Fundamentals of Life Sciences
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Fundamentals of Life Sciences introduces students to the core principles and concepts underlying the study of living organisms. The course covers the chemical and molecular basis of life, cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, and the diversity of life forms. Emphasis is placed on understanding biological processes at both the microscopic and macroscopic levels, including metabolism, reproduction, heredity, and ecological relationships. Students gain foundational knowledge essential for advanced studies in biology, medicine, and related fields, and develop scientific inquiry and analytical skills through laboratory experiments, discussions, and critical analysis of biological research.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Biology for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Michele Shuster
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Chapter 1: The Process of Science Java Report
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Sample Questions
Q1) Observations used as scientific evidence should NOT include
A) peer-reviewed scientific literature.
B) previous data generated.
C) observations about past work.
D) anecdotal evidence.
E) other people's data.
Answer: D
Q2) What is the dependent variable in this study?
Answer: The dependent variable is attention span.
Q3) An idea that has been examined numerous times and has never been falsified may be called a
A) theory.
B) hypothesis.
C) conclusion.
D) conundrum.
E) ideology.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Chemistry and Molecules of Life Mission to Mars
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Protons, neutrons, and electrons are found inside the nucleus of an atom.
B) Protons and electrons are found in the nucleus and neutrons orbit around them.
C) Protons and neutrons are found in the nucleus and electrons orbit around them.
D) Electrons are relatively heavy compared to protons and neutrons.
E) Protons are positively charged while electrons are neutral.
Answer: C
Q2) If 1 liter of a solution with pH = 5 is added to 1 liter of a solution with pH = 9,what will the pH of the mixture be?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
E) 9
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cell Function and Structure Wonder Drug
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence in support of the endosymbiosis hypothesis includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) mitochondria and chloroplasts are the same size as bacteria.
B) mitochondria and chloroplasts have cell walls like bacteria.
C) mitochondria and chloroplasts divide in a manner similar to bacteria.
D) mitochondria and chloroplasts have circular DNA like bacteria.
E) mitochondria and chloroplasts have ribosomes that are similar to bacteria.
Answer: B
Q2) The hydrophilic head of a phospholipid is composed of
A) a cholesterol group, a phosphate group, and a glycerol molecule.
B) a choline group, a phosphate group, and a glycerol molecule.
C) a cholesterol group, a phosphate group, and a glycine molecule.
D) a choline group, a phosphorous atom, and a glycerol molecule.
E) a choline group, a phosphorous atom, and a glycine molecule.
Answer: B
Q3) The exterior surface of the bilayer in a cell membrane is hydro-_____.
Answer: philic
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Chapter 4: Nutrition,metabolism,enzymes the Peanut Butter Project
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Sample Questions
Q1) You have just been served a grilled piece of chicken with the skin intact.Which of the following macromolecules is NOT present in that chicken?
A) proteins
B) fats
C) DNA
D) glycogen
E) starch
Q2) What is the complex carbohydrate used for energy storage in animal cells?
A) fat
B) glucose
C) glycogen
D) starch
E) sucrose
Q3) The tissue-degenerating disease scurvy is caused by _______ in the human diet.
A) a lack of vitamin A
B) a phosphorus deficiency
C) a vitamin C deficiency
D) too much calcium
E) too much vitamin B12
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Q4) What is the difference between a catabolic reaction and an anabolic reaction?
Chapter 5: Energy Flow and Photosynthesis the Future of Fuel
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these products can be produced from algae grown in a bioreactor?
A) organic fertilizer from algal carcasses
B) oil for fuel
C) carbohydrates for ethanol production
D) proteins for animal feed
E) All of the above.
Q2) Autotrophs are useful because
A) they remove carbon dioxide from the air.
B) they add oxygen to the air.
C) they are a source of food for humans.
D) some are a potential source of fuel.
E) All of the above,
Q3) Which of the following equations describes photosynthesis?
A) sunlight + O<sub>2</sub> CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O + glucose
B) sunlight + glucose + CO<sub>2</sub> O<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O
C) sunlight + CO<sub>2</sub> O<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O + glucose
D) sunlight + H<sub>2</sub>O + CO<sub>2</sub> O<sub>2</sub> + glucose
E) sunlight + H<sub>2</sub>O + O<sub>2</sub> CO<sub>2</sub> + glucose
Q4) What is the difference between an autotroph and a heterotroph? Give an example of each.
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Chapter 6: Dietary Energy and Cellular Respiration
Supersize
Me
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycolysis occurs in the A) mitochondria.
B) chloroplasts.
C) vacuoles.
D) cytoplasm.
E) nucleus.
Q2) Where does the oxygen required for aerobic respiration enter the body?
A) from food we eat
B) through the lungs
C) through the skin
D) from water we drink
E) through symbiotic bacteria living in our lungs
Q3) The energy in ATP is stored between
A) the phosphate groups.
B) the carbon and hydrogen atoms.
C) ribose and the first phosphate group.
D) adenine and ribose.
E) adenine and the first phosphate group.
Q4) Compare and contrast aerobic respiration and fermentation with respect to efficiency at making ATP,types of organisms that use each,and waste products.
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Replication Biologically
Unique
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain base pairing in DNA.
Q2) You are running gel electrophoresis on several samples of DNA collected from a crime scene.When you look at the gel,you notice that suspect number 2 has three bands for one STR.Is this a problem? Why or why not?
Q3) How is DNA analyzed for the purposes of forensic evidence?
A) DNA is analyzed for the presence of nucleotide bases.
B) Fragments of DNA are run on a gel to separate them by size and form a pattern.
C) DNA is analyzed quickly, within a certain time frame, because it degrades over time.
D) A technique called STR is used to amplify small fragments of DNA.
E) Regions of DNA from the suspect are amplified and compared to crime scene DNA.
Q4) Which type of crime scene evidence is most reliable?
A) blood-spatter analysis
B) eyewitness accounts
C) STR analysis
D) dental-bite impressions
E) enzyme analysis
Q5) Explain which parent determines the gender of a child.
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Chapter 8: Genes to Proteins Medicine From Milk
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene is a section of a(n)__________ molecule.
A) DNA
B) protein
C) RNA
D) small
E) amino acid
Q2) What is a codon?
A) three mRNA nucleotides that encode a specific amino acid
B) three mRNA nucleotides that encode a particular protein
C) five mRNA nucleotides that encode a specific amino acid
D) five mRNA nucleotides that encode a particular protein
E) the entire mRNA sequence, which codes for a specific protein
Q3) Which of the following is an example of gene therapy?
A) An ear of corn contains genes that produce natural pesticides.
B) A human has one allele for a normal gene and one allele for a mutated gene.
C) A patient with hereditary anemia is given a normal version of the gene.
D) Protein from a healthy person is injected into someone who cannot make that protein.
E) A human protein is made in bacteria for future injection into someone who lacks it.
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Chapter 9: Cell Division and Mitosis Natures Pharmacy
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a cell is irreparably damaged,it undergoes programmed cell death,called A) apoptosis.
B) cell division.
C) metastasis.
D) cytokinesis.
E) mitosis.
Q2) Our skin is our outermost layer,and it is exposed to all the hazards of the external environment.Thus,our skin cells are damaged on a regular basis and die.How does our body handle this frequent cell death?
Q3) Sister chromatids are separated from each other during A) interphase.
B) mitosis.
C) S phase.
D) G1.
E) cytokinesis.
Q4) Put the stages of cell division in the correct order.
Q5) If the cell does not ____________ during mitosis,daughter cells may be missing some or have too many copies of certain genes.
Q6) Chemotherapy and radiation target both __________ and ___________ cells.
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Chapter 10: Mutations and Cancer Fighting Fate
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a mutation to become an allele it must occur in one of three possible locations.What are those three?
Q2) Skin cancer is the result of changes in DNA,but it is not usually passed on to the next generation.Explain why it is not passed on.
Q3) Which set of mutations in a cell would you expect to be LEAST tumorigenic?
A) BRCA1 and BRCA2
B) BRCA1
C) BRCA1, BRCA2, Her2, and p53 mutations
D) BRCA1, BRCA2, and p53 mutations
E) BRCA1, Her2, and p53 mutation
Q4) Explain the effect of environmental mutagens in determining whether a woman with a mutation in one of her BRCA genes will actually get cancer.
Q5) Which combination(s)of mutated genes would be most likely to make a cell cancerous?
A) one oncogene
B) one tumor suppressor gene
C) two oncogenes
D) two oncogenes and two tumor-suppressor genes
E) All of the above.
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Chapter 11: Single-Gene Inheritance and Meiosis Rock for a Cause
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Sample Questions
Q1) A phenotypically normal woman marries a man with CMT disease,an autosomal dominant disorder.They have a son who has CMT disease.How did the son get it?
A) The mother had at least one dominant allele, which she passed on to her son.
B) The father had at least one dominant allele, which he passed on to his son.
C) The mother had one recessive and one dominant allele, one of which she passed on to his son.
D) The father had two recessive alleles, one of which he passed on to his son.
E) None of the above.
Q2) Explain how a child inherits exactly half of his or her chromosomes from each parent.
Q3) Two normal individuals have a child who has cystic fibrosis,an autosomal recessive disease.What were the chances of this happening? (Draw a Punnett square to help you determine the answer.)
A) 1:4 chance
B) 2:4 chance
C) 3:4 chance
D) 4:4 chance
E) less than 1:4 chance
Q4) Define the term phenotype.
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Chapter 12: Complex Inheritance Qa: Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are TRUE of the Y chromosome,EXCEPT
A) it can be used to trace male lineage.
B) it undergoes recombination with the X chromosome.
C) it is tiny and carries only a few genes.
D) it contains genes that influence the development of male characteristics.
E) it is passed only from father to son.
Q2) The universal donor blood group MOST in demand during catastrophic times is
A) type A, Rh negative.
B) type O, Rh positive.
C) type AB blood, Rh negative.
D) type O, Rh negative.
E) type AB, Rh positive.
Q3) Explain why the incidence of aneuploidy increases as a woman's age increases.
Q4) Which of the following human chromosomes usually does NOT exchange DNA during meiosis?
A) X chromosome
B) Y chromosome
C) chromosome 1
D) chromosome 12
E) chromosome 17
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Stem Cells and Cell Differentiation Grow Your
Own
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Sample Questions
Q1) If cardiac tissue is injured,for example in the case of a heart attack,which cells could be used to heal the injury?
A) heart stem cells
B) differentiated cardiac cells
C) embryonic stem cells
D) All of the above.
E) A and C
Q2) Explain the difference between multipotent,pluripotent,and totipotent stem cells.Which one(s)is/are likely to be adult stem cells,and which one(s)is/are likely to be embryonic stem cells?
Q3) Put these terms in order from least complex to most complex: organ system,tissue,cell,organ.
Q4) Put the following types of stem cells in order from LEAST useful in regenerative medicine to MOST useful.
A) pluripotent multipotent totipotent adult
B) totipotent pluripotent multipotent adult
C) adult totipotent multipotent pluripotent
D) adult pluripotent multipotent totipotent
E) adult multipotent pluripotent totipotent
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Natural Selection and Adaptation Bugs That Resist Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial strain will most likely become antibiotic resistant when it is grown in A) high heat.
B) extreme cold.
C) the presence an acidic environment.
D) the presence of MRSA.
E) a laboratory that researches viruses.
Q2) Bacteria lack meiosis.Explain how they produce offspring without meiosis.
Q3) What is gene transfer?
Q4) Strains of pneumonia-causing ______ are becoming resistant to every available antibiotic.
A) Klebsiella
B) Staphylococcus
C) Pneumatococcus
D) Botulinum
E) Streptococcus
Q5) Natural selection is the process that leads to evolution.Natural selection responds to the environment and yields more fit creatures,yet it is said that evolution is NOT goal oriented.How can you reconcile this?
Q6) Explain how prescribing an antibiotic for a cold would be a bad thing.
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Chapter 15: A: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group of Trichechus manatus migrated from the Caribbean to Florida around 15,000 years ago,and is now genetically distinct from the Trichechus manatus still found in the Caribbean.This is an example of A) the founder effect.
B) artificial selection.
C) natural selection.
D) macroevolution.
E) the bottleneck effect.
Q2) Mating between closely related individuals is known as A) out crossing.
B) gene flow.
C) gene conservation.
D) inbreeding.
E) mate selectivity.
Q3) The ice age 10,000 years ago killed off most cheetahs.This is an example of A) the founder effect.
B) artificial selection.
C) natural selection.
D) macroevolution.
E) the bottleneck effect.
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Chapter 15: B: Nonadaptive Evolution and Speciation Urban
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mating rituals are an example of which type of reproductive isolation?
A) postzygotic isolation
B) gametic isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) temporal isolation
E) mechanical isolation
Q2) Mating between closely related individuals is known as
A) out crossing.
B) gene flow.
C) gene conservation.
D) inbreeding.
E) mate selectivity.
Q3) Gene flow can be described as changes in allele frequency due to A) populations mating with other populations.
B) mating within an isolated population.
C) populations undergoing natural selection.
D) nonrandom mating of the population.
E) mutation.
Q4) Would the bottleneck effect that removes 25% of individuals have a greater impact on a population of 25 birds or a population of 25,000 birds? Explain.
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Chapter 16: Evidence for Evolution a Fish With Fingers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scientists who study ancient life are known as
A) jurassicologists.
B) fossilologists.
C) paleontologists.
D) fossicologists.
E) Darwinologists.
Q2) What is mineralization?
Q3) The long bones of a bat wing are homologous to
A) the feathers of a bird.
B) the wings of an insect.
C) the humerus of a human.
D) the fingers of a frog.
E) ulnare of a wombat
Q4) Modern day horses have
A) five toes.
B) one toe.
C) four toes.
D) two toes.
E) three toes.
Q5) What circumstances would keep an animal from becoming a fossil?
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Chapter 17: Life on Earth Qa: Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Miller and Urey demonstrated the formation of organic molecules from simulating a primitive Earth atmosphere containing water vapor and the gases
A) carbon dioxide, hydrogen, methane, and ammonia.
B) carbon dioxide, methane, and ammonia.
C) hydrogen, methane, and ammonia.
D) oxygen, hydrogen, methane, and ammonia.
E) oxygen, methane, and ammonia.
Q2) What are the causes of mass extinction?
Q3) Which type of evolutionary tree is most useful to scientists,a tree based on similarity of appearance or phylogeny? Explain your answer and be sure to include the definition of phylogeny.
Q4) The half-life of carbon-14 is _____ years.
A) 12
B) 57,000
C) 5730
D) 1 billion
E) 4.5 billion
Q5) Why are there no polar bears in the Antarctic?
Q6) How likely would it be to find a rock with 90% lead-206? Explain.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Prokaryotic Diversity Lost City
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lost City is located
A) at a depth of 2,600 feet.
B) on the mid-Atlantic ridge.
C) 2,300 miles east of Florida.
D) on top of a submerged mountain.
E) All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the three domains of life is TRUE?
A) Archaea is most closely related to Bacteria.
B) Archaea is most closely related to Eukarya.
C) Bacteria is most closely related to Eukarya.
D) Bacteria and Archaea are equally related to the Eukarya.
E) Bacteria and Archaea have no evolutionary relationship to Eukarya.
Q3) Where would a scientist most likely find an archaean when sampling carbonate hydrothermal vents?
A) at the outside base of a chimney
B) mid-way up the outside of a chimney
C) at the outside top of a chimney
D) inside the chimney beside the warm vent flow
E) inside the chimney far away from the warm vent flow
Q4) What is the advantage of keeping food refrigerated? Please be very specific.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: A: Eukaryotic Diversity Rain Forest Riches
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,most protists are susceptible to
A) drying out, or dessication
B) temperature
C) pH
D) decomposition
E) All of the above.
Q2) You are walking through a park,spending the morning in a rainforest environment,and by the afternoon you have entered a drier forest.Which of the following describes the changes in species composition you would expect?
A) You see more snails in the dry forest than you see in the rainforest.
B) You see more amphibians in the dry forest than you see in the rainforest.
C) You see ferns in the dry forest but not in the rainforest.
D) You see bryophytes in the rainforest but don't find them in the dry forest.
E) You see more reptiles in the rainforest than you see in the dry forest.
Q3) The diversity of living organisms in Olympic National Park is largely due to
A) the Pacific Ocean.
B) the Olympic mountains.
C) the many habitats contained within the park.
D) freshwater lakes.
E) Mount Olympus.
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Chapter 19: B: Eukaryotic Diversity Rain Forest Riches
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of algae,EXCEPT
A) they are plants.
B) some are single celled.
C) some are multicelled.
D) they are autotrophs.
E) they lack adaptations for living on land.
Q2) Fungi evolved approximately
A) 200,000 years ago from a single-celled ancestor.
B) 4 billion years ago from a protist.
C) 1 million years ago from a single-celled ancestor.
D) 1 billion years ago from a protist.
E) 1 million years ago from a protist.
Q3) A protist is the common ancestor of A) plants.
B) animals.
C) fungi.
D) slime molds.
E) All of the above.
Q4) List at least three ways that humans are reducing global biodiversity.
Q5) List three of the four kingdoms belonging to domain Eukarya.
Page 23
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Chapter 20: Human Evolution Skin Deep
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Q1) The most recent common ancestor of modern day humans is the A) orangutan.
B) monkey.
C) gorilla.
D) great ape.
E) chimpanzee.
Q2) Variations in skin tone correlate with a balance between these two vitamins.
A) B2 and B6
B) B12 and B6
C) D and B9
D) D and B6
E) Folic acid and B9
Q3) Scientists use genetics to trace the evolution and migration of humans.How do scientists know which populations are older than others?
A) Members of older populations have identical mitochondrial genomes.
B) Members of older populations have more genes in their mitochondrial genomes.
C) Members of older populations have more genetic variability.
D) Members of older populations have fewer nuclear genes.
E) Members of older populations have more nuclear genes.
Q4) Why is mitochondrial DNA inherited only from the mother?
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Chapter 21: A: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Questions
Q1) Explain how density-independent and density-dependent factors might influence a population at different stages during its logistic growth curve.
Q2) How does a low predator population affect the population of a prey species?
Q3) What is the difference between exponential growth and logistic growth? Which type do most populations exhibit?
Q4) An increase in the predator population that consumes herbivorous animals will cause
A) a decrease in food plant populations.
B) some food plant populations to explode out of control.
C) a general increase in food plant populations.
D) a loss of species diversity.
E) an increase in species diversity.
Q5) A population's growth rate depends on A) birth rate.
B) death rate.
C) immigration.
D) emigration.
E) All of the above.
Q6) Describe the method used to assess moose population size on Isle Royale.
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Chapter 21: B: Population Ecology on the Tracks of Wolves and Moose
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Q1) It appears that all of the wolves on Isle Royale are the descendants of a single pair of wolves that made it to the island from the Canada.How would you compare the gene pool of the island's wolves to the wolves of the mainland?
Q2) A few years after a predator species population decreases,the ____.
A) predator population will increase
B) prey population must decrease
C) predator population will decrease
D) predator population will exceed carrying capacity
E) prey population will increase
Q3) You are discussing population growth with a friend who says that once you know how many deer can live in 100 square miles in your state,then you know that is the same number of deer that can live in 100 square miles anywhere in the country.Do you agree or disagree? Explain your answer.
Q4) Wolves have a significant impact on the population levels of moose on Isle Royale,but they also may have a significant impact on smaller animal populations.Explain why the presence of wolves on Isle Royale might affect the population level of squirrels feeding on the same trees as moose.
Q5) What can an examination of moose scat tell you about that moose?
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Chapter 22: A: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Q1) Competition for resources by two species occupying the same or similar niches is usually alleviated by
A) mutualism.
B) commensalism.
C) extinction of one species.
D) resource partitioning.
E) symbiosis.
Q2) Mice eat fruits,nuts,and insects,while foxes eat fruits,nuts,and insects as well as mice.Speculate on what would happen to the abundance of mice,fruits,nuts,and insects if foxes are removed from the community.
Q3) Which is NOT necessarily true of a keystone species?
A) Its loss would decrease the population of other species.
B) Its removal negatively impacts the community.
C) Its loss would harm the ecosystem.
D) It is the most abundant species in the community.
E) Its biomass may not be great in the community.
Q4) If only 10% of the energy available in a plant is turned into body tissue of a cow,what happens to the other 90%?
Q5) Name at least three factors implicated in causing colony collapse disorder.
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Chapter 22: B: Community Ecology Whats Happening to Honey Bees
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which plant grouping relies heavily on bee or insect pollination?
A) ferns
B) gymnosperms
C) bryophytes
D) angiosperms
E) mosses
Q2) A niche describes
A) the habitat occupied by a species.
B) the space, environment, and resources necessary for a species fitness.
C) the community's place in a ecosystem.
D) the environment that an organism lives in.
E) the place where a population lives.
Q3) What is a detailed and complex analysis of the feeding relationships in a community?
A) trophic levels
B) symbiosis
C) food chain
D) food web
E) keystone analysis
Q4) What is a keystone species and why are they so important?
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Chapter 23: A: Ecosystem Ecology the Heat Is
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Q1) Explain how the change in distribution pattern of an insect-eating bird can lead to an increase in the number of forest fires.
Q2) List three sources of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Q3) Which group of plants shows a correlation between global temperature increase earlier flowerings?
A) winter-reseeding plants
B) summer-blooming plants
C) fall-flowering plants
D) spring-blooming plants
E) annuals
Q4) Explain how the greenhouse effect warms Earth and list two greenhouse gases.
Q5) In the next 100 years,Arctic temperatures are predicted to rise by an additional
A) 1° - 2°C.
B) 2° - 4°C.
C) 4° - 7°C.
D) 7° - 9°C.
E) 10° - 12°C.
Q6) Explain how planting forests can help reduce global warming.
Q7) Explain how carbon cycles between inorganic and organic forms.
Q8) Describe the effect of global warming on flowering trees.
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Chapter
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Q1) To what extent has the Arctic ice cap changed in the last 30 years or so years?
A) It has decreased by 5%.
B) It has increased by 10%.
C) It has decreased by 20%.
D) It has decreased by 10%.
E) It has not decreased.
Q2) Methane is 30 times more powerful than carbon dioxide at absorbing heat.Livestock such as cattle account for 28% of global methane emissions.With this in mind,speculate on the effect of the American diet on global warming.
Q3) The Vostok Ice Core provides data from approximately
A) 50,000 years ago.
B) 100,000 years ago.
C) 200,000 years ago.
D) 200,000 years ago
E) 400,000 years ago.
Q4) Explain how planting forests can help reduce global warming.
Q5) List three sources of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Q6) Explain how the change in distribution pattern of an insect-eating bird can lead to an increase in the number of forest fires.
Page 30
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Chapter 24: A: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Q1) The water footprint,or the amount of water,both direct and indirect,required to produce 1 liter of cow's milk is estimated by the Water Footprint Network to be
A) 10,000 liters.
B) 1,000 liters.
C) 100 liters.
D) 10 liters.
E) 1 liter.
Q2) Which renewable energy resource could potentially supply half the projected energy demands of our planet?
A) hydroelectric power
B) solar power
C) wind power
D) biofuels
E) nuclear power
Q3) List at least three drawbacks of using coal as an energy source.
Q4) What factors can make one region of the world more water-stressed than another?
Q5) What is an ecological footprint?
Q6) What is the single biggest change people can make to begin living at or below Earth's biocapacity?
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Chapter 24: B: Sustainability the Makings of a Green City
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Q1) An ecological footprint
A) measures the amount of land required by a population to live.
B) measures the amount of water required by a population to live.
C) measures the amount of air required by a population to live.
D) measures the amount of land and water required by a population to live.
E) measures the amount of land and water required by a population to live and the amount of land and water required to absorb that population's waste.
Q2) Which population has not decreased in the last 35 years?
A) marine population
B) terrestrial population
C) humans
D) freshwater organisms
E) All of the above.
Q3) List at least three drawbacks of using solar and wind power as sources of energy.
Q4) Explain the role of women in limiting population growth.
Q5) Explain how a vegetarian diet can reduce water use.
Q6) List two pros and two cons associated with using oil as an energy source.
Q7) What factors can make one region of the world more water-stressed than another?
Q8) Describe how water cycles on Earth.
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Chapter 25: A: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Q1) The organ system you can easily see is the _______ system.
A) lymphatic
B) skeletal
C) respiratory
D) integumentary
E) nervous
Q2) If the concentration of solvents in the blood is too high,
A) the hypothalamus will release antidiuretic hormone.
B) you need to add water to your blood.
C) your sense of thirst will increase.
D) the kidneys will excrete less water.
E) All of the above.
Q3) All of the following are involved in thermoregulation,EXCEPT
A) brown fat.
B) the pancreas.
C) the hypothalamus.
D) thermoreceptors.
E) blubber.
Q4) Shivering generates _______.
Q5) Define vasoconstriction.
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Chapter 25: B: Overview of Physiology Man Versus Mountain
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Q1) Define vasodilation.
Q2) In general,the human body responds to cold by
A)generating additional heat.
B)wearing specialized clothing.
C)conserving whatever heat is being generated.
D)sleeping.
E)A and C.
Q3) Comparing temperature regulation between giraffes and humans is an example of ______; comparing the parts of an octopus's eye to a human eye would be an example of ______.
A) anatomy; physiology
B) physiology; anatomy
C) thermoregulation; homeostasis
D) homeostasis; physiology
E) physiology; homeostasis
Q4) List four tightly regulated body functions whose regulation is part of maintaining the body's homeostasis.
Q5) Shivering is involuntary contraction and expansion of skeletal muscle.Can you simulate this voluntarily? Explain.
Page 34
Q6) Shivering generates _______.
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Chapter 26: Digestive System Drastic Measures
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Q1) Both gastric bypass and gastric banding surgery lead to weight loss by reducing the number of calories a person absorbs from his food.Gastric bypass surgery accomplishes this by __________.
A) reducing the volume of food the stomach can hold
B) reducing the amount of nutrients absorbed by the small intestine
C) bypassing the small intestine completely
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q2) Gastric banding is _________ than gastric bypass surgery.
A) much more effective but less easily reversible
B) somewhat less effective but more easily reversible
C) much more effective and more easily reversible
D) somewhat less effective but less easily reversible
E) as effective but somewhat less reversible
Q3) If you were morbidly obese,would you try gastric bypass,gastric banding,or diet modification without surgery? Explain your answer.
Q4) What is peristalsis?
Q5) The enzyme ______ breaks down fats.
Q6) What is bariatric surgery?
Q7) The role of teeth is ______ digestion.
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Chapter 27: A: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ is an organ that requires oxygenated blood in order to pressurize oxygenated blood to the rest of the body.
A) spleen
B) lung
C) liver
D) intestines
E) heart
Q2) What did researchers discover about the correlation between risk factors and fatty streaks in the aorta and coronary arteries?
A) The more fatty streaks found correlate with the severity of a single risk factor.
B) Only two risk factors correlate with more fatty streaks.
C) Less than four risk factors do not correlate with more fatty streaks.
D) Fatty streaks increase with an increasing number of risk factors for an individual.
E) No studies are available observing the number of fatty streaks correlated with risk factors.
Q3) Describe how the shape of erythrocytes provides an ideal form for their function?
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Chapter 27: B: Cardiovascular System Death in Bogalusa
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heart disease claims so many lives because it is considered a silent killer.To what does "silent" refer,and what is the primary affected system in our body?
Q2) Cholesterol in the blood must be carried by LDL or HDL because of what property?
A) It is hydrophilic lipid.
B) It is a hydrophobic lipid.
C) It is a hydrophilic specialized protein.
D) It is a hydrophobic specialized protein.
E) Cholesterol is a lipid-protein complex that must bind LDL or HDL to be able to reside in blood.
Q3) What are considered normal blood pressure measurements and how are they expressed?
Q4) Describe the location of each heart chamber and the basic functions associated with each.
Q5) Which of the following is the largest artery in the human body?
A) a coronary artery
B) a pulmonary vein
C) a pulmonary artery
D) an aorta
E) an atrium
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Chapter 28: Respiratory System Peak Performance
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Q1) What is the primary function of the combined respiratory system structures?
Q2) A(n)___________ motion of the diaphragm creates a decreasing pressure that results in __________.
A)downward; inhalation
B)upward; exhalation
C)downward; exhalation
D)undulating; inhalation
E)undulating; exhalation
Q3) What sickness can develop when the oxygen-carrying homeostasis is abruptly altered due to a quick change in the partial pressure of oxygen?
A) altitude sickness
B) recovery training
C) asthma
D) anemia
E) barometric sickness
Q4) What physiological changes take place that make it better for athletes to live at high altitudes,and why is it better for them to train at sea level?
Q5) The cardiovascular system carries oxygen and carbon dioxide using which blood components?
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Chapter 29: A: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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Q1) In the propagation of an action potential,the entering of ________ into the neuron stimulates _________.
A)sodium ions; entering of more sodium ions
B)potassium ions; entering of sodium ions
C)sodium ions; entering of potassium ions
D)A and C.
E)None of the above.
Q2) Muscle cells that respond to signals from the central nervous system are examples of _______.
A) sensory receptors
B) peripheral nervous system
C) central nervous system
D) effector cells
E) None of the above.
Q3) When smoking,nicotine passes from the lungs to the _______.
A) heart
B) bloodstream
C) white blood cells
D) blastocysts
E) stomach
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Chapter 29: B: Central Nervous System Smoke on the Brain
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Q1) Sensory neurons _______.
A) convey information to the central nervous system
B) are part of the peripheral nervous system
C) are part of the central nervous system
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q2) What are the parts of the limbic system?
Q3) Explain why many addictive drugs require larger and larger doses with habitual use.
Q4) An axon is to a telephone line as myelin is to _______.
A) a telephone
B) a telephone switchboard
C) rubber wire insulation
D) telephone poles
E) a telephone jack
Q5) What is the role of the myelin sheath in a neuron?
Q6) Suppose you are walking on the beach and step on a piece of broken glass.Describe the path that nervous impulses would take in causing you to jerk your foot up.Make sure to describe the kinds of cells involved.
Q7) What effect does methamphetamine have on memory and motor skills? Explain.
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Chapter 30: Reproductive System Too Many Multiples
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sperm leave the body through this tube.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Q2) This is the epididymis.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Q3) Sperm are produced by the structures inside the testes called the ________.
Q4) Testes are located in a sac called the ________.
Q5) The _______ becomes the corpus luteum.
A) follicle
B) ovule
C) egg
D) ovary
E) zygote
Page 42
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Chapter 31: Immune System Viral Mysteries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Between points 3 and 4 in the diagram,_________.
A) the antibody response to pathogen A is much stronger than it is to pathogen B
B) the antibody response to pathogen B is much stronger than it is to pathogen A
C) antibody concentrations to pathogens A and B increase at the same rate, but the final concentration of antibodies to pathogen A is much higher than the final concentration of antibodies to pathogen B
D) the concentration of antibodies to pathogen A rises much faster than the concentration of antibodies to pathogen B, but the final concentration of both is the same
E) the antibody responses to pathogens A and B are identical
Q2) The severity of any viral infection is often dictated by which of the following?
A) the number of viral particles which infect the body
B) the number of cells killed during viral replication and release
C) the immune response to the infection
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q3) A primed immune system from a vaccine confers immunity to a particular pathogen.However,this does not mean that the pathogen cannot still bypass innate immunity.Why then is a vaccine still effective?
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Chapter 32: A: Plant Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Flowering plants' sperm are produced inside _______.
A) pollen
B) receptacles
C) petaloids
D) sepals
E) ovules
Q2) Which of the following promotes fruit ripening?
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) ethylene
D) cytokinins
E) brassinosteroids
Q3) In most plants,photosynthesis takes place _______.
A) in the leaves
B) in the stems
C) in the roots
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
Q4) Can plants recruit assistance against herbivores from other animals? From other plants? Explain.
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Chapter 32: B: Plant Physiology
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Q1) In most plants,water and minerals are absorbed by _______.
A) the leaves
B) the stems
C) the roots
D) B and C
E) A, B, and C
Q2) The organelle responsible for photosynthesis is the _______.
A) nucleus
B) chloroplast
C) central vacuole
D) cell wall
E) turgor pressure
Q3) The pistil consists of the _______,_______,and _______.
Q4) Sugars are transported by the _______.
Q5) Low levels of _______ promote germination.
A) auxin
B) gibberellin
C) ethylene
D) cytokinins
E) abscisic acid
45
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