Fundamentals of Surgery Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Surgery introduces students to the essential principles, techniques, and concepts that form the foundation of surgical practice. The course covers key topics such as aseptic technique, wound healing, surgical anatomy, and perioperative patient care. Students gain an understanding of the indications and contraindications for common surgical procedures, the management of surgical emergencies, and the principles of minimally invasive surgery. Through lectures, laboratory sessions, and simulated surgical environments, students learn about proper instrument handling, suturing, knot-tying, and patient safety protocols, with an emphasis on developing critical thinking and professional skills necessary for success in surgical disciplines.
Recommended Textbook Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the common goal of a perioperative team?
A)Do not report any surgical mishaps to patients or family members.
B)Keep general anesthesia to a minimum.
C)Complete every surgical procedure in less than 4 hours.
D)Deliver efficient patient care for each procedure.
Answer: D
Q2) Which objective should a perioperative learner strive to attain?
A)Realize that a team approach to surgical procedures cannot always occur.
B)Validate the need for constant patient observation.
C)Maintain the belief that competent behaviors are more vital than humane behaviors.
D)Hands-on experience is the most important means to understanding surgery.
Answer: B
Q3) Skills are best learned through
A)listening to an expert tell how to do it.
B)watching a movie about a task.
C)actual hands-on experience.
D)reading about it.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical conscience is considered the Golden Rule: Do unto the patient as you would have others do unto you.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which event is included on Medicare's "No Pay List" and will not be reimbursed?
A)Myocardial infarction
B)Wrong site surgery
C)Documented Alzheimer's
D)Incision and drainage of a chronic hip abscess
Answer: B
Q3) A plastic identification wristband is the only way patients are identified.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Failure of a caregiver to provide accountability is considered negligence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Negligence is
A)professional misconduct.
B)unreasonable lack of skill.
C)the failure to use care or skills that any caregiver in a similar situation might use.
D)illegal or immoral conduct.
Answer: C
Q2) Which is a benefit of EMR in the hospital setting?
A)Documentation can be transmitted to multiple caregivers quickly.
B)Patients can ask for copies of their health care records.
C)Everyone can view the health care records of any patient within a particular facility.
D)Laboratory results are hard to decipher when downloaded.
Answer: A
Q3) Who can be named in a lawsuit?
A)The patient
B)Any caregiver
C)The head nurse
D)The surgeon
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does credentialing exist?
A)To create revenue for the nursing profession
B)To maintain quality of the personnel's education and performance
C)To encourage professionals to further their education
D)To remain competitive with the medical profession
Q2) A perioperative nurse may initially obtain a CNOR certification
A)after being in clinical preoperative practice for 1 year.
B)after working 5 years in the intensive care unit setting.
C)once he or she has passed a national exam set forth by CCI.
D)after reading five AORN journal articles and precepting five new perioperative employees.
Q3) What are the surgeon's duties?
A)Selection and performance of the surgery
B)Pre-operative diagnosis
C)Ethical surgical practice
D)All of the above
Q4) The term anesthetist refers to a qualified RN,anesthesiologist assistant (AA),dentist,or physician who administers anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a physical hazard in the OR?
A)Medication
B)Needlestick injury
C)Prep solution
D)Anesthesia gases
Q2) The first assistant usually assists in positioning the patient,surgical site exposure,closing skin incisions and applying dressings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
Q4) Knot tying for conventional surgery is performed using the A)one-handed tie.
B)freehanded tie.
C)stapling
D)backhanded tie.
Q5) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
Q6) A physician assistant (PA)can assist in the OR and write prescriptions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sales representative may never render direct patient care at any time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Basic policies are updates and statements of task-oriented and skill-oriented actions to be taken in the implementation of policies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An infection control committee investigates hospital-acquired infections and seeks to prevent or control them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the definition of SCIP?
A)Surgical Care Improvement Project
B)Surgical Cost Infection Project
C)Surgical Control Policy
D)Surveillance Control
Q5) An effective infection control program aims to reduce the ________________ of infection and control ______________.
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Q1) In order for a victim of sexual trauma to regain a sense of control and security,the caregiver must
A)not wear gloves and use quick, brisk moves.
B)create loud noises and speak in loud tones in order to distract the patient.
C)approach the victim with patience and understanding.
D)constantly touch the patient to assure her or him that the hospital is a safe environment.
Q2) At what time of day should diabetic patients be scheduled for surgical procedures?
A)Middle of day
B)Late afternoon
C)Early in the day
D)Last case of the day
Q3) The chain of evidence incorporates ____________________ of all findings associated with the patient,the suspected ____________________,and the
Q4) Before administration of anesthetics,a patient may be acutely aware of the surroundings and activities.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a Jantene procedure,which two vessels are anatomically switched?
A)Aorta and pulmonary artery
B)Superior vena cava and left pulmonary vein
C)Aortic arch and pulmonary artery
D)Right pulmonary vein and inferior vena cava
Q2) Which is one of the most common causes of cardiac death within the first week of life?
A)Pulmonary fibrosis
B)Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
C)Aortic valve insufficiency
D)Ventricular septal defect
Q3) Which is a common pediatric procedure performed that result from the diagnosis of otitis media?
A)Goniotomy
B)Tenotomy
C)Luque fixation
D)Myringotomy
Q4) Neonates,infants,and children have a wider average body temperature than adults.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important to assess for multiple vaginal births in an older adult female patient because that data could indicate
A)uterine and bladder prolapse.
B)ovarian cancer.
C)number of children.
D)presence of a pessary.
Q2) Some common findings seen when assessing an older adult patient's integumentary system might be
A)nonhealing foot wounds.
B)skin tags.
C)bruising on arms or hands.
D)bruises.
Q3) Which is an influence that helps shape the prototype of the older adult's place in society?
A)Geographic
B)Physical
C)Social
D)Political
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to prop OR doors open during or in between surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is desirable to have all ORs be the same size.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Swinging doors are the preferred door type in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In what room might a laparoscopic cholecystectomy be performed?
A)Endoscopy room
B)Interventional radiography room
C)Minimally invasive surgery room
D)Cystoscopy room
Q5) Which is one of the three storage areas found within the perioperative area?
A)Contaminated instrument storage
B)Minimally invasive procedure room
C)Sterile supply room
D)Contaminated equipment storage
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for wounded service animals in a mobile hospital setting,wounded soldiers and animals are all treated and operated on in the same setting to save on space and cost.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because nurses are not on the front line fighting in battle,they do not experience the posttraumatic stress disorder that the wounded soldier might.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Depending on how the patient feels in PACU,he or she may drive home after a general anesthetic agent has been given.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ambulatory surgery is done only under regional or local anesthesia. A)True
B)False
Q5) Use ____________________ patient identifiers when administering drugs or blood,taking blood samples,or providing treatments.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What item should a member of the sterile team discard and put in the trash before leaving the surgical room?
A)Hair cover
B)Eye protection
C)Scrubs
D)Shoe covers
Q2) How are solutions or fluids disposed of after a procedure?
A)Dump down the sink.
B)Dump it on the floor and mop it up.
C)Send it in a bucket in the case cart.
D)Solidify the canister with powder, use the closed suction system.
Q3) Turnover time is the time it takes to complete the surgery schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Standardization is in the best interest of the patient and the personnel performing cleanup.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of people is more prone to a latex allergy?
A)Children with spina bifida
B)Food service workers
C)People with allergy to shellfish
D)People allergic to poison ivy or dust
Q2) Which is an incorrect principle of good body mechanics?
A)Push stretchers, tables, and heavy equipment
B)Stand with a narrow stance at the OR table to avoid fatigue
C)Change position frequently or walk around if possible
D)Bend knees to get the body weight under the load
Q3) Which of the following safeguards should not be done when working with electrical equipment?
A)Do not stretch power cables.
B)Unplug power cords by pulling on the cord.
C)Ground all equipment.
D)Make sure machines are turned off before plugging them in.
Q4) Exposure to waste anesthetic gases is not a problem for perioperative members as long as they wear a mask in the OR.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one example of an infection resistant to antibiotic therapy?
A)MRSA
B)Helicobacter pylori
C)Tetracycline
D)Rhinitis
Q2) Bacteria are very dangerous to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Resident flora aid in the synthesis of vitamins and folic acid while in the large intestine but may cause an infection if relocated to a surgical incision.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What form of hepatitis is a major health care-associated problem transmitted by blood,saliva,semen,and other body fluids?
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis B
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis D
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an item,such as the end of a suture,extends over the edge of the sterile field,can it be brought back into the sterile field?
A)True
B)False
Q2) Once the patient's skin has been prepped with iodine solution,it is sterile and considered free of all flora.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When removing instrument trays from the sterilizer,it is acceptable to touch the door of the sterilizer with the tray because the door is sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If an item in the OR is not known definitively to be sterile,what is the next action to be taken?
A)Consider it contaminated and throw it out.
B)Call your supervisor.
C)Keep it in the room and use it so as not to waste an opened item.
D)Ask the anesthesiologist in the room to determine its sterility.
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Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, Surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) The appropriate OR attire for a visitor whose presence in the OR will be brief is a one-piece coverall,head cover,mask,and shoe covers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Double gloving is recommended for all sterile team members.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The purpose of a mask is to filter droplets containing microorganisms expelled from the mouth.What is another purpose for the mask?
A)It's a good idea to wear two masks for better protection.
B)Many masks filter about 99% of particulate matter larger than 5 mm.
C)Masks are still effective if they become moist.
D)Reusable cotton masks are still appropriate.
Q4) Which is a type of personal protective equipment (PPE)used in the OR setting?
A)Scrub jacket
B)Eyeglasses
C)Gloves
D)Scrub top
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which disinfectant is safe to use for housekeeping purposes?
A)Formaldehyde
B)Alcohol and chlorine compounds
C)Glutaraldehyde
D)Ethylene oxide
Q2) Name a method of surgical instrument disinfection.
A)Manual wiping with a chemical-impregnated cloth or sponge
B)Soaking by total immersion in betadine solution
C)Soaking tips of used instruments in saline solution
D)Rinsing in tap water
Q3) The surgical services central processing department (CPD or SPD)is usually located close to the main OR to minimize the potential for cross-contamination of soiled and clean instruments and supplies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Instruments may be immersed in which of the following solutions?
A)Ethyl alcohol
B)Distilled water
C)Saline solution
D)Chlorhexidine
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to open sterile supplies into a rigid closed container because the four sides are sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ethylene oxide (EO)is a chemical sterilant that does not kill spores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is required for the steam sterilization process to be effective in killing microorganisms?
A)Cool sterile air and hydrogen peroxide
B)Pounds of pressure and heat
C)Moisture and heat
D)Air in sterilizer chamber
Q4) Sterilization renders an item free of most microorganisms except for some spores.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An item that can be safely steam sterilized should never be gas sterilized.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to use a hemostat to load a blade onto a knife handle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When using any type of power equipment,what must be checked before handing up any instrument?
A)Make sure the instrument is in "on" mode and ready to be used.
B)The instrument must be in "off" mode.
C)Check to make sure the instrument is in the "safety" mode.
D)Make sure the instrument is unassembled and in the "on" mode.
Q3) What type of needle holder has jaws eliminating,twisting,and turning of the suture?
A)Smooth jaws
B)Crosshatched
C)Webster
D)Tungsten carbide
Q4) Which instrument can be used to examine a cavity's interior?
A)Yankauer
B)Speculum
C)Tungsten needle holder
D)Bayonet forceps
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrosurgery should not be used in the mouth,around the head,or in the pleural cavity when high concentrations of _______ are present.
A)air
B)water
C)oxygen
D)blood
Q2) What is the safest location for the placement of a dispersive electrode pad for a patient who has a total knee replacement on the left knee?
A)Left calf
B)Left thigh
C)Right thigh
D)Right knee
Q3) Harmonic scalpel is a common bipolar electrical energy handpiece used in the OR.What does the working end accommodate?
A)Scissors only
B)Light beam
C)Blade tip or scissors
D)Laser
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Q1) Once the patient has entered the OR,he or she is sedated enough so as not to be cognizant of what is happening,so it is acceptable for the circulating nurse to remain on the other side of the room attending to paperwork and staying away from the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why should jewelry be removed before a surgical procedure?
A)It might get stolen
B)Doesn't need to be removed
C)Metal jewelry can cause a burn
D)It might hang in the way of the procedure
Q3) A good time to conduct an interview and instruct the patient is the morning of surgery so that the patient will not forget the information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What documentation is routinely needed before a procedure?
A)Recent history and physical
B)Blood type and crossmatch
C)Urinalysis
D)DSM IV results
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Chapter
Considerations
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Q1) Which is a location where an infusion catheter can be inserted?
A)Artery
B)Lymph node
C)External pouch
D)Peripheral nailbed
Q2) What type of radiologic procedure is used to study a joint after the injection of gas or contrast into it?
A)Ventriculography
B)Computed tomography
C)Arthrography
D)Ultrasonography
Q3) What group of people should receive a mammogram?
A)Women more than 50 years old
B)Women between the ages of 20 and 35
C)Men with a familial history of maternal breast cancer
D)Mammograms are not recommended for any age group
Q4) Because MRI uses a large electromagnet,metallic devices are allowed into the MRI machine as long as they are stainless steel.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Q1) Where are sources of drugs derived from?
A)Plant sources
B)Mineral sources
C)Biological sources
D)All of the above
Q2) Which gas is used to power drills and saws?
A)Oxygen
B)Carbon monoxide
C)Nitrogen
D)Medical air
Q3) What items on the sterile field need to be labeled with a drug's name,strength,and amount once it is received on the field?
A)The drug's container and syringe
B)The needle holder
C)The retractor used before injecting the drug
D)The hypodermic needle used to inject the drug
Q4) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Q1) A MAC,or monitored anesthesia care,is done without an anesthesia provider present.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Because the patient is awake for the entire case,vital signs do not need to be recorded for a case under local anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a function controlled by homeostatic mechanisms?
A)Urine pH
B)Pain level
C)Muscle contraction
D)Heartbeat
Q4) Which is a common indicator for an "awake intubation"?
A)Large mouth
B)Absent tonsils
C)Dentures
D)Enlarged tongue
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Q1) What is included in the verbal report given to the PACU nurse once the patient reaches the recovery area?
A)Type of insurance the patient has
B)Type of procedure done
C)Where the patient lives
D)Employment status
Q2) If the countable items count results in an incorrect count,the circulating nurse is responsible only for informing the surgeon.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The surgeon and assistants should never take their towels from the primary sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A minimum of two people is needed to transfer an anesthetized patient from the OR table to the stretcher using a roller device.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Q1) It is acceptable to adjust a sterile towel or drape once it has been placed in order to correctly square off the incision site.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What equipment separates the sterile from the nonsterile areas at the head of the bed?
A)IV poles or metal bars
B)Electrosurgical unit
C)Lithotomy posts
D)Surgical headlight
Q3) A safe prep solution for a facial procedure on a patient with an iodine allergy would be
A)Betadine.
B)chlorhexidine.
C)triclosan.
D)saline.
Q4) Towels are a counted item and are generally used in the surgical incision to control bleeding.
A)True
B)False
28
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Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Q1) Which is a condition that may occur during a surgical procedure,resulting in an altered physiology?
A)Tissue dystrophy
B)Bleeding
C)Surgical augmentation
D)Depression
Q2) What is the normal hourly urinary output?
A)5 to 10 mL/hr
B)10 to 20 mL/hr
C)30 to 60 mL/hr
D)Greater than 30 to 60 mL/hr
Q3) Central venous pressure (CVP)
A)measures left atrial blood pressure.
B)measures total body blood volume.
C)reflects the pressure in the major veins as blood returns to the heart.
D)measures cardiac output.
Q4) An EEG (electroencephalogram)measures muscular activity and messages sent from the core muscles to the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a component of fibrin glue?
A)Platelets
B)Potassium gluconate
C)Fibrinogen
D)Gelfoam
Q2) What is another name for a suture ligature?
A)Tie on a passer
B)Stick tie
C)Free tie
D)Kittner
Q3) Which is a requirement of prosthetic materials that are to be implanted into the body?
A)Will degenerate within 2 to 3 years
B)Produce little or no tissue reaction
C)Maintain marginal tissue coverage
D)Maintain degenerative qualities within the body
Q4) After an EEA stapler is used to anastomose two edges of tissue together,a donut-shaped ring is sent to pathology as a specimen.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common cause of adhesion formation?
A)Wrong type of dressing applied
B)Suture material
C)Serosal injury
D)Scar formation
Q2) A drain can enhance wound healing by
A)preventing infection.
B)increasing wound dead space.
C)increasing seroma formation.
D)preventing tissue devitalization.
Q3) First intention wound healing is the desired method of healing after an incised aseptic wound is accurately approximated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the most important condition to promote wound healing?
A)Stop smoking
B)Young age
C)Nutritional status
D)Oxygenation of tissue
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one purpose of the postoperative follow-up phone call?
A)To assess patient outcomes upon discharge
B)To avoid a pending lawsuit by the patient or family members
C)To improve patient satisfaction scores on future surveys
D)To satisfy insurance company demands for follow-up
Q2) The main focus of the PACU nurse is on
A)discharge.
B)all physiologic processes.
C)circulation.
D)documentation.
Q3) Which professional organization established the standards of practice for the postoperative care of patients?
A)ASPAN
B)AORN
C)ABPANC
D)CAPA
Q4) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Q1) What is the recommended IV dose of dantrolene to be given in a malignant hyperthermia (MH)crisis?
A)1 mg/kg every minute until temperature is within normal limits
B)2 to 3 mg/kg in an initial IV bolus and repeat every 5 to 10 minutes
C)10 mg/kg initially and every 5 minutes until muscles relax
D)10 to 20 mg/kg every 5 minutes until temperature stabilizes
Q2) If Avitene has been used for hemostasis during a surgical procedure,the blood collected from the wound cannot be used for autotransfusion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is an intraoperative factor that can increase a patient's risk of developing a respiratory complication?
A)Type of preoperative medication
B)Blood type
C)ASA classification
D)Braden score
Q4) Sickle cell anemia is an inherited disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) Endoscopes must be cleaned according to manufacturer's recommendations to prevent damaging them and proper removal of debris.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One disadvantage of robotic-assisted surgery is the expensive equipment and startup cost needed to perform the procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A Veress needle is used to create access into the peritoneal cavity with the closed method.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When using a robotic system to perform a surgical procedure,the surgeon is required to give the robot commands to activate its actions.
A)True B)False
Q5) The surgeon may place more than one trocar during puncture endoscopy. A)True B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Q1) What is an obvious sign of gallstones or presence of a neoplasm on or near to the gallbladder?
A)Hypertension
B)Conjunctivitis
C)Jaundice
D)Obesity
Q2) What breast procedure consists of removal of the entire mass along with some nondiseased tissue?
A)Radical
B)Simple
C)Lumpectomy
D)Modified radical
Q3) What type of procedure may be performed in patients with an obstructing pyloric ulcer?
A)Vagoplasty
B)Mammoplasty
C)Vagotomy
D)Pyloroplasty
Q4) A/an __________ amputation is performed at the lower third of the thigh.
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) The perineum forms the base of the pelvic floor and helps support the posterior vaginal wall.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What action does the surgeon take to assess female anatomy before a surgical procedure?
A)Examination under anesthesia (EUA)
B)Blood type
C)Date of last menstrual period
D)Age of children
Q3) Clear,straw-colored peritoneal fluid is a positive finding when a culdocentesis is performed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What term means "bleeding in between menstrual periods in a premenopausal woman?"
A)Menstruation
B)Menorrhagia
C)Menometrorrhagia
D)Menarche
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What blood test is ordered after a prostate screening?
A)CBC
B)C125
C)24-Hour urine collection
D)PSA
Q2) Which glands are sometimes removed to prevent a recurrence of prostate or breast cancer?
A)Pituitary
B)Epithelial
C)Adrenal
D)Thyroid
Q3) Cystoscopy procedures are not sterile so they do not require the use of masks or a sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is created when both ureters are anastomosed to the terminal ileum?
A)Colostomy
B)Ileal conduit
C)Nephrostomy
D)Cutaneous ureterostomy
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a cause of osteomyelitis?
A)Peripheral vascular disease
B)External fixation devices
C)Advanced age
D)Rheumatoid arthritis
Q2) Which is an example of an instrument used for exposure in orthopedic surgery?
A)Kelly clamp
B)Periosteal elevator
C)Osteotome
D)Rasp
Q3) List the bone-healing process in the correct order of occurrence.
A)Callus formation; hematoma formation; calcification process; remodeling
B)Calcification process; hematoma formation; callus formation; remodeling
C)Hematoma formation; callus formation; calcification process; remodeling
D)Hematoma formation; calcification process; callus formation; remodeling
Q4) What does ORIF stand for?
A)Offer surgical treatment
B)Open reduction and internal fixation
C)Close reduction fix later
D)Operating room ready if necessary
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a measure taken during a craniotomy to decrease blood loss?
A)Hyperthermia
B)Lithotomy position
C)Neuroradiology
D)Controlled hypotension
Q2) An opening in the skull made to expose the brain and its intracranial structures is a
A)craniorrhaphy.
B)craniopexy.
C)cranioplasty.
D)craniotomy.
Q3) What temporary form of hemostasis is placed along the scalp edges?
A)Gel foam
B)Silk sutures
C)Raney clips
D)Patties with epinephrine
Q4) A corpus callosotomy is performed to prevent secondary generalized seizures a patient may have.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spinal cord is composed of white matter on the outside and gray matter on the inside.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What structure provides support for the body,varies in size,and is separated by discs?
A)Vertebrae
B)Central foramen
C)Spinous process
D)Lumbar plexus
Q3) Which type of cautery is commonly used during spine surgery?
A)Handheld cautery
B)Tripolar cautery
C)Bipolar cautery
D)Monopolar cautery
Q4) Which of the following body systems can be affected by scoliosis?
A)Reproductive system
B)Respiratory system
C)Genitourinary system
D)Neurological system
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Q1) What procedure removes a damaged cornea and replaces it with a human donor cornea?
A)Dacryocystorhinostomy
B)Keratoplasty
C)Evisceration
D)Vitrectomy
Q2) Which is a device used to estimate intraocular pressure (IOP)?
A)A corneal trephine
B)A Geissen eye ruler
C)An air-puff device
D)A phacoemulsifier to measure fluid pressure
Q3) What important aspect of postoperative care should be included in patient education?
A)Do not bend over
B)Report pain and swelling
C)Avoid coughing
D)All of the above
Q4) The two segments of the eyeball include superior and inferior segments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) What kind of solution is used during liposuction?
A)Normal saline
B)Tumescence
C)Glycine
D)Crystalloid solution
Q2) How should a graft be handled until the surgeon is ready to apply it?
A)Leave it dry on the corner of the table.
B)Keep the graft moist on a separate sterile graft table.
C)Place it on the mayo stand.
D)Place it in an ice basin.
Q3) Which is an abnormal deposit of collagen in a healing skin wound?
A)Melanoma
B)Basal cell carcinoma
C)Keloid
D)Squamous cell carcinoma
Q4) What type of wound closure material do plastic surgeons prefer?
A)Large staples
B)Small diameter cutting needles
C)No suture
D)Skin glue
42
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Q1) What type of procedure involves the removal of the tongue and the use of a free flap?
A)Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
B)Glossectomy
C)Laryngectomy
D)Mucogingivoplasty
Q2) From what area is autograft frequently taken for a mandibular reconstruction?
A)Femur
B)Humerus
C)Ilium
D)Tibia
Q3) Which type of mastoidectomy removes air cells using a small burr by opening the mastoid process behind the ear?
A)Simple mastoidectomy
B)Modified radical mastoidectomy
C)Radical mastoidectomy
D)Simple mastectomy
Q4) Patients having a procedure,such as a laryngoscopy,that involves the use of a laser should have their eyelids ______________ and their face covered with a
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mediastinoscopy may be performed using a needle and syringe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Collection of pus and fluid in intrathoracic spaces
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
Q3) What type of device is used to prolong resuscitation after a patient is removed from cardiopulmonary bypass?
A)BCMA
B)ACLS
C)CPRS
D)ECMO
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Q1) A patient with a pacemaker should not have a procedure that uses an electrosurgical unit (ESU).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Assists ventricular function
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q3) What procedure uses grafting to bypass obstructed vessels in the heart?
A)Median sternotomy
B)Anterolateral thoracotomy
C)Mitral valve replacement
D)Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of the three layers of the arterial walls?
A)Semilunar
B)Popliteal
C)Intima
D)Mediastinal
Q2) Veins are more difficult to anastomose and are more likely to occlude than arteries when used as a graft.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Method to vaporize arterial plaque
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
Q4) Pulmonary arteries carry oxygenated blood to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transplantations to an anatomically abnormal location
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q2) Genetically identical donor and recipient
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q3) What areas of the body is donor bone marrow taken from?
A)All bones
B)Ribs
C)Iliac crests and sternum
D)Sternum and femur
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