduce, and interact with their environments, preparing them for more advanced studies in the biological sciences. Laboratory sessions accompanying the lectures offer hands-on experience in scientific observation, experimentation, and data analysis.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Biology 1st Edition by Robert Brooker
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Biology
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Q1) What is the most likely explanation for a group of crocodiles having acquired lower incubation temperatures giving rise to male crocodiles?
A)Horizontal gene transfer from a related species has introduced changes in this group's genome
B)Horizontal gene transfer from a related species has introduced changes in this group's proteome
C)One or more mutations in the genome have been passed through the group by vertical descent
D)One or more mutations in the proteome have been passed through the group by vertical descent
Answer: C
Q2) The proteome,rather than genome,is most directly responsible for the structure,function,and appearance of organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Basis of Life I: Atoms, Molecules, and Water
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Q1) Based on the colligative properties of water,what would happen if one were to add a solute to water?
A)The freezing point of water would decrease.
B)The freezing point of water would increase.
C)The boiling point of water would increase.
D)Both the freezing point of water would decrease and the boiling point of water would increase.
E)Nothing would change with respect to the freezing point or boiling point of water.
Answer: D
Q2) The nucleus of an atom is composed of A)protons.
B)neutrons.
C)electrons.
D)protons and neutrons.
E)protons and electrons.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Chemical Basis of Life II: Organic Molecules
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Q1) The structural difference between saturated and unsaturated fats causes what type of change at room temperature?
A)Linear structure of a fatty acid causes solid formation at room temperature.
B)Double bonds in saturated fatty acids cause a solid structure at room temperature.
C)A linear structure causes a loose forming macromolecule that is liquid at room temperature.
D)The double bonds require higher temperatures at room temperature to make this fatty acid into a liquiD.
Answer: A
Q2) Proteins can have separate domains with distinct structures and functions. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A polyunsaturated fat contains fatty acids with multiple double bonded carbons. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: General Features of Cells
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Q1) You design a drug that transforms skin cells into cells that secrete insulin.Which cellular aspect is the drug most likely to affect?
A)Phenotypic traits.
B)Epigenetics.
C)The proteome.
D)Transcriptional factors.
Q2) The route that most accurately describes secretory protein movement through the endomembrane would be
A)Golgi apparatus\(\rarr\)lysosome\(\rarr\)vesicles\(\rarr\)plasma membrane
B)plasmid\(\rarr\)plasma membrane\(\rarr\)nuclear envelope\(\rarr\)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)nuclear envelope\(\rarr\)vesicles\(\rarr\)Golgi apparatus\(\rarr\)plasma membrane
D)rough endoplasmic reticulum\(\rarr\)lysosomes\(\rarr\)vesicles\(\rarr\)cell membrane
E)rough endoplasmic reticulum\(\rarr\) Golgi apparatus\(\rarr\)vesicles \(\rarr\)plasma membrane
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Chapter 5: Membrane Structure, Transport, and Cell
Junctions
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Q1) The pressure required to stop water from moving across the membrane by osmosis is called
A)transport pressure.
B)crenation pressure.
C)atmospheric pressure.
D)osmotic pressure.
E)mechanical pressurE.
Q2) The best way to describe cellular membranes are
A)fluid with lipid rafts.
B)solely composed of lipids.
C)composed of a single layer of amphipathic molecules.
D)selective to the transport of gases and small molecules only.
E)found in eukaryotes,but not prokaryotes.
Q3) If the tight junctions in the intestine were disrupted
A)small molecules would not be able to move into cells lining the intestine.
B)intestinal cells could not attach to integral membrane proteins.
C)intestinal cells could not attach to the extracellular matrix.
D)small molecules would not be exchanged between neighboring intestinal cells.
E)bacteria could move from the intestines to the bloodstream causing an infection.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Energy, Enzymes, and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) Oxygen is an excellent final electron acceptor because of its low electronegativity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Assuming that the glycerol backbone of a fat molecule can be converted to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate,an intermediate in glycolysis,how many ATP can be produced from the glycerol backbone of a fat molecule?
A)8
B)2
C)12
D)36
E)18
Q3) A chemical reaction that has a positive \(\Delta\)G is correctly described as A)spontaneous B)endergonic.
C)exothermiC.
D)enthalpic.
E)endothermic.
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Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The pigment responsible for the red-yellow coloration seen in leaves during the color change in autumn is
A)chlorophyll b.
B)carotenoid.
C)phytol.
D)chlorophyll a. E)porphyrin.
Q2) Identify a reactant in the light reaction of photosynthesis.
A)carbon dioxide
B)ATP
C)H<sub>2</sub>O
D)NADPH
E)oxygen
Q3) In which organelle of the plant does photosynthesis takes place?
A)grana
B)mesophyll
C)thylakoid membrane
D)mitochondria
E)chloroplast
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Chapter 8: Cell Communication
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Q1) What do contact-dependent signaling and paracrine signaling have in common?
A)Cells release a signal that affects cells at long distances.
B)Cells bind a membrane bound signal on a neighboring cell.
C)Cells release a signal that affects it and neighboring cells.
D)Cells release a signal that affects neighboring cells.
E)Cells release a signal through gap junctions to affect neighboring cells.
Q2) If the concentration of a ligand is 100 times greater than the Kd of its receptor,
A)half of the receptors will be bound to a ligand.
B)few of the receptors will be bound to a ligand.
C)none of the receptors will be bound to a ligand.
D)most of the receptors will be bound to a liganD.
Q3) When a signal is released from one neuron and it moves to another neuron or to a muscle cell,the signal binds to a
A)ligand-gated ion channel.
B)voltage-gated ion channel.
C)nuclear receptor.
D)enzyme-linked receptor.
E)G-protein coupled receptor.
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acid Structure, DNA Replication, and
Chromosome Structure
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Q1) Why is there a need to produce Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand,but not on the leading strand of DNA?
A)The two parental strands of DNA are antiparallel and DNA polymerase makes DNA in the 5' to 3'direction only.
B)It is substantially more efficient to make several shorter strands rather than one longer strand of DNA.
C)There is not enough cellular DNA ligase for bonding Okazaki fragments together if they were produced from both parental strands.
D)By having one leading strand and one lagging strand the cell can limit the amount of DNA polymerase used for chromosomal replication.
E)The leading strand opens first,and so Okazaki fragments are not needed.The lagging strand unwinds second resulting in the need to produce Okazaki fragments.
Q2) If there is 28% adenine,then there must be 28% cytosine for the DNA composition of a particular organism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Gene Expression at the Molecular Level
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Q1) The process that produces mRNA from DNA is called
A)transcription.
B)translation.
C)replication.
D)processing.
E)post-translational modification.
Q2) The termination of translation occurs when a release factor recognizes the stop codon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The amino acids of a growing polypeptide chain are held together by what kind of bond during the elongation stage of translation?
A)hydrogen
B)peptide
C)glycosidic
D)noncovalent
E)lactose
Q4) In eukaryotes,40S and 60S combine to form a 100S ribosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Gene Regulation
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Q1) The lacP site within the lac operon is upstream of the genes that encode for lactose uptake and metabolism proteins.The lacP site is
A)the lac promoter site.
B)where RNA polymerase binds.
C)the site where genes are transcribed that encode proteins for metabolizing lactose.
D)the lac promoter site where RNA polymerase binds.
E)the lac promoter site,where genes are transcribed that encode proteins for metabolizing lactosE.
Q2) Loosely packed chromatin is said to be in an open conformation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The general transcription factor TFIID
A)recognizes the enhancer.
B)recognizes the TATA box.
C)recognizes the silencer.
D)transcribes mRNA.
E)is a silencer.
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Chapter 12: Mutation, DNA Repair, and Cancer
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Q1) Should a genetic abnormality arise,________ prevent a cell from progressing uncontrollably through the cell cycle.
A)mutagens
B)checkpoint proteins
C)UvrA-D proteins
D)growth factors
E)Ras proteins
Q2) Which of the following is true concerning a somatic cell mutation?
A)A small fraction of the gametes carry the mutation.
B)Half of the gametes carry the mutation.
C)All of the gametes carry the mutation.
D)Only a small group of cells within the organism is affected by the mutation.
E)All cells within the organism are affected by the mutation.
Q3) Most oncogenes encode proteins that function in cell growth signaling pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The movement of DNA polymerase continues unimpeded if a thymine dimer is present in the DNA double helix.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Eukaryotic Cell Cycle, Mitosis, and Meiosis
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Q1) Colchicine is a toxin that binds to tubulin proteins and prevents microtubules from polymerizing.What affect might this have on dividing cells?
A)Cells will be able to complete mitosis,but cytokinesis will not occur
B)Chromosomes will not be able to condense,so mitosis will not occur
C)Sister chromatids will not be properly separated into separate daughter cells
D)Replicated chromosomes will not be able to stick together,so sister chromatids will not properly sort into daughter nuclei
E)The cell will not be able to move past the G1 checkpoint,so DNA will not be replicated.
Q2) A diploid queen honeybee produces eggs by meiosis.Some of these eggs are never fertilized,while the rest are.These unfertilized eggs develop into haploid male honeybees.This can be an example of sexual reproduction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For any given species,cells in metaphase II of meiosis would contain 2* more genetic material than cells in metaphase of mitosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Eyelash length is an inherited trait.In the human population,there is an eyelash length gene.There are two possible variants of this gene - an allele for long eyelashes (> 1cm)and an allele for short eyelashes (1 cm or less).The allele for long eyelashes is dominant (L)and the allele for short eyelashes is recessive (l).An individual who is heterozygous for eyelash length would produce which of the following gametes?
A)All gametes would have the l allele.
B)All gametes would have the L allele.
C)Half of the gametes would have the L allele and half of the gametes would have the l allele.
D)The proportion of gametes receiving each allele would be random;the process of meiosis is very disorganized and chromosomes are not separated in an ordered fashion. E)None of the gametes would have the eyelash gene;gametes do not have eyelashes.
Q2) A human cell with a Barr body always comes from a female.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Barr bodies are a diagnostic feature of X inactivation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Genetics of Viruses and Bacteria
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Q1) How do the reproduction of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)and bacteriophage lambda differ from each other?
A)HIV enocodes and uses reverse transcriptase,while lambda phage does not
B)HIV production requires integrase,while bacteriophage lambda does not
C)HIV can reproduce in either eukaryotic or prokaryotic cells,while bacteriophage lambda can only infect bacteria
D)bacteriophage lambda attaches to specific proteins on the cell surface,while HIV does not
E)None of these is correct
Q2) Transduction is the result of what "mistake" that viruses make during replication?
A)cutting up the bacterial chromosome
B)cutting up the viral genome
C)transcribing bacterial genes upon excision
D)incorporating bacterial genes during assembly
E)inserting a viral DNA fragment into the bacterial chromosome
Q3) The transfer of genes from dead bacteria to live bacteria is called transformation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Genetic Technology
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Q1) A small amount of DNA is collected from a crime scene.However,the amount of DNA collected is insufficient to perform the necessary experiments to link a suspect to the crime.Which method could be utilized to increase the amount of DNA?
A)microarray analysis
B)gel electrophoresis
C)polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
D)fluorescent labeling of DNA
E)DNA sequencing
Q2) What is TRUE of restriction enzymes?
A)they randomly cleave DNA at sites within a genome
B)they catalyze the formation of hydrogen bonds between DNA fragments
C)they protect bacterial cells from invasion by foreign DNA
D)they are not naturally produced by bacteria,but are bioengineered by humans
E)there are less than 10 restriction enzymes known
Q3) To study the promoter of a gene,a researcher should use a cDNA library.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A genomic DNA library is derived from mRNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Genomes, Repetitive Sequences, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) Genome databases have been created for all of the following model organisms except?
A)fruit fly
B)mouse
C)humans
D)Escherichia coli
E)American alligator
Q2) You overhear colleagues discussing their current research.They mention that they need to purchase a large quantity of dideoxynucleoside triphosphates and that they will be using sonic technology.You also hear them discussing the pros and cons of several computer programs that can align large amounts of overlapping data.What technique do you think your colleagues are preparing for?
A)transposition
B)Gel electrophoresis
C)shotgun sequencing
D)data mining
Q3) In humans,one set of chromosomes is made up of 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) What term describes the time it requires for exactly one-half of a given amount of a radioactive isotope of an element to decay?
A)decay time
B)decay product
C)half-life
D)half-decay
E)useful dating range
Q2) Genetic material (DNA and RNA)are found in three distinct organelles in eukaryotic cells.What are these organelles and which type of relationship may have lead to their formation?
A)Chloroplast,mitochondria,nucleus,endosymbiotic.
B)Chloroplast,lysosomes,nucleus,endosymbiotic.
C)Nucleus,Golgi body,endoplasmic reticulum,symbiotiC.
D)Mitochondria,chloroplast,nucleus,parasitic.
E)Lysosomes,mitochondria,chloroplast,parasitic.
Q3) Which would be most likely to be fossilized?
A)a common large worm
B)a common thick-shelled crustacean
C)an herbaceous plant that is only found at very high altitudes
D)a rare,desert-dwelling lizard
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Chapter 19: An Introduction to Evolution and Population Genetics
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Q1) The process of natural selection results in: Select all that apply.
A) Extinction
B) Random genetic mutations
C) Adaptation
D) Speciation
E) Genetic drift
Q2) The interlocking rib cage of Titaalik roseae suggests that this transition organism had lungs.What other traits were found in T.roseae,but not in its ancestral form?
A)An upright stance.
B)Scales.
C)Primitive wrists and fingers.
D)Fins.
E)Eyes on the side of its head.
Q3) According to Thomas Malthus,food supplies tend to increase linearly while populations have the potential to increase exponentially,which means that resources will limit population growth.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Origin of Species and Macroevolution
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Q1) Frogs "croak" at night to lure females for mating.Females are attracted only to the song of their species.This is an example of
A)hybrid sterility.
B)temporal isolation.
C)hybrid breakdown.
D)behavioral isolation.
E)gametic isolation.
Q2) The Northern leopard frog (Rana pipiens)and Southern leopard frog (Rana utricularia)are morphologically similar,but have undergone behavioral isolation.Based on this,what is the most likely reason they are considered separate species?
A)The Northern species breeds during spring,while the Southern species breeds in late summer.
B)The mating calls of the two species are different.
C)Adults of the Southern species are entirely terrestrial,while adults of the Northern species are entirely aquatiC.
D)Hybrids of the two species are sterile.
E)Sperm of the Northern species are unable to penetrate the membrane of eggs of the Southern species.
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22
Chapter 21: Taxonomy and Systematics
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Q1) Of the taxonomic groups listed below,which is the broadest (contains the most species)?
A)Order
B)Class
C)Family
D)Phylum
E)Kingdom
Q2) A phylogenetic tree is a diagram that describes a phylogeny.A phylogeny is
A)the evolutionary history of a species or group of species.
B)the geographic distribution of populations in a species.
C)the generations of individuals in a population.
D)the distribution of species in a given area in time.
E)a list of character traits of individual species set in a tree diagram.
Q3) The scientific name for the golden crayfish is Orconectes luteus.Based on this information,the crayfish is a member of what genus?
A)Orconectes luteus.
B)Orconectes.
C)luteus.
D)O.luteus.
E)Orconectes l.
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Chapter 22: Microorganisms: The Archaea, Bacteria, and Protists
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Q1) The symptoms of malaria are
A)jaundice
B)abdominal cramps
C)diarrhea and dehydration
D)headaches and nausea
E)alternating chills and fever
Q2) The plastids of kelps and other brown algae arose through secondary endosymbiosis.What modern organisms are most closely related to the type of cell that eventually became these plastids?
A)cyanobacteria
B)Chlamydomonas (a single-celled green alga)
C)Trypanosoma (a kinetoplastid)
D)dinoflagellates
E)coccolithophorids
Q3) An obligate anaerobe is an organism that:
A)is poisoned by oxygen
B)requires oxygen
C)can use oxygen but can get along without it
D)does not use oxygen but is not poisoned by it
E)produces oxygen
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Plants
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Q1) Sporopollenin is
A)a tough protective covering on spores
B)pollen that is produced in a sporophyte
C)the conversion of pollen to spores
D)a capsule housing pollen
E)food stored in pollen for the growing embryo
Q2) A prolonged period without rain is causing a major drought in the American Midwestern states.How would you expect crops to respond initially to the stress caused by the drought?
A)They will take in more carbon dioxide.
B)They will take in less carbon dioxide.
C)They will release more oxygen.
D)They will increase rates of photosynthesis.
E)They produce fewer secondary metabolites.
Q3) Alternation of generations means
A)One phase of the life cycle takes place on land and the other in water.
B)One phase of the life cycle is photosynthetic and the other is heterotrophic.
C)One phase of the life cycle is diploid and the other is haploid.
D)One phase of the life cycle is unicellular and the other is multicellular.
E)One phase of the life cycle is motile and the other is stationary.
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Chapter 24: Fungi
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Q1) You are tutoring another student on the fungi.Fungal taxonomy is something that is very confusing to your pupil.Summarize the current standing of fungal taxonomy so your pupil has an overview of where fungal taxonomy currently stands.
A)Although it is a complicated framework,fungal taxonomy is complete and well agreed on.
B)Fungal taxonomy is incomplete,but the true fungi,nonopisthokont protists are monophyletic.
C)Fungal taxonomy is relatively simple and represents a monophyletic grouping of organisms.
D)Major fungal groups have yet to be formally nameD.
Q2) You observe the symbiotic association of a green algae and a fungus in your backyard.After a time you note that the fungus has sickened,and it eventually dies.What do you predict will happen to the green algae?
A)Nothing;only the fungus received a benefit from the association.
B)The green algae will have more water and minerals available so it will thrive.
C)The green algae will be more vulnerable to environmental stress.
D)The green algae will be shaded by the fungus,so it will thrive.
E)The green algae will have more oxygen available to it will thrivE.
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Chapter 25: Animal Diversity: Invertebrates
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Q1) What is the route of water in the water vascular system of a starfish?
A)Water enters through the madreporite into the ring canal and from thence into the radial canals to the ampullae and finally into the tube feet.
B)Water enters the madreporite into the radial canals and from thence into the ring canal,then the ampullae and finally into the tube feet.
C)Water enters the madreporite into the ampullae and from thence into the ring canal,then the radial canals to the ampullae and finally into the tube feet.
D)Water enters the ampullae and then goes to the tube feet and from thence to the radial canals,then the ring canal,and finally exits through the madreporite.
E)Water enters the ring canal,then goes into the radial canals,and finally through the madreporite to the ampullae and tube feet.
Q2) The animal kingdom is a monophyletic grouping.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Animal Diversity: Vertebrates
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Q1) In Earth's history,what might the cooling of the Earth and the resulting change from a forested to a grassy landscape have made adaptive in humans?
A)grasping fingers
B)complex language
C)social structure
D)bipedalism
Q2) Birds are different from all other living vertebrates because they A)can fly.
B)lack teeth.
C)have feathers.
D)are bipedal.
Q3) Which is an incorrect match of taxonomic category and common name?
A)Dipnoi/lungfish
B)Actinopterygii/ray-finned fish
C)Actinistian/coelacanth
D)Sarcopterygii/sharks and rays
Q4) Hagfish are classified as vertebrates,but they do not have a vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: An Introduction to Flowering Plant Form and Function
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Q1) A plant that you are studying has sluggish wound healing abilities as well as an inability to store significant food reserves.You would like to enhance these properties.If you could enhance the growth of a tissue to improve these properties,which tissue would you enhance?
A)parenchyma of the stem cortex
B)root apical meristem
C)periderm
D)lateral meristem
Q2) Predict what would occur if you removed the shoot apical meristem of a plant embryo.
A)Growth would only occur at in the roots.
B)The plant would grow two or more new shoot apical meristems.
C)The root apical meristem would take over the function of the shoot apical meristem.
D)The plant would mature,but only through vertical growth--no branches would form.
Q3) The word meristem is derived from a Greek word meaning to divide.
A)True
B)False
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Flowering Plants: Plant Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) You isolate a plant that expresses a phytochrome mutant that is always in the P<sub>fr</sub> form.You expect these plants will germinate:
A)not at all.
B)regardless of the light conditions.
C)later than normal plants.
D)similarly to normal plants.
Q2) Several plants of the same type are grown individually under separate glass covers.One plant is attacked by a herbivore.This plant will be able to use __________ to induce defenses in _________ but not _________.
A)Jasmonic acid;nearby plants;itself
B)Systemin;nearby plants;itself
C)Jasmonic acid;itself;nearby plants
D)Auxin;itself;nearby plants
Q3) Which one of the following is not a major plant hormone?
A)auxins
B)brassinosteroids
C)ethylene
D)cytokinins
E)ethanol
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) The Casparian strip prevents apoplastic movement through epidermal cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One function of cell walls in plants is to prevent the continual increase in the expansion of the cell membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would you expect to be happening if a plant is showing water stress?
A)Abscisic acid is being transported to the guard cells.
B)Xylem is no longer functioning to carry water up the plant.
C)The phloem is transporting abscisic acid upward.
D)Blue light is influencing the guard cells.
E)All of these are correct.
Q4) Which cells in the root have a suberin layer called the Casparian strip?
A)Endodermis
B)Cortex
C)Epidermis
D)Root hair
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Chapter 30: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) Mosses and flowering plants differ in their dominant life cycle stages.Coleochaete is a multicellular algae that is considered to be the closest living relative of land plants.Coleochaete spend their entire life as a haploid organism.In what major way do these algae differ from mosses and flowering plants?
A)They have a more prominent sporophyte generation.
B)They do not undergo alternation of generations.
C)They do not undergo mitosis.
D)They do not undergo photosynthesis.
Q2) Seeds for desert plants often germinate once abscisic acid is washed away from the seed by water.In this scenario,abscisic acid is acting as a/an:
A)hormone that stimulates cell expansion.
B)germination-inhibiting compound.
C)suspensor.
D)hormone to induce the release of sugars from stored starch in the endosperm.
Q3) In some plants a fruit is composed of the ovary and other plant parts.
A)True
B)False
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Animal Bodies and Homeostasis
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Q1) The most common measurement of energy in biological systems is the kilocalorie.This is the amount of energy that would be required to raise the temperature of what quantity of water one degree Celsius?
A)0.1 g
B)1 g
C)10 g
D)1,000 g
E)10,000 g
Q2) Which major tissue type exhibits the shortening of its cells (i.e. ,contraction)as a major function?
A)Nervous
B)Muscle
C)Epithelial
D)Connective
Q3) In all animals,the largest percentage of the body's fluids are located in the:
A)intracellular compartment.
B)extracellular compartment.
C)interstitial fluid.
D)plasma.
E)hemolymph.
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Chapter 32: Neuroscience I: Structure, Function, and
Evolution of Nervous Systems
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Q1) Disruption of neural signaling can produce profound changes in mood and behavior.Cocaine exerts its effects by
A)blocking norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake from synapses.
B)blocking serotonin reuptake from synapses.
C)preventing neurotransmitter vesicle fusion with presynaptic neuron membranes.
D)blocking the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
E)binding to the GABA receptor to enhance inhibitory neurotransmission.
Q2) The two distinct types of neurotransmitter receptors found in postsynaptic membranes are
A)metabotropic and neurotropic.
B)ionotropic and gonadotropic.
C)gonadotropic and neurotropiC.
D)neurotropic and isotopic.
E)metabotropic and ionotropic.
Q3) In a reflex arc,the correct sequence of cell types through which an electrical signal would pass would be
A)motor neuron\(\rarr\) sensory neuron \(\rarr\) interneuron in the PNS
B)sensory neuron \(\rarr\) motor neuron \(\rarr\) interneuron in the CNS
C)motor neuron \(\rarr\) interneuron in the PNS \(\rarr\) sensory neuron
D)sensory neuron \(\rarr\) interneuron in the CNS \(\rarr\) motor neuron
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Chapter 33: Neuroscience II: Sensory Systems
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Q1) What is the difference between sensation and perception?
A)Sensation is recognition of a perception.
B)Perception is recognition of a sensation.
C)Sensation sends action potentials to the CNS.
D)Perception sends action potentials to the CNS.
E)There is no true difference between sensation and perception.
Q2) Death of hair cells resulting from repeated exposure to loud noises is thought to be caused by metabolic "exhaustion" of these cells from continuous activation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Experimenters replaced the statoliths in a crayfish statocyst with iron filings and then held a magnet above the animal.Based on your knowledge of the function of statoliths,what would they observe?
A)The crayfish stayed upright.
B)The crayfish lay on its side.
C)The crayfish turned upside down.
D)The crayfish attempted to escape by rapidly swimming backwards.
E)None of these choices are correct.
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Chapter 34: Muscular-Skeletal Systems
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Q1) What is the role of calcium in muscle contractions?
A)to break the cross-bridges as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP
B)to bind with troponin,changing its shape so that binding sites on the actin filament are exposed
C)to transmit the action potential across the neuromuscular junction
D)to spread the action potential through the T-tubules
E)to re-establish the polarization of the plasma's membrane following an action potential
Q2) The primary reservoir for calcium that is released during excitation-contraction coupling in a skeletal muscle fiber is the
A)sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B)endoplasmic reticulum.
C)transverse tubules.
D)Golgi bodies.
E)troponin.
Q3) You would expect to find higher myoglobin levels in oxidative muscle fibers than in glycolytic muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Q1) In the stomach,food processing continues and secretions from stomach glands aid the initial digestion of A)carbohydrates.
B)lipids.
C)nucleic acids.
D)proteins.
E)vitamins.
Q2) Surgical removal of the pancreas would
A)increase the acidity of the small intestine.
B)prevent the production of chyme in the stomach.
C)eliminate the ability to store bile in the gallbladder.
D)block the secretion of bile.
E)All of these changes would be a result of pancreas removal.
Q3) Which type of nutrient can pass across epithelial cells without any expenditure of ATP?
A)iron
B)calcium
C)protein
D)fat
E)magnesium
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Chapter 36: Circulatory Systems
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Q1) Imagine that you have been assigned the task of describing a new mammalian species.You note that this species has mutated so RBCs no longer go through final stage of maturation.Predict how this might affect the species.
A)Red blood cells could replicate outside of bone marrow since they retain their nuclei.
B)Red blood cells could improve their oxygen-carrying function.
C)Red blood cells would be better able to fight infection in the body.
D)Red blood cells could act as stem cells.
Q2) In general,the vessels that return blood to the heart in a closed circulatory system are referred to as
A)arteries.
B)veins.
C)capillaries.
D)sinuses.
E)auxiliary hearts.
Q3) Rises in blood pressure with large increases in cardiac output are limited by decreases in total peripheral resistance.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) Fishes exhibit a method of ventilating their gills termed "tidal ventilation."
A)True
B)False
Q2) What would happen to the gas exchange rate within an insect if the circulatory system was compromised?
A)The gas exchange rate would decrease slightly.
B)The gas exchange rate would decrease significantly.
C)The gas exchange rate would increase significantly.
D)The gas exchange rate would increase slightly.
E)The gas exchange rate would be unaffected.
Q3) In conditions that include a constant temperature,if a dog increases the volume of her lung and thereby the volume of gas continained within,predict what will happen to the pressure of the gas.
A)The pressure will increase.
B)The pressure will decrease.
C)The pressure will not change.
Q4) The shape of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is a straight line.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Excretory Systems and the Homeostasis of Internal Fluids
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Q1) Imagine you are examining a small mammal that lives under desert conditions and is water deprived.You would predict that levels of the hormone ADH in its blood would be A)high,and that its urine would be more concentrated than its blood.
B)high,and that its urine would be less concentrated than its blood. C)low,and that its urine would be more concentrated than its blood.
D)low,and that its urine would be less concentrated than its blooD.
E)high,and that its urine would be no more concentrated than its blood.
Q2) If you measured the urine concentration of a freshwater fish,you would find that it was more concentrated than its blood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When studying fluid and electrolyte loss during exercise,Robert Cade found that human sweat has sodium and chloride concentrations that are A)higher than those found in the blood.
B)lower than those found in the blood.
C)equal to those found in the blood.
D)extremely variable from person to person relative to those found in the blooD.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Endocrine Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What can be said about peptide hormones?
A)They are generally water-soluble.
B)They bind membrane receptors to elicit a response on target cells.
C)They bind intracellular receptors to elicit a response on target cells.
D)They are water-soluble and bind membrane receptors to elicit a response on target cells.
E)They are lipid solublE.
Q2) Vitamin D is a hormone produced in part by exposure to sunlight.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Often it is important for health reasons to induce labor (i.e. ,smooth muscle contractions)in pregnant women.The drugs used for this purpose would most closely resemble
A)arginine vasotocin.
B)oxytocin.
C)antidiuretic hormone.
D)prolactin.
E)cortisol.
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Chapter 40: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) The outcome of cleavage during embryonic development is the production of a A)blastulA.
B)gastrula.
C)neurula.
D)substantially larger embryo.
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) The posterior end of the neural tube will develop into the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You are a chemist designing a test to allow women to know when they have ovulated.Choose the best hormone for your test,which will indicate that ovulation has occured when detected at high levels.
A)chorionic gonadotropin
B)estradiol
C)LH
D)progesterone
Q4) Across the lifespan of a human female,the number of primary oocytes peaks at the onset of puberty.
A)True
B)False
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Immune Systems
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Q1) During the inflammatory response,dilation of blood vessels is caused by A)nitric oxide.
B)histamine.
C)cytokines.
D)phagocytes.
E)both histamine and nitric oxidE.
Q2) Phagocytosis is a process in which a cell
A)takes in foreign particles and destroys them.
B)creates molecules and then excretes them.
C)lyses itself.
D)merges with another cell forming antibodies.
E)adheres to another cell.
Q3) Which of the following is true of both T cells and B cells?
A)They produce effector cells against specific pathogens.
B)They are produced from stem cells of the lymphatic system.
C)They can attack and destroy invading pathogens.
D)They typically have a short life span.
E)All of these statements are truE.
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Chapter 42: Animal Behavior
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Q1) What tissues or structures in an animal's body would likely be targets of genes for behavior? Check all that apply.
A) brain
B) kidneys
C) quadriceps
D) dendrites
E) lungs
Q2) Ten songbirds are isolated at birth and not exposed to any adults songs as a juveniles.After six months,it is observed that they sing the normal adult songs of their species.What can be concluded about the singing behavior in this particular species?
A)It is a combination of innate and learned behavior.
B)It is a learned behavior.
C)It is an imprinted behavior.
D)It is an innate behavior.
E)It is an operant responsE.
Q3) Naked mole rats are haplodiploid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Ecology and the Physical Environment
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Q1) The range of the sugar maple could decrease in response to warming due to climate change.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The same biome cannot occur on more than one continent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What factor would you expect to show the largest difference between the coral reef and intertidal biomes?
A)Animal species diversity
B)Plant species diversity
C)Temperature variation
D)Water pH
E)Salinity
Q4) What is adiabatic cooling?
A)the cooling due to rainfall on windward side of a mountain
B)the cooling due to polar air masses flowing towards the equator
C)cooling due to the decrease in air pressure at higher elevations
D)the cooling due to increased cloud cover at higher elevations
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Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Q1) A forest fire would normally act as a density dependent factor on population size.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A survivorship curve with uniform death rates over time is most likely to be a type _______ curve.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
E)V
Q3) The ecological footprint of an average Egyptian is greater than that of an average American.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Two species that occupy identical ecological niches will not be able to co-exist for an extended period of time.
A)True
B)False
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Community Ecology
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Q1) In succession,the ability of one species to make the area more suitable for another species is called
A)tolerance.
B)climax succession.
C)inhibition.
D)facilitation.
E)mutualism.
Q2) Simberloff and Wilson carried out a famous experiment to study the recolonization by arthropods of small mangrove by islands after the islands were fumigated.One of their findings was
A)The islands never recovered to their pre-fumigation levels of arthropod species richness.
B)Species turnover was high following recolonization.
C)Recolonization rates were identical on all of the islands regardless of distance to the mainland.
D)Arthropod species richness on the islands changed little following recolonization.
Q3) The time hypothesis suggests communities diversify with age.
A)True
B)False
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) A hectare of wheat fixes 32,000 kg of carbon per year through photosynthesis and uses 7,000 kg of carbon per year for cellular respiration.The net primary productivity of the wheat field is therefore _____ kg of carbon/hectare/year.
Q2) The water cycle is primarily a chemical process,not a physical one.
A)True B)False
Q3) If gross primary production were to increase in an ecosystem,it would be reasonable to expect that
A)nutrients would no longer be limiting factors.
B)net primary production would not increase.
C)cellular respiration would decrease.
D)the trophic web would become more complex.
E)the biomass of herbivores would increasE.
Q4) Biomagnification results in an increased concentration of bioaccumulated chemicals as one moves from upper to lower trophic levels.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 47: Biodiversity and Conservation Biology
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Q1) The range of the grizzly bear in the 48 contiguous United States is now less than 1% of what it was in 1800.What has been proposed to help maintain genetic variation in the remaining populations of this species?
A)protected corridors between all of the remaining populations
B)regular exchange of bears between isolated populations
C)preserving more small patches of forest
D)cloning of the most genetically diverse remaining females
E)establishment of new parks in Colorado and New Mexico
Q2) The extinction rate of mammal species has gone up as human populations have increased,while the extinction rate of birds has declined.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Introduced species become invasive when they
A)compete with native species without expanding their range.
B)move from temperate to tropical settings.
C)expand their range and outcompete native species.
D)lead to a cost for humans.
E)fill an empty ecological nichE.
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