General Astronomy
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
General Astronomy introduces students to the fundamental concepts of astronomy, exploring the structure and dynamics of the universe. The course covers the history and methods of astronomical observation, the solar system, stars, galaxies, black holes, and cosmology. Emphasis is placed on understanding the physical laws governing celestial bodies, the life cycles of stars, and the evolution of the universe. Students will engage with astronomical phenomena through observation, data analysis, and critical thinking, fostering an appreciation for the vastness and complexity of the cosmos.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Journey to the Cosmic Frontier 6th Edition by John D Fix
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27 Chapters
867 Verified Questions
867 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Journeys Start
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the coordinates of a star that is rising in the northeast?
A)Azimuth 180 degrees,altitude 90 degrees
B)Azimuth 145 degrees,altitude 0 degrees
C)Azimuth 60 degrees,altitude 0 degrees
D)Azimuth 75 degrees,altitude 90 degrees
Answer: C
Q2) What are the altitude and azimuth (in degrees)of a star that is setting in the southwest?
A)Altitude 90,azimuth 90
B)Altitude 30,azimuth 180
C)Altitude 0,azimuth 240
D)Altitude 45,azimuth 360
Answer: C
Q3) How many seconds of arc are there in a degree?
A)3600
B)206265
C)60
D)360
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Patterns in the Sky
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Sample Questions
Q1) Relative to the stars,the Moon
A)Remains stationary
B)Moves eastward,then westward during a month
C)Moves westward
D)Moves eastward
Answer: D
Q2) On the first day of Spring,the Sun is on the
A)Zenith
B)Meridian
C)Celestial equator
D)Nadir
Answer: C
Q3) The sidereal month is the time required for
A)The Moon to go from new phase to new phase
B)The Moon to orbit the Earth once with respect to the sun
C)The Moon to orbit the Earth once with respect to the stars
D)A complete saros cycle
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Ancient Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What body was located at the center of Ptolemy's model of the solar system?
A)The Sun
B)The Moon
C)The Earth
D)The central fire
Answer: C
Q2) How did Eratosthenes determine the circumference of the Earth?
A)By sailing around it
B)By comparing the altitude of the Sun at different locations
C)By noting the size of Earth's umbral shadow
D)By assuming that the Earth and Moon are the same size
Answer: B
Q3) An astronaut lands on an unknown planet.After walking a distance of 400 km toward the north pole of the planet,she notices that the pole star for that planet is 5 degrees higher in the sky.What is the circumference of the planet?
A)28,800 km
B)400 km
C)4600 km
D)7200 km
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Renaissance Astronomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the orbital period of an asteroid that has a semimajor axis of 2.8 AU?
A)2.8 years
B)4.7 years
C)7.8 years
D)10.4 years
Q2) Which of the following did Galileo use to support the heliocentric hypothesis?
A)Prograde motion of the planets
B)Phases of the Moon
C)Phases of Venus
D)Existence of sunspots
Q3) Suppose the distance between the two foci of an ellipse is much smaller than the semimajor axis of the ellipse.What can be said about the ellipse?
A)A planet orbiting on that ellipse would have a short orbital period
B)The eccentricity of the ellipse is nearly zero
C)The ellipse is long and skinny
D)The foci are located far from the semimajor axis
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Chapter 5: Gravity and Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a force is applied to a body with a mass of 100 kg,the acceleration of the body is 1 m/s/s.If the same force is applied to a body with a mass of 40 kg,what is the acceleration of the body?
A)0.25 m/s/s
B)1 m/s/s
C)10 m/s/s
D)2.5 m/s/s
Q2) Suppose an object moves in a circular path at constant speed.What can be said about the force acting on it?
A)There is no force acting on it
B)The force acting on it must constantly vary in strength
C)The force acting on it must vary in direction.
D)The force acting on it must be gravity.
Q3) The tides are the smallest during what lunar phase?
A)Third quarter
B)First quarter
C)Full Moon
D)more than one of the above
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Chapter 6: Light and Telescopes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A TV satellite broadcasts at a frequency of 5000 MHz,(1 MHz = 1 million Hertz).What is the wavelength of this radiation?
A)1000 cm
B)5 million centimeters
C)6 cm
D)0.3 cm
Q2) Which of the following forms of electromagnetic radiation has the longest wavelength?
A)Visible
B)X-ray
C)Infrared
D)Ultraviolet
Q3) In the laboratory,a spectral line of an element has a wavelength of 5000 Angstroms.What would be the measured wavelength of that line in the spectrum of a planet that is approaching at a velocity of 30 km/s? (The speed of light is 300,000 km/s. )
A)4999.5 Angstroms
B)4995 Angstroms
C)5000.5 Angstroms
D)5005 Angstroms
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Overview of the Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radiation emitted by the sun is brightest at a wavelength of about 5000 Å (1 Å is 10<sup>-10</sup> m).At what wavelength would the Sun be brightest if its temperature were doubled?
A)2500 Å
B)5000 Å
C)10,000 Å
D)20,000 Å
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a terrestrial planet?
A)Mean density greater than 3000 kg per cubic meter
B)Made primarily of iron and silicates
C)Mass less than or equal to that of the Earth
D)Extensive methane-ammonia atmosphere
Q3) The half-life for radioactive decay of potassium into argon is 1.3 billion years.A rock is found with 10 atoms of potassium and 90 of argon.What can we say about the age of the rock?
A)It formed less than a billion years ago
B)It formed about 1.3 billion years ago
C)It is much older than 1.3 billion years
D)It is much older than 20 billion years
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Earth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the plate tectonic model of the Earth's crustal activity,where is crustal material destroyed?
A)Along mid-ocean ridges
B)In zones of convergence
C)In the centers of continents
D)In mountain chains
Q2) What causes the Earth's mesosphere (also known as the ozone layer)to be warmer than layers just above or below it?
A)Chemical reactions involving ozone produce heat
B)Ozone absorbs solar energy
C)Heat is transported into the ozone layer by convection from the troposphere
D)Energetic particles hit the mesosphere to produce heat and aurorae
Q3) Which of the following is not likely to occur at a boundary where two crustal plates collide?
A)Formation of new crust
B)Volcanic activity
C)Earthquakes
D)Formation of mountain ranges
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Chapter 9: The Moon
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Sample Questions
Q1) What kind of eclipse will be seen by an observer located directly behind the umbral shadow of the Moon?
A)Partial lunar eclipse
B)Total eclipse of Earth
C)Total lunar eclipse
D)Annular solar eclipse
Q2) If the Moon did not rotate on its own axis,we would observe
A)Both sides of the Moon
B)Trick question-it doesn't rotate
C)Only one side of the Moon
D)A lack of tides on the Earth
E)Only solar tides
Q3) What kind of eclipse occurs when the Moon's penumbral shadow comes in contact with the surface of the Earth?
A)Partial solar eclipse
B)Total solar eclipse
C)Partial lunar eclipse
D)Total lunar eclipse
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11
Chapter 10: Mercury and Venus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the surface of Venus so hot?
A)Infrared radiation emitted by the surface can't escape into space
B)Venus absorbs nearly all of the solar radiation that strikes it
C)Frequent volcanic eruptions heat the lower atmosphere
D)The surface is heated by radioactivity in surface rocks
Q2) The temperature on the surface of Venus is closest to
A)100 K
B)400 K
C)700 K
D)10,000 K
Q3) Why does Venus absorb less energy from the Sun than Earth?
A)Earth's atmosphere is thicker than the atmosphere of Venus.
B)More solar radiation strikes the Earth,relative to Venus.
C)The slow rotation rate of Venus prevents absorption of sunlight.
D)The thick clouds of Venus reflect most of the incoming solar energy.
Q4) Which of the following best describes the rotation of Venus?
A)Rapid and forward (prograde)
B)Rapid and backward (retrograde)
C)Slow and forward (prograde)
D)Slow and backward (retrograde)
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Mars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the daily temperature variation on Mars so much larger than we experience on Earth?
A)Mars spins slowly,so its nights are very long
B)Mars is much darker than the Earth,so it absorbs more sunlight
C)Mars's atmosphere is too thin to insulate the surface
D)Mars has smaller internal heat sources than the Earth
Q2) For which solar system object has the most extensive search for life been made?
A)Venus
B)Jupiter
C)Mercury
D)Mars
Q3) What evidence do we have that plate tectonic activity has occurred on Mars?
A)Parallel strips of magnetized rock
B)Dry river beds
C)Large volcanoes
D)Several continent-sized highland regions separated by lower regions
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13
Chapter 12: Jupiter and Saturn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the dark-colored regions that are observed in the clouds of Jupiter is correct?
A)They are relatively warm and deep in the atmosphere
B)They are relatively warm and high in the atmosphere
C)They are relatively cool and deep in the atmosphere
D)They are relatively cool and high in the atmosphere
Q2) The inner parts of Saturn's rings orbit at a faster speed than the outer parts of the rings.What does this tell us about the rings?
A)The rings are made of solid sheets of material
B)Gravity is not the force that holds the rings in orbit about Saturn
C)The rings are made of a myriad of independently orbiting particles
D)The rings orbit in the direction opposite the rotation of Saturn
Q3) The atmosphere of Jupiter is primarily made up of
A)Nitrogen and oxygen
B)Sulfuric acid
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Hydrogen and helium
Q4) What two chemical elements make up most of Jupiter's mass?
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Outer Solar System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sets of planets has large diameters,locations in the outer solar system,and extensive gaseous atmospheres?
A)Earth,Mars,Jupiter,Saturn
B)Mercury,Venus,Earth,Mars
C)Jupiter,Saturn,Uranus,Neptune
D)Mercury,Venus,Mars,Uranus
Q2) Why will Pluto never collide with Neptune,despite the fact that it often crossing Neptune's orbit?
A)2:3 gravity resonance of Neptune with Pluto keeps the planets far apart.
B)The planets may someday collide,but a collision is not likely due to the large distances involved.
C)A near collision with Triton has thrown Pluto into a more distant orbit,far away from Neptune.
D)A 3:5 gravity resonance between Neptune and Jupiter keeps Neptune from getting near Pluto.
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15
Chapter 14: Satellites
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Sample Questions
Q1) The volcanic activity of Io is a consequence of A)Tidal heating
B)Radioactive materials in Io's interior
C)Frequent meteoroid impacts
D)Frictional heating due to atmospheric winds
Q2) Which of the following is the best description of Jupiter's outermost Galilean satellite,Callisto?
A)Dotted with volcanoes
B)Criss-crossed with many cracks and mountain ridges
C)Heavily cratered
D)Smooth,nearly featureless
Q3) The satellites of Saturn are made up mostly of A)Ice
B)Rock
C)Metal
D)Gas
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Chapter 15: Small Solar System Bodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is distinctive about the Apollo asteroids?
A)They share Jupiter's orbit
B)Their orbits cross that of the Earth
C)They are the largest asteroids
D)They do not have elliptical orbits
Q2) Most of the asteroids are located between the orbits of
A)Venus and Earth
B)Earth and Mars
C)Mars and Jupiter
D)Jupiter and Saturn
Q3) Why is the meteor shower seen in mid December called the Geminids?
A)The shower occurs during the month when the sun is in Gemini
B)The meteors are fragments of a body from a star in Gemini
C)The radiant of the shower is located in Gemini
D)The shower was mentioned in a myth about Gemini,the twins
Q4) What eventually happens to most short-period comets?
A)They collide with the Sun
B)They are captured by Jupiter
C)The ice in their nuclei completely evaporates
D)They become asteroids
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Basic Properties of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two stars differ by 10 in absolute magnitude.What is the ratio of their luminosities?
A)10
B)100
C)1000
D)10,000
Q2) The stars located in the lower left corner of the H-R diagram are
A)White dwarfs
B)Main sequence stars
C)Giants
D)Supergiants
Q3) A globular cluster is 1 kiloparsec away.What is its parallax?
A).001 seconds of arc
B)1 second of arc
C)1000 seconds of arc
D)0.1 seconds of arc
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18
Chapter 17: The Sun
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the Sun do astronomers learn about when they study neutrinos from the Sun?
A)The core
B)The corona
C)Sunspots
D)The convection zone
Q2) The first solar neutrino telescope was made of
A)A cluster of large radio telescopes,all pointing at the Sun
B)A large tank of cleaning fluid
C)Magnetic collectors
D)A series of special lenses
Q3) Why do sunspots appear dark?
A)They emit no light
B)They are transparent and let us see deeper,darker layers
C)They are cooler than their surroundings
D)They are shadows
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Formation of Stars and Planets
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a serious objection to catastrophic theories of the origin of the solar system?
A)Collisions between stars are rare events
B)The planets are much younger than the Sun
C)Material pulled from the Sun would have been too hot to form planets
D)A separate collision would have been needed to form each planet
Q2) Why do the H-R diagrams of young clusters show the least massive stars located above the zero-age main sequence?
A)They are always the first stars to form in a cluster
B)They take longer to reach the main sequence
C)They evolve away from the main sequence before more massive stars do
D)They are actually binaries,and thus seem overluminous
Q3) As an interstellar cloud collapses to become a star,its central region eventually becomes opaque.Why is this a significant development in the formation of the star?
A)Temperature can now begin to rise
B)The star now begins to rotate
C)The star now begins to radiate infrared radiation
D)Magnetic pressure now prevents further collapse
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Chapter 19: The Evolution of Stars
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Sample Questions
Q1) As soon as its core hydrogen is exhausted,a star like the Sun begins to evolve
A)Toward the upper right in the H-R diagram
B)Toward the zero age main sequence stage
C)Up the main sequence to become an O star
D)Toward the lower left in the H-R diagram
Q2) The "helium flash" is
A)The rapid consumption of core helium when helium fusion first starts in a star
B)A flash of light as the star encounters a cloud of helium
C)A bright X-ray flash from a helium accretion disk surrounding a black hole
D)An infrared burst from helium-rich proto stars
Q3) The least massive stars in which nuclear fusion occurs have masses of about 8% that of the Sun.Why don't less massive objects ever experience nuclear fusion?
A)They explode before fusion can begin
B)They collide with other objects and increase their masses
C)They never become hot enough for fusion to occur
D)They become black holes before fusion can begin
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21
Chapter 20: White Dwarfs, neutron Stars, and Black Holes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A white dwarf star has the same mass as the Sun but a radius 1/100 that of the Sun.How does the surface gravity of the white dwarf compare with that of the Sun?
A)1/100 as large
B)The same
C)100 times as large
D)10,000 times as large
Q2) A typical pulsar rotates once per
A)Year
B)Day
C)Hour
D)Second
Q3) Suppose an astronaut travels close to a black hole's event horizon (but is smart enough not to enter!).If he remains 1 day by his clocks,when he returns to base,he will be
A)1 day older
B)More than 1 day older
C)Less than 1 day older
D)1 day younger
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22
Chapter 21: Binary Star Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The explosive burning of hydrogen on the surface of a white dwarf produces a
A)Supernova
B)Nova
C)Pulsar
D)Splitting of the white dwarf into a binary system
Q2) When a black hole is part of a close binary star system,the system may be a strong source of X-rays.Where do the X-rays come from?
A)The companion star,which is heated by the black hole
B)A disk of hot matter around the black hole
C)From the black hole itself
D)From planets that are captured by the black hole
Q3) A type Ia supernova is caused by
A)The abrupt consumption of carbon in a white dwarf
B)The expulsion of the accretion disk of a neutron star
C)A black hole pulling its binary companion through its event horizon
D)The collapse of the core of a neutron star in a binary system
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Chapter 22: The Milky Way
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Sample Questions
Q1) The velocity of the sun in its orbit around the galactic center is considered to be around what value?
A)150 km/sec
B)220 km/sec
C)340 km/sec
D)541 km/sec
Q2) Which of the following must be known in order to determine the amount of galactic mass that lies within the Sun's orbit?
A)The Sun's distance from the center and orbital period
B)The Sun's mass and orbital speed
C)The Sun's distance from the center and the size of its orbit
D)The Sun's mass and its distance from the center
Q3) The oldest stars in the galaxy are found
A)In globular clusters in the halo
B)At the center of the galaxy
C)On the front rim of spiral arms
D)In the galactic disk
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24
Chapter 23: Galaxies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of galaxy contains the least amount of interstellar material?
A)Ellipticals
B)Spirals
C)Barred spirals
D)Irregulars
Q2) The Magellanic clouds are
A)Regions of star formation in the Andromeda galaxy
B)Close clusters of galaxies about 10 Mpc away
C)Nearby irregular galaxies gravitationally bound to the Milky Way
D)An optical illusion caused by dust in the interplanetary medium
E)Regions of little gas and dust in the plane of the galaxy
Q3) The Magellanic clouds are
A)Ellipticals
B)Spirals
C)Barred spirals
D)Irregulars
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Chapter 24: Quasars and Other Active Galaxies
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Q1) Quasars were originally discovered as
A)Strong radio sources identified with star-like images on photographs
B)Variable sources of light
C)Bright galaxies,and only later found to be radio sources
D)The only type of radio source within our galaxy
Q2) Absorption lines in quasars usually have lower redshifts than the quasars themselves do.This suggests that the absorption lines are caused by gas
A)At the same distance as the quasars
B)Between us and the quasars
C)That is farther away than the quasars
D)In the quasar itself
Q3) Since quasars are thought to be at cosmological distances,we see them as they were when the universe was
A)Much older than it is today
B)Relatively young
C)Contracting
D)Much larger than it is today
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Chapter 25: Galaxy Clusters and the Structure of the Universe
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Q1) Which of the following statements about galaxies is true?
A)Most galaxies are well isolated from other galaxies
B)Most galaxies occur in isolated pairs
C)Galaxies are found both in small groups and large clusters
D)Galaxies are uniformly distributed throughout the universe
Q2) The Coma cluster is
A)Poor and regular
B)Rich and regular
C)Poor and irregular
D)Rich and irregular
Q3) The central regions of large clusters contain mostly S0 and elliptical galaxies.Why?
A)Tides there have stripped normal spirals of their outer parts
B)Galaxies are still forming there
C)They are too distant for us to see other types of galaxies
D)S0 galaxies are shot out of other galaxies in clusters
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Chapter 26: Cosmology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An observer now located at a distance of 3 billion light years from us could look in our general direction and see
A)Most of the galaxies approaching him or her
B)The same Hubble's law that we see
C)About equal numbers of red and blue shifted galaxies
D)Everything rushing away from a point near the Milky Way galaxy
Q2) Which of the following combinations will lead to an eventual contraction of the universe?
A)High density,large expansion rate,no dark energy
B)Low density,large expansion rate,dominated by dark energy
C)High density,small expansion rate,no dark energy
D)Low density,small expansion rate,dominated by dark energy
Q3) Which of the following is true of the universe if it is made of flat space?
A)It will eventually begin to collapse
B)It has a center
C)It is infinite
D)The expansion of the universe began at a point in the Virgo cluster
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Chapter 27: Life in the Universe
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are pulsar planets detected?
A)By looking for variations in the light output of the planet.
B)By observing the pulsar planet as tidal forces tear it apart.
C)By looking for shifts in the period of the planets orbit.
D)By observing variations between pulses.
Q2) The Drake Equation contains several terms that are known to a high degree of accuracy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why are interstellar signals likely to have narrow bandwidths?
A)The signals will be brighter than with a broader bandwidth
B)It makes it harder to guess the correct frequency
C)It produces more distinct spectral channels for communication
D)Most transmitters only operate over a narrow frequency range
Q4) An organism's characteristics are encoded in its
A)DNA
B)Amino acids
C)Proteins
D)Carbon atoms
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