General Biology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
General Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of living systems. Topics encompass cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of organisms. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students will explore the molecular, cellular, and ecological processes that sustain life. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and real-world applications, preparing students for advanced study in biological sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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24 Chapters
2002 Verified Questions
2002 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20601
Sample Questions
Q1) A farmer wants to improve crop yield in his fields by testing the effectiveness of a new pesticide available on the market. Which one of the following is the best control for this experiment?
A) a higher concentration of new pesticide used on the control field than the experimental field
B) more shade on the control field than on the experimental field
C) a lower concentration of new pesticide used on the control field than on the experimental field
D) more water on the control field than on the experimental field
E) no new pesticide used on the control field; new pesticide used only on the experimental field
Answer: E
Q2) Factors that are manipulated during an experimental procedure are called ________.
Answer: variables
Q3) When data are presented in a graph, independent variables such as time or age should be plotted on the ________ (abscissa/ordinate).
Answer: abscissa
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student has isolated a large compound (macromolecule) from cells. Chemical analysis of the compound shows that it is made up of the following elements: carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and sulfur. To which group of macromolecules does this compound most likely belong?
A) carbohydrate
B) protein
C) nucleic acid
D) lipid
E) aqueous
Answer: B
Q2) Lipid molecules composed of four joined carbon rings are known as ________. Answer: steroids
Q3) Which one of the following occurs when a phosphate is removed from an ATP molecule?
A) Energy is added to the ATP molecule to form ADP.
B) Oxygen produced in the reaction causes the molecule to explode.
C) Energy is released for cell work.
D) Chemical reactions stop in a cell due to lack of an energy source.
E) Fat is converted to protein.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis occurs in the ________ of a cell.
Answer: cytoplasm
Q2) To move solutes like amino acids into a cell by active transport, the cell
A) must possess appropriate transport proteins in the plasma membrane
B) must have a net gain in energy resulting from active transport
C) maintains a lower concentration of the amino acids in the cytoplasm
D) must move water out of the cytoplasm at the same time
Answer: A
Q3) Oxygen and carbon dioxide are able to pass through the plasma membrane of a cell because
A) they are both polar molecules
B) both are lipid soluble
C) they move through ion pores
D) each binds to a transport protein that "pulls" it across the membrane
E) they are small and nonpolar, and readily pass between phospholipids
Answer: E
Q4) The area surrounding cells outside the plasma membrane is referred to as the ________ environment.
Answer: extracellular
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Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is a tissue membrane positioned in thin cavities between bones in movable joints?
A) synovial membrane
B) basement membrane
C) cutaneous membrane
D) mucous membrane
E) serous membrane
Q2) Body temperature is controlled by a negative feedback control system. The hypothalamus is the ________ for this system.
Q3) Cartilage functions well as a cushioning structure because it is composed primarily of collagen fibers in a ground substance with a lot of water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Connective tissue cells that produce collagen, elastic, and reticular fibers are the ________.
Q5) The ability of living organisms to maintain a constant internal environment despite changes in the external environment is ________.
Q6) The toes are located ________ to the knee.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) location of blood vessels
Q2) If a child needed to have surgery that removed all growth plates, what would be the effect on bone growth?
Q3) A clear fluid lubricates
A) ligaments
B) suture
C) fibrous joints
D) synovial joints
E) hyaline cartilage
Q4) Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding fibrous joints?
A) They are freely movable and can bend and rotate.
B) The bones are separated by a fluid-filled cavity that lubricates the joint.
C) Fibrous joints present at birth between bones of the skull develop into sutures in the adult.
D) The bones are held together by cartilage and tendons.
E) They include hinge joints and ball-and-socket joints.
Q5) The coxal bones of the pelvic girdle meet in front at the ________, where they are joined by cartilage.
Q6) epiphysis
Q7) ________ refers to inflammation of the bursae following an injury.
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following occur during the latent period of muscle contraction EXCEPT which one?
A) Myofibrils shorten.
B) Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C) Muscle cell membrane initiates an electrical impulse, which travels into the muscle cell.
D) Myosin heads bind to actin filaments.
E) Troponin-tropomyosin complex shifts, exposing myosin heads.
Q2) The electrical impulse generated by a muscle cell membrane is transmitted to the sarcoplasmic reticulum by ________.
Q3) Muscles of the hand contain a high percentage of fast-twitch fibers, which allows for actions that are strong and quick.
A)True
B)False
Q4) According to the sliding filament mechanism, during a muscle contraction, myosin pulls actin filaments toward the center of a sarcomere, causing the entire sarcomere to shorten.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The color changes associated with a healing bruise can be attributed to the breakdown of heme groups to ________.
Q2) The osmotic balance between blood and interstitial fluid is maintained by plasma proteins called ________.
Q3) Hemoglobin is most likely to release oxygen to tissues when the pH of tissues is ________ and the temperature is ________.
Q4) Which one of the following is TRUE regarding deoxyhemoglobin?
A) Deoxyhemoglobin delivers oxygen to tissues that have a high oxygen demand.
B) Deoxyhemoglobin has a bright red color.
C) Deoxyhemoglobin found in blood returning to the heart from the lower extremities.
D) Deoxyhemoglobin would form in organs with a high concentration of oxygen, such as the lungs.
E) Deoxyhemoglobin is located in white blood cells, unlike oxyhemoglobin.
Q5) Mature red blood cells have no nucleus or mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Nutrients are absorbed into the blood from the ________ system.
Q7) Platelets are pieces of ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sinoatrial node
A) is located in the left atrium
B) sends out a signal for contraction once every two minutes
C) regulates the rate of heart contraction
D) is also known as the atrioventricular node
E) receives signals from the atrioventricular node
Q2) Risk factors for atherosclerosis include factors that can raise the levels of blood cholesterol, such as
A) obesity, smoking, and a sedentary life style
B) regular exercise and a high-fat diet
C) dieting and REM sleep
D) sedentary lifestyle, low-fat diet
E) maintaining homeostatic blood pressure
Q3) The condition that results when an endothelium becomes damaged and blood leaks below the endothelium, causing the wall of the blood vessel to bulge, is a(n)________.
Q4) Veins carry blood away from the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) represents the stimulus for heart contraction traveling across the atria
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best way to defend the body from a viral infection is to prevent the infection by using a vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chemicals released by macrophages that cause the onset of a fever are called ________.
Q3) Microorganisms and cellular debris are removed from lymph by the ________ and from blood by the ________.
Q4) Which one type of cells are responsible for producing and releasing antibodies?
A) red bone marrow
B) B lymphocytes
C) T lymphocytes
D) macrophages
E) natural killer cells
Q5) Microbes that cause disease are referred to as ________.
Q6) One role of MHC proteins is that they serve as self markers to the human immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Bacterial infections are generally treated with ________. Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a normal breathing cycle, pressure changes are essential to the exchange of gases with the environment. Describe what type of pressure changes must occur during ventilation.
Q2) The lower pharynx serves as a passageway for both the ________ and ________ systems.
Q3) The pleural cavity, which is located between the pleural membranes, contains small amounts of ________.
Q4) The figure above depicts expiration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During the cough reflex, the trachea ________ slightly to increase the velocity of air movement.
Q6) Oxygen and carbon dioxide both have the ability to bind to hemoglobin, which would seem to be an unfavorable situation for the body, particularly in terms of cellular respiration. What features does the human body use to favor oxygen and not carbon dioxide binding to hemoglobin?
Q7) Surfactant is released to reduce surface tension in the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves are part of the ________ nervous system.
Q2) Arrival of an action potential at an axon terminal results in the release of ________.
Q3) Which one of the following occurs with each cycle of the sodium-potassium pump?
A) Sodium is moved into the cell, creating a net negative charge outside the cell.
B) The net effect is removal of one osmotic particle and one positive charge from inside the cell.
C) The net effect is removal of one osmotic particle and one negative charge from inside the cell.
D) The inside of the cell becomes more negative as potassium is pumped out.
E) Two potassium ions and three sodium ions are pumped out of the cell.
Q4) Since the central nervous system is so important to the proper functioning of the body, the brain is protected by the ________ and the spinal cord is protected by the ________.
Q5) Short-term memory is associated with the ________, whereas long-term memory is associated with changes in the ________.
Q6) receives sensory information from other parts of the body and relays it to proper areas of the cerebrum
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accommodation enabling us to switch from focusing on something nearby to something more distant is accomplished by the ________ muscle.
Q2) Nearsightedness and farsightedness are caused by the A) density of the aqueous and vitreous humor
B) length of the eyeball
C) shape of the cornea
D) shape of the lens
E) positioning of the rods and cones
Q3) Vision in dim light is due to the activity of ________ cells.
Q4) ________ neurons transmit information about stimuli, in the form of electrical impulses, to integration centers.
Q5) Sound is amplified by components of the middle ear when they vibrate. When one of these components, the stapes, vibrates, the ________ will vibrate.
A) tympanic membrane
B) pinna
C) oval window
D) eustachian tube
E) cochlea
Q6) The ________ regulates the amount of light entering the eye.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following is a list of events involved in the activation of a cell by a steroid hormone. Which one of the following answers best represents the order in which the steps occur? 1. cellular response to the hormone
2) activation of a gene
3) formation of a hormone-receptor complex
4) diffusion of the hormone through a target cell membrane
5) production of a protein
A) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
B) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1
C) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2
D) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4
E) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
Q2) Diabetes type ________ occurs when the pancreas cannot produce enough insulin.
Q3) ovaries
Q4) The levels of potassium and sodium in the body are regulated primarily by the hormone aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The pineal gland secretes ________, also known as the "hormone of darkness."
Q6) adrenal gland
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stomach acid does not break down the wall of the stomach because gastric juice contains a powerful base that neutralizes the acid before it can cause damage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bile assists in the chemical digestion of triglycerides by
A) hydrolyzing them to glycerol and fatty acids
B) breaking peptide bonds and hydrolyzing them to amino acids
C) forming chylomicrons
D) emulsifying large fat droplets into tiny ones, providing more surface area for enzymes
E) assisting with the active transport of triglycerides into the blood
Q3) Which one of the following might result if the lower esophageal sphincter malfunctions?
A) gastric ulcer
B) duodenal ulcer
C) gluten intolerance
D) acid reflux
E) stomach cancer
Q4) produces bile
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the Bowman's capsule could be surgically removed so that the end (closed) of the proximal tubule was in contact with the glomerulus, what would be the impact on glomerular filtration?
Q2) The process of reabsorbing water is regulated by ________.
Q3) Which of the following regulates salt balance?
A) ADH
B) aldosterone
C) atrial natriuretic hormone (ANH)
D) renin
E) both aldosterone and ANH
Q4) stores urine until it is excreted out of the body
Q5) The internal urethral sphincter is composed of smooth muscle, and the external urethral sphincter is composed of skeletal muscle; together, they control the process of urination.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ADH ________ the permeability of the cells of the collecting duct to water.
Q7) location of nephrons, which filter blood to remove wastes and retain essential solutes
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Q8) Each kidney is made up of a million ________, the functional units of a kidney.
Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prior to the onset of lactation, the mammary glands are prepared for the production of milk by
A) the hormonal action of estrogen and progesterone
B) the completion of ovulation
C) degeneration of the corpus luteum
D) deactivation of FSH, LH, and GnRH
E) synthesis of FSH
Q2) Nourishment is provided to a primary oocyte via which one of the following?
A) the endometrium layer in the uterus
B) the afferent capillaries
C) the zona pellucida
D) the cervical plug
E) a layer of granulosa cells
Q3) Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases is currently the most prevalent in the United States?
A) gonorrhea
B) syphilis
C) AIDS
D) genital warts
E) chlamydia
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) All cells that make up the body other than germ cells are referred to as ________.
Q2) Progression through the various phases of the cell cycle depends on fluctuating concentrations of ________.
Q3) The process by which the DNA code is converted from a single gene into a complementary single strand of mRNA is called
A) replication
B) reproduction
C) translation
D) metabolism
E) transcription
Q4) Differentiation is the process of sister chromatids separating from each other during meiosis II.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Somatic cell nuclear transfer is a means of reproductive cloning.
A)True
B)False
Q6) anaphase
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you or a family member received the unfortunate news of cancer, why is it that being told the cancer is in situ is more encouraging in terms of treatment than a cancer that metastasizes?
Q2) The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommended that women who are not at risk for breast cancer wait to have yearly screening mammograms until age 50, as opposed to the previous recommendation of age 40, because A) breast tissue is more sensitive to radiation damage before menopause than after B) the cost of the screening is not covered by insurance until after a woman reaches menopause
C) most forms of breast cancer do not develop until later in life
D) the method of screening is more accurate in older women than younger E) delaying the screening ensures that younger, more at-risk women, are able to schedule the preventive tests
Q3) The tumor shown in the figure above is most likely malignant.
A)True B)False
Q4) Cells undergoing hyperplasia eventually develop into a mass called a(n)
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the significance of crossing-over, independent assortment, and random fertilization?
A) an increase in the number of gametes produced by an individual, thereby increasing the chance that fertilization will occur
B) an increase in the genetic diversity of gametes and zygotes
C) an increase in the number of daughter cells produced by mitosis, thus providing a mechanism for rapidly repairing injured tissues
D) a decrease in the genetic complexity of living systems, making it more likely that a species will survive
E) a decrease in the amount of time it takes to produce gametes
Q2) If an individual homozygous dominant for widow's peak has a child with an individual heterozygous for widow's peak, what is the chance that the child will have a homozygous dominant genotype?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 100%
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22
Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gel electrophoresis is a technique used to separate a mixture of DNA fragments. During this process, large DNA fragments move longer distances than small DNA fragments when an electric current is applied.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gene therapy requires that genes be delivered to cells and incorporated into the cells' DNA; transporters of these genes are known as ________.
Q3) To create cows, sheep, and pigs that grow faster and larger, the gene for ________ has been inserted into their genomes.
Q4) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that is caused by the lack of a gene that encodes a cell membrane protein which transports ________ ions.
Q5) Transgenic plants can presently be used for the production of human proteins, including human serum albumin.
A)True
B)False
Q6) To synthesize DNA in a laboratory, the enzyme ________ must be used to facilitate the addition of nucleotides on the new strand.
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following can pass through a healthy placenta EXCEPT which one?
A) water
B) nutrients
C) oxygen
D) some antibodies
E) blood cells
Q2) Which cardiovascular structures in the fetus shunt blood away from the fetal lungs?
A) foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus
B) foramen magnum and ductus venosus
C) foramen ovale and ductus venosus
D) umbilical artery and umbilical vein
E) umbilical artery and ductus venosus
Q3) Which organ system is not functional until birth and must become fully functional immediately?
A) excretory system (kidneys)
B) respiratory system
C) cardiovascular system
D) muscular system
E) skeletal system
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homo habilis is considered to be the first of our human ancestors to make tools.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When conditions are right, many new species may develop in a relatively short period of time from a single ancestor. Such short bursts of evolutionary activity are called
A) gene flow
B) adaptive radiation
C) the founder effect
D) population explosion
E) genetic drift
Q3) Large-scale evolutionary trends or changes that apply to whole groups of species are referred to as
A) fossilization
B) divergence
C) homologous change
D) macroevolution
E) microevolution
Q4) The first self-replicating molecule hypothesized to have formed on Earth was
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) As soon as a population achieves the replacement fertility rate of 2.1, the population will stop growing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Black Death that devastated the human population of portions of Europe during the 1300s represents a
A) modest bacterial outbreak
B) pandemic
C) localized environment at carrying capacity
D) regional environment exceeding carrying capacity
E) viral epidemic
Q3) A biogeochemical cycle involves the cycling of a chemical element between the biomass, exchange pool, and ________.
Q4) The total living component of an ecosystem is its
A) niche
B) biotic potential
C) carrying capacity
D) biomass
E) geographic range
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Q1) Sources of energy that are renewable and derived from plants are called
Q2) Humans breathe in air that is comprised primarily of nitrogen and oxygen, with small amounts of carbon dioxide; trace amounts of thousands of pollutants are also present.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following actions of humans has not contributed to the worldwide reduction in biodiversity?
A) pollution
B) growth of cities
C) logging
D) clear-cutting of rain forests
E) biomass energy sources
Q4) Although humans have had a negative impact on biodiversity in the past, the present global extinction rate is 20 times lower now than at any other time in the past.
A)True
B)False
Q5) CFCs are the primary air pollutants that destroy the ________.
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