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Fundamentals of Management introduces students to the basic principles, concepts, and functions of management as applied within organizations. The course covers key topics such as planning, organizing, leading, and controlling, while exploring the roles and responsibilities of managers in diverse environments. Students will learn about decision-making processes, organizational structures, leadership styles, motivation, and the impact of external factors on management practices. Through case studies and real-world examples, the course provides a foundational understanding of how effective management contributes to organizational success and prepares students for roles in business and administration.
Recommended Textbook
Management A Practical Introduction 6th Edition by Angelo Kinicki
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2328 Verified Questions
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152 Verified Questions
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Q1) In a ______ role, you should be constantly alert for useful information, whether gathered from newspaper stories about the competition or discovered in conversations with subordinates.
A)figurehead
B)negotiator
C)spokesperson
D)monitor
E)disseminator
Answer: D
Q2) Since the 1960s research conducted by Mintzberg, the typical general manager has reduced her work week to the traditional 40 hours.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A first-line manager directs the daily tasks of nonmanagerial personnel.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Taylor called the tendency for people to deliberately work at less than full capacity
A)loafing.
B)underachieving.
C)underperforming.
D)therbliging.
E)soldiering.
Answer: E
Q2) The tools of ______ are useful for UPS and FedEx in deciding how many employees and aircraft should be scheduled during the month of December.
A)scientific management
B)soldiering
C)management science
D)the Hawthorne studies
E)efficiency management
Answer: C
Q3) Feedback is one of the four parts of a system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) Only about a fifth of American managers reach which level of personal moral development?
A)Internalized
B)Postconventional
C)Expectational
D)Enlightened
E)Cooperative
Answer: B
Q2) The majority of American adults are likely to purchase from companies with ethical business practices only if their prices are not higher.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Andrew Carnegie, steel magnate and supporter of free libraries, is an example of a philanthropist.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of technology was exploding when the notion of a "global village" was first developed?
A)Newspapers
B)Telephones
C)Television
D)Cell phones
E)The Internet
Q2) The United States exports more to China than to any other nation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Oxfam International is a nonprofit that works in 90 countries on issues of poverty advocacy and eradication, as well as disaster relief.Oxfam is a(n)
A)multinational corporation.
B)global aid firm.
C)international philanthropy.
D)multinational organization.
E)global charity.
Q4) Identify at least three benefits for companies of expanding internationally, and provide an example of each.
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Q1) A vision has a clear sense of the future and the actions needed to get there.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is one of the organizational responses organizations make when confronted with uncertainty, as identified by Miles and Snow?
A)Aggressor
B)Investigator
C)Reactor
D)Planner
E)Leader
Q3) A mission statement expresses what the organization should become and where it wants to go strategically.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Determining an organization's mission is the responsibility of top management and the board of directors.
A)True
B)False

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Q5) What is MBO? Describe the process by which MBO is done as well as its purpose.
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered a reason for adopting strategic management and strategic planning?
A)To enhance employee loyalty.
B)To keep corporate taxes at a minimum.
C)To develop independent work from the staff.
D)To provide develop a sustainable competitive advantage.
E)To increase market dominance with repeat purchase.
Q2) What are the fundamental differences in examining internal and external environments when conducting a situation analysis?
Q3) A development strategy is the common grand strategy that involves expansion. A)True
B)False
Q4) A grand strategy can be established using tools like SWOT analysis and forecasting. A)True B)False
Q5) Managers who execute well insist on constant optimism. A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain strategy implementation, including the role of resistance.
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Q1) Which of the following responses to a challenge would be considered most like satisficing?
A)Panic
B)Relaxed avoidance
C)Relaxed change
D)Decreased involvement
E)Defensive avoidance
Q2) Customers who experience poor customer service are more likely to tell the company about it than to tell family or friends.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Intuition based on feelings rather than expertise, or the involuntary emotional response to those feelings, is known as automated experience.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Participative management has a large effect on job performance and job satisfaction.
A)True
B)False

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Sample Questions
Q1) Elizabeth works with the gaming production team at her job, so the leader of that group often assigns her work, but she also has a boss in the marketing department.Which of the following is most likely true?
A)There is likely to be a lack of common purpose among her managers.
B)Her workplace has too much division of labor.
C)Her work arrangement violates the unity of command principle.
D)Because of her cross-functional team, her work can be done without coordinated effort.
E)Her production team leader has too wide a span of control.
Q2) Hiromi started a new job with a growing consulting firm and was surprised to find that most employees had no job titles.A coworker explained that the founders wanted to create a level playing field, allowing motivated employees to seek leadership roles on a project-by-project basis.No job titles, here, is an example of
A)stabilizing structure.
B)measuring activities.
C)increasing accountability.
D)embedding culture.
E)reinforcing hierarchy.
Q3) Explain the four common elements of organizations proposed by Edgar Schein.
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Q1) Susan had been working as an executive assistant to the president for nearly 20 years, so when she retired no one had a good idea of all that her job entailed.Before she left, Ben sat with her for two weeks to observe her duties and ask her the details of all functions.Ben was performing a
A)behavioral-description interview.
B)performance appraisal.
C)informal appraisal.
D)job analysis.
E)job rotation.
Q2) The type of performance appraisal that judges specific, observable aspects of performance like being on time for work is a(n) ______ appraisal
A)results
B)objective
C)trait
D)behavioral
E)MBO
Q3) Give the advantages and disadvantages of internal and external recruiting.
Q4) Explain the four major areas of human resource law and give an example of legislation pertaining to each.
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Sample Questions
Q1) During Lewin's refreezing stage, managers should
A)make employees dissatisfied with the present way of doing things.
B)give employees the tools for change.
C)provide benchmarking results.
D)reduce the barriers to change.
E)reinforce the desired change in the employees.
Q2) At Hartford Toy Depot, employees know that during the month of December they are generally required to work different schedules, often with some overtime, to support the holiday shopping season.This is an example of a(n) ______ change.
A)adaptive
B)reactive
C)innovative
D)incremental
E)radically innovative
Q3) Describe what OD is and what it can be used for.
Q4) Even when it comes to technology-induced change, OD can be helped by opening communication and dealing with stress.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following is not a distortion in perception?
A)Cognitive dissonance
B)Stereotyping
C)Halo effect
D)The recency effect
E)Causal attribution
Q2) As employees' age increases, so does their job involvement and satisfaction.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following dimensions is an example of a secondary dimension on the diversity wheel?
A)Income
B)Race
C)Sexual orientation
D)Physical abilities
E)Age
Q4) The Americans with Disabilities Act requires organizations to make all requested accommodations for an individual's disabilities.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Herzberg, which of the following is an example of a motivating factor?
A)Pay
B)The work itself
C)Working conditions
D)Company policy
E)Supervisors
Q2) A manager should administer punishment in public because the embarrassment amplifies the punishment and therefore its effectiveness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Job enrichment consists of increasing the number of tasks in a job to increase variety and motivation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain expectancy theory, and discuss how managers can use this model to help motivate subordinates.
Q5) Define and explain the four types of reinforcement, including their effect on behavior.Give examples of each from your own experiences.
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Q1) The stage during which a group sets guidelines about issues like attendance and punctuality is the ______ stage.
A)norming
B)storming
C)forming
D)adjourning
E)performing
Q2) ________ conflict is defined as interpersonal opposition based on personal dislike, disagreement, or differing styles.
A)Personality
B)Competitive
C)Dysfunctional
D)Communication
E)Programmed
Q3) Which of the following is not a reason to enforce norms?
A)To clarify role expectations.
B)To create a written document of behavioral guidelines for new employees.
C)To help the group survive.
D)To emphasize the group's important values.
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E)To help individuals avoid embarrassing situations.
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Q1) Michael runs a research and development department.He gets a lot out of his employees by setting lofty goals and expressing his belief that each of them is capable of doing his or her part.He expects their best work.According to revised path-goal theory, Michael is using a(n) ______ leadership style.
A)representation and networking
B)interaction facilitation
C)supportive
D)achievement-oriented
E)work facilitation
Q2) Leaders benefit most from a relatively low degree of compliance among their followers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Manager's authority to punish their subordinates results in coercive power.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Managers' legitimate power allows them to hire, fire, reward, and punish.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is servant leadership? What are the characteristics of a servant leader?
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Q1) The main purpose of those with an evaluative listening style is to try to determine the speaker's main message and important points.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is appropriate for workplace e-mail?
A)Trimming the sender's e-mail when replying.
B)Complicated topics.
C)Jokes.
D)Informality and grammar errors.
E)Sensitive personal issues.
Q3) Jargon is an example of a physical barrier to communication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a norm of the Millennial generation?
A)Desire to accept facts and authority at face value.
B)Desire to experience new and different things.
C)Desire to have personalized products and choice.
D)Desire to keep things moving and interesting.
E)Desire to have instant feedback.
Q5) Describe the five steps of the top-down reading method.
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Q1) Recruiters for Littleton University were under extreme pressure to meet their objective of a 10% increase in the size of the freshman class.As a result, they admitted many students who were not qualified and who failed to perform in classes.This is an example of which problem associated with control systems?
A)Overemphasis on one instead of multiple approaches.
B)Overemphasis on paperwork.
C)Overemphasis on means instead of ends.
D)Too much control.
E)Too little participation.
Q2) Japanese-produced cars that were perceived as better built than American ones resulted from the Japanese use of controls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Reduced cycle time means a reduction in steps in a work process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The purpose of controlling is to make sure that performance meets objectives.
A)True
B)False

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