General Astronomy Test Questions
Course Introduction
General Astronomy provides an introduction to the universe beyond Earth, exploring fundamental concepts such as the nature of stars, galaxies, planets, and cosmic phenomena. This course covers the history and methods of astronomical observation, the properties and life cycles of celestial objects, and the structure and evolution of the universe. Students will develop an understanding of how astronomers gather and interpret data, the role of technology in modern astronomy, and humanity's place in the cosmos, fostering appreciation for both the science and wonder of the night sky.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Today 8th Edition by Eric Chaisson
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28 Chapters
2941 Verified Questions
2941 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Charting the Heavens: The Foundations of Astronomy
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94 Verified Questions
94 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the Sun rises,it is located in the constellation Gemini.When the Sun sets later that same day,it will be:
A) in the constellation Aries.
B) in the constellation Taurus.
C) in the constellation Gemini.
D) in the constellation Cancer.
E) in the constellation Leo.
Answer: C
Q2) What conditions are necessary for a partial solar eclipse?
A) new moon on ecliptic, with us in the penumbral shadow
B) full moon on equator, with us in the umbral shadow
C) new moon at perigee
D) full moon at apogee
E) first or third quarter moon at a node
Answer: A
Q3) From full moon to third quarter moon takes about a week.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Copernican Revolution: The Birth of Modern Science
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100 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relate Kepler's Second Law to the speeds of the planets.
Answer: In equal time intervals,the lines that connect each of the planets to the Sun must all sweep out equal areas.The longer this line,the slower the planet could move and still sweep out this constant area.Thus more distant planets orbit the Sun more slowly,and each planet will speed up at perihelion and slow down at aphelion.
Q2) While both Ptolemy and Copernicus assumed all orbits were ________,Kepler's first law corrected this and made planetary motion predictable.
Answer: circles
Q3) According to Newton's second law,if you double the force acting on a body,the acceleration will double.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Transits of Venus were critical in early determinations of the A.U.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Radiation: Information from the Cosmos
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a light source is approaching you at a speed very close to the speed of light,it will appear:
A) redder than it is.
B) bluer than it is.
C) brighter than it is.
D) fainter than it is.
E) lower temperature than it is.
Answer: B
Q2) What do infrared and ultraviolet waves have in common? How do they differ?
Answer: Both are forms of electromagnetic radiation,both travel at c in a vacuum,and both are largely absorbed by our atmosphere.They differ greatly in frequency,wavelength,and photon energy,however,with UV much more penetrating than IR,as anyone who has experienced a sunburn is aware.
Q3) How can you determine the distance to a spacecraft from the time it takes its radio signal to reach Earth?
Answer: In vacuum,all electromagnetic radiation,including radio waves,travel at the same speed: 300,000 km/s.Measuring the time it takes the radio signal to reach us and multiplying by 3000,000 km/s gives the distance to the spacecraft.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Spectroscopy: The Inner Workings of Atoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neon light (thin hot neon gas in a sealed tube)gives us:
A) a continuous spectrum, since the neon is hot enough to glow.
B) a few bright emission lines, telling us the gas is neon.
C) a continuum, with dark lines identifying the neon atoms that are present.
D) a lot of random bright red lines due to the motion of the hot atoms.
E) nothing visible to us, but a lot of infrared lines as heat.
Q2) Explain what types of information can be obtained from a spectral line.
Q3) If we increased the pressure in the gas of a blackbody,how will the spectral lines be affected?
Q4) Molecular spectra,like elemental ones,involve only the vibration of the particles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What information about a star can be inferred from its Doppler shift?
Q6) A hydrogen atom consists of an electron and a(n):
A) proton.
B) ion.
C) neutrino.
D) neutron.
E) lepton.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Telescopes: The Tools of Astronomy
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the ________ is good,the atmosphere is stable,and image quality is sharp.
Q2) Contrast image formation in reflectors and refractors.
Q3) You are a novice telescope builder.Should you attempt a 6" Newtonian or Cassegrain reflector first? Why?
Q4) The convex secondary mirror in this design focuses light down through a hole cut in the concave primary mirror.
A) refractor
B) prime focus reflector
C) Newtonian reflector
D) Cassegrain reflector
E) interferometer
Q5) Due to our ozone layer,ultraviolet astronomy must be done from space.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The light gathering ability of a telescope is most dependent on the diameter of its primary objective.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Which reflector telescope would be the easiest to construct,and why?
Q8) Explain why the image seen in astronomical telescopes is inverted.
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Chapter 6: The Solar System: Comparative Planetology and Formation Models
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which spacecraft gave or is giving us our best information about Mercury?
A) Pioneer 10
B) Mariner 10
C) Voyager I
D) Viking 2
E) Messenger
Q2) What aspects of the planets orbits are nearly the same for most planets?
A) orbital period and shape
B) shape and tilt from the ecliptic
C) shape and distance from the Sun
D) orbital period and distance from the Sun
E) tilt from the ecliptic and distance from the Sun
Q3) The jovian planets:
A) all lie less than 5 AU from the Sun.
B) all have rings around their equators.
C) all spin slower than the Earth.
D) have satellite systems with less than 4 moons.
E) are all much more dense than any of the terrestrials planets.
Q4) ________ is the only planet with a mean density less than water.
Q5) Name three differences between terrestrials and jovian planets.
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Chapter 7: Earth: Our Home in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within Earth's atmosphere the ozone layer is located:
A) in the troposphere.
B) between the troposphere and the stratosphere.
C) in the stratosphere.
D) between the stratosphere and the mesosphere.
E) in the mesosphere.
Q2) Why does the Earth's atmosphere contain much more nitrogen than hydrogen?
Q3) What is the best description of the Earth's rotation over its entire history?
A) It has periodically reversed directions, as the magnetic polarity reversals show.
B) It has been constant over the entire history of the solar system.
C) It undergoes abrupt changes, as the magnetic variations show.
D) It has slowed down very gradually at about .0015 seconds per century.
E) It has sped up at about .013 seconds per century.
Q4) What is the Greenhouse Effect and why is it vital to life here?
Q5) Relate the formation of the Himalayas to plate tectonics.
Q6) When strong solar winds are directed poleward,we see ________ at night.
Q7) The partial trapping of solar radiation is known as the ________.
Q8) What were the two primary courses of heating that let the Earth differentiate? Which is more important to us today?
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Chapter 8: The Moon and Mercury: Scorched and Battered Worlds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hollows on Mercury are:
A) isolated depressions found in all parts of impact craters.
B) clusters of depressions found near the center of impact craters.
C) large depressions found in the Caloris Basin.
D) large depressions found in the smooth plains.
E) clusters of depressions that are not associated with impact craters in the smooth plains.
Q2) Mercury's Caloris Basin is aptly named,since:
A) it is the region on Mercury looking much like our own "painted desert."
B) it is the only such large basin on Mercury.
C) it is the hottest region, turning to face the Sun when Mercury is at perihelion.
D) it is always pointed directly at the Sun.
E) it is the largest impact basin found in the solar system.
Q3) The scarps on Mercury are extremely similar to the cratered lunar highlands in appearance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mercury's surface,upon casual visual observation,most resembles what other surface in our solar system?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Venus: Earth's Sister Planet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Every time the Earth and Venus are closest,the same side of Venus is facing us.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Other than its atmosphere,name two properties of Venus that are unique among the terrestrial planets.
Q3) The relatively small number of impact craters and the near absence of small craters on the surface of Venus are thought to be a result of:
A) the soft and resilient nature of the Venusian surface.
B) the thick Venusian atmosphere.
C) the position of Venus in the solar system-not many meteoroids cross Venus' orbit.
D) Venus' lack of a satellite.
E) the ancient oceans that once existed on Venus.
Q4) Which of the following characterizes a shield volcano?
A) It is dormant.
B) It can erupt only briefly before being dragged off the hot spot.
C) It sits above a hot spot in the planet's mantle.
D) It forms along a plate boundary.
E) It cannot grow very large, for it has a very short span of eruption.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Mars: A Near Miss for Life?
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102 Verified Questions
102 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) That the Tharsis region on Mars has so few craters:
A) proves tectonic activity is taking place.
B) is due to the regions very low elevation.
C) suggests it is the youngest region on the planet.
D) suggests it is at the center of a particularly strong magnetic field.
E) is due to annual flooding and water erosion.
Q2) Compare the days,seasons,and years of Mars and Earth.
Q3) Why are telescopic observers so obsessed with observing Mars?
Q4) Which of these were observed from Earth,prior to spacecraft missions to Mars?
A) seasonal changes in the polar caps
B) eruptions of Mount Olympus
C) dust storms capable of covering the entire planet
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q5) The largest and deepest impact basin found on Mars is:
A) Olympus.
B) Caloris.
C) Hellas.
D) Tharsis.
E) Meridani.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Jupiter: Giant of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If Jupiter were about 80 times more massive than it is,nuclear fusion should have been possible,making it a small star.What might have been the most likely effect on the Earth?
A) The gravitational pull might have prevented the Earth settling into a stable orbit, which would have prevented the development of life on Earth.
B) Jupiter's moons would have been likely to develop life, which would have competed with life on Earth.
C) The extra radiation from a second star in the solar system would have prevented life forming on Earth.
D) Jupiter's magnetic field would have been much larger, disrupting Earth's magnetic field.
E) Nothing because Jupiter is so much further from the Earth than the Sun is.
Q2) Telescopically,Jupiter is the most colorful and changeable of the planets. A)True B)False
Q3) What material makes up most of Jupiter's volume,and why is it not found here?
Q4) Describe the seasons of Jupiter.
Q5) What is oblateness,and what does it tell us about Jupiter's interior?
Q6) Contrast the sources of Jupiter's and the Earth's internal energy flows.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Saturn: Spectacular Rings and Mysterious
Moons
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104 Verified Questions
104 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following played the most important role in the ring's formation?
A) Saturn's differential rotation
B) Saturn's Roche limit
C) Saturn's distance from the Sun
D) debris from volcanoes on Mimas
E) tidal resonance with Titan
Q2) Saturn's rotation is fast and differential,much like Jupiter's.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most of the moons of Saturn have rocky,cratered surfaces,like Deimos and Phobos.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Contrast the orbital eccentricity and axial tilt of Jupiter and Saturn.
Q5) What did the Voyager mission discover about the main rings of Saturn?
A) There are hundreds of small moons in the ring system.
B) They were less dense than the rings of Jupiter.
C) There are several small moons inside the inner-most ring.
D) The ring system is much thicker than originally believed.
E) They are composed of tens of thousands of narrow ringlets.
Q6) How did scientists use Titan to guide Cassini on a tour of Saturn's moon system? Page 14
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Page 15
Chapter 13: Uranus and Neptune: The Outer Worlds of the Solar System
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108 Verified Questions
108 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neptune's moon Triton appears to have a nearly uncratered surface.Explain.
Q2) As with Saturn's F ring,shepherd moons play a major role in the structure of the thin narrow rings around Uranus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Triton shows similar cratering to the Lunar highlands,which suggests that it too is an old surface.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Changes in the predicted motion of Uranus led to the search for an eighth planet. A)True
B)False
Q5) The nitrogen geysers of Triton carry carbon grit into the winds of its atmosphere. A)True
B)False
Q6) The axial tilts of Uranus and Neptune are similar. A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Solar System Debris: Keys to Our Origin
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114 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the Aten asteroids?
Q2) The Apollo and Aten asteroids have orbits that:
A) cross the orbit of Earth at perihelion.
B) cross the orbit of Mars, but not the Earth, at perihelion.
C) remain between Mars and Jupiter, in the main belt.
D) stay sixty degrees ahead of or behind Jupiter.
E) stay out beyond Neptune.
Q3) Halley's Comet last passed Earth in 1986.It will be due back in:
A) 2012.
B) 2048.
C) 2061.
D) 2086.
E) the twenty-third century.
Q4) What are Dactyl,Gaspra,Mathilde,Eros,and Ida?
A) the four largest main belt asteroids, and the first to be discovered
B) the first four bodies found in the Kuiper Belt after Pluto
C) newly discovered small moons of Saturn
D) four asteroids that have been explored by spacecraft
E) newly discovered retrograde moons of Jupiter
Q5) Based on its orbit,give two reasons to revoke Pluto's planetary status.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Exoplanets: Planetary Systems Beyond Our Own
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collisions or near collisions are necessary to explain the observed irregularities in our solar system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why do instruments that are looking for transiting planets need to look for very small brightness changes?
Q3) The Earth-Moon system may have been the result of a collision between the Earth and a(n)________-size object.
Q4) ________ in the early solar system might explain many of the observed irregularities.
Q5) Extrasolar planetary systems are similar to our solar system in all of the following ways,EXCEPT:
A) that planetary orbits are relatively coplanar.
B) for the presence of hot Jupiters in some systems.
C) that planets orbit in the same direction that their parent star rotates.
D) that the systems contain interplanetary debris, such as comets or asteroids.
E) None of these are dissimilar to our solar system.
Q6) What are some of the properties of objects in the solar system that a theory of its origin DOES NOT need to account for? Explain.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: The Sun: Our Parent Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solar flare creates a radio disturbance on Earth a few minutes after going off and again several days later.Explain.
Q2) In the proton-proton cycle,the positron is:
A) massless.
B) a spin conservation particle.
C) an anti-electron.
D) the chief means energy reaches the photosphere.
E) intermediate between the proton and neutron in mass.
Q3) The surface magnetic field of the Sun is found by measurement of the extra width in spectral lines due to the ________ Effect.
Q4) The critical temperature the core must reach for a star to shine by fusion is:
A) 5,800 K.
B) 11,000 K.
C) 127,000 K.
D) 10 million K.
E) 100 million K.
Q5) Explain what is meant by the solar cycle.What role does magnetism play?
Q6) Relate prominences and sunspots to magnetic fields.
Q7) How does solar luminosity vary during the sunspot cycle?
Page 19
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Chapter 17: The Stars: Giants,Dwarfs,and the Main
Sequence
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107 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Hipparcos mission's data on parallaxes is useful for stellar distances out to about 200 pc.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Hipparcos mission's observations have given us good data on stars out to about:
A) 100 light years.
B) 200 light years.
C) 200 parsecs.
D) 1000 light years.
E) 1000 parsecs.
Q3) Contrast main sequence stars of type B and G.
Q4) If a star has a parallax of 0.05",then its distance in light years is about:
A) 6.4 light years.
B) 12.7 light years.
C) 20 light years.
D) 65 light years.
E) 100 light years.
20
Q5) The ________ magnitude of a star depends directly upon its luminosity and distance.
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Chapter 18: The Interstellar Medium: Gas and Dust among the Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dark dust clouds radiate mainly in the radio portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Reflection nebulae usually appear red.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The spectra of interstellar gas clouds show that they have the same basic composition as:
A) interstellar dust.
B) Earth's atmosphere.
C) stars.
D) asteroids.
E) the Martian polar caps.
Q4) Explain why interstellar molecules are best observed at radio wavelengths.
Q5) Why can radio waves get through the dust clouds,but light is blocked?
Q6) The H I regions are mapped by the radiation created when an electron flips its spin. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Star Formation: A Traumatic Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast the brightest stars of young open and old globular clusters.
Q2) What are the characteristics of globular cluster stars?
A) no stars as hot as our Sun
B) old age and hundreds of thousands to millions of member stars
C) no main sequence stars left, with billions of member stars
D) a few hundred stars, most still on the main sequence
E) hundreds of light years across, with bright OB stars dominant
Q3) A collapsing cloud fragment that will form a star of one solar mass (like our Sun)has a mass of about:
A) 2 solar masses.
B) 10 solar masses.
C) 200 solar masses.
D) 10² solar masses.
E) 10 solar masses.
Q4) Higher mass protostars enter the main sequence:
A) faster and at a higher luminosity and temperature.
B) faster and at a lower luminosity and temperature.
C) slower and at a higher luminosity and temperature.
D) slower and at a lower luminosity and temperature.
E) at the same rate, but at a higher luminosity and temperature.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Stellar Evolution: The Life and Death of a Star
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of our knowledge of evolutionary tracks comes from stars found in ________.
Q2) The Sun will get brighter in the next 4 to 5 billion years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why can we say a star spends its life trying to maintain equilibrium?
Q4) The age of a star cluster can be determined by the luminosity of the main sequence turnoff into the giant stage.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What spectral type of star that is still around formed longest ago?
A) O
B) A
C) F
D) K
E) M
Q6) All planetary nebulae are slowly-expanding spherical disks ejected by red giants,while their exposed cores appear as white dwarfs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Formation of the Elements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why are neutrinos from a type II supernova detected before photons?
A) Neutrinos travel faster than photons.
B) Neutrinos are easier to detect than photons.
C) Neutrinos are produced in the explosion before photons.
D) Neutrinos are emitted from the outer part of the star; photons come from the core.
E) Neutrinos escape from the star quickly because they hardly interact with matter; photons are delayed by interactions with matter.
Q2) A Type I supernova involves the collapsing core of a high mass star.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where was supernova 1987a located?
A) in the Orion Nebula, M-42
B) in Sagittarius, near the Galactic Nucleus
C) in our companion galaxy, the Large Magellanic Cloud
D) in M-13, one of the closest of the evolved globular clusters
E) near the core of M-31, the Andromeda Galaxy
Q4) The final core collapse of a massive star takes about 13 seconds.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Neutron Stars and Black Holes: Strange States of Matter
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what manner have astronomers and physicists made tests to confirm that Einstein's theory of general relativity is actually a proper description of gravitational phenomena?
Q2) Mercury's orbital precession is adequately explained by Newton's Law of Gravity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As a spaceship's velocity gets closer to the speed of light:
A) its length will increase and its clock will run more slowly.
B) its length will decrease and its clock will run faster.
C) its length will increase and its clock will run faster.
D) its length will decrease and its clock will run more slowly.
E) None of these will happen.
Q4) The mass range for neutron stars is:
A) 0.08 to .4 solar masses.
B) 0.4 to 3 solar masses.
C) 1.4 to 3 solar masses.
D) 3 to 8 solar masses.
E) 6 to 11 solar masses.
Page 25
Q5) The Crab Nebula and its pulsar were produced by a ________ supernova.
Q6) Contrast the space motion of neutron stars with normal stars.Explain.
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Chapter 23: The Milky Way Galaxy: A Spiral in Space
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Sample Questions
Q1) Detailed measurements of the disk and central bulge region of our Galaxy suggest our Milky Way is a:
A) normal spiral galaxy.
B) barred spiral galaxy.
C) very flat elliptical galaxy.
D) very dusty irregular galaxy.
E) quasar.
Q2) The center of the Milky Way lies in the direction of the constellation Cygnus. A)True
B)False
Q3) Most of the new star formation in the Galaxy is found in the: A) halo.
B) spiral arms.
C) bulge.
D) galactic center.
E) globular clusters.
Q4) What are the observational pieces of evidence that confirm the existence of a three-part structure (bulge,disk,halo)to the Milky Way Galaxy?
Q5) Who discovered the period-luminosity relationship,and why was it so critical?
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Chapter 24: Galaxies: Building Blocks of the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) The expansion of the universe means that stars in our Milky Way Galaxy are getting increasingly farther apart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For finding the distance to M31,Hubble relied upon:
A) RR Lyrae stars in its globular clusters.
B) type I supernova in its core.
C) type II supernova in its spiral arms.
D) Cepheid variables in its spiral arms.
E) planetary nebulae near its core.
Q3) What are the common properties shared by most active galaxies and quasars? How do these properties lead to an understanding of the central engine?
Q4) Quasar is short for what? Is this true of all of them?
Q5) There is very little interstellar gas or dust in most elliptical galaxies.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Type Sc are the dustiest of the galaxies.
A)True
B)False
Page 28
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Chapter 25: Galaxies and Dark Matter: The Large-Scale
Structure of the Cosmos
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Sample Questions
Q1) To what three types of modern survivors can the masses of the protogalactic blobs be compared?
Q2) According to their rotation curves,most spiral galaxies: A) rotate as a solid body.
B) rotate counterclockwise.
C) have decreasing rotational speeds with increasing distance. D) contain dark matter.
E) contain dark energy.
Q3) Why do rich clusters of galaxies contain a larger fraction of ellipticals than poor clusters or groups of galaxies?
Q4) Due to the galaxy density and collisions,________ are rare in the centers of clusters.
A) irregulars
B) quasars
C) spirals
D) black holes
E) blazars
Q5) What is a galaxy's rotation curve? To which galaxies is it best applied,and what does it tell us about the distribution of dark matter?
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Chapter 26: Cosmology: The Big Bang and the Fate of the Universe
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101 Verified Questions
101 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Does the universe have an edge or a center?
Q2) According to the main sequence turn-off points of the oldest globular clusters,they are about:
A) 4.5 billion years old.
B) 6.8 billion years old.
C) 10 billion years old.
D) 12 billion years old.
E) 16 billion years old.
Q3) Is there enough luminous matter to stop the universe's expansion? Is there enough dark matter? What else is there?
Q4) A decade ago,many astrophysicists thought that the oldest globular clusters were 14-16 billion years old.Why did this create problems,and how did new Hubble and Hipparcos data resolve them?
Q5) In an open universe two parallel beams of light will:
A) remain parallel.
B) diverge.
C) converge.
D) circle back on themselves.
E) continue on forever.
Q6) State the cosmological principle. Page 30
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Chapter 27: The Early Universe: Toward the Beginning of Time
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110 Verified Questions
110 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The universe expanded by a factor of 10 during inflation,when the strong force separated from the electromagnetic and weak nuclear forces.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The period before the separation of the gravitational force is the Planck Epoch.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The critical temperature for nucleosynthesis to begin was the:
A) triple alpha reaction at 100 million K.
B) deuterium bottleneck at about 900 million K.
C) proton-proton cycle at 10 million K.
D) iron production at 10 billion K.
E) formation of lithium at 50 million K.
Q4) The period from about 100 seconds up to 15 minutes after the Big Bang is the:
A) Radiation Era.
B) Lepton Epoch.
C) Nuclear Epoch.
D) Decoupling Epoch.
E) Matter Era.
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Q5) Describe the separation of the superforce and the effect it had on the Universe.
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT reveal information about conditions on the early Earth?
A) the fossil record
B) the sedimentary rocks found on the most ancient exposures in Greenland
C) laboratory simulations of the primordial ocean and atmosphere
D) advanced experiments on amino acids
E) evidence gleaned from other planets in the early stages of their evolution
Q2) During which step in cosmic evolution did diverse life forms begin to arise?
A) particulate evolution
B) stellar evolution
C) chemical evolution
D) biological evolution
E) cultural evolution
Q3) How is a technical civilization defined?
A) a civilization that can avoid self-destruction for long periods
B) a civilization that can communicate over interstellar distances
C) a civilization that has the ability to store and process information
D) a civilization that has developed interplanetary space travel
E) a civilization that can construct tools out of raw materials
Q4) Why is Earth a stronger radio emitter than the Sun?
Page 33
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