Foundations of Psychopathology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Psychopathology provides an in-depth exploration of the origins, development, and classification of psychological disorders. The course examines key theoretical frameworks, including biomedical, psychological, and sociocultural perspectives, to understand the nature of mental illness. Students will analyze major diagnostic categories, such as mood, anxiety, psychotic, and personality disorders, while considering their etiology, symptomatology, and treatment options. Emphasis is placed on current research, diagnostic tools like the DSM, and the impact of stigma and cultural factors on mental health. This foundational knowledge prepares students for advanced study and clinical applications in the field of psychology and mental health.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach 5th Edition by David H. Barlow
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Chapter 1: Abnormal Behaviour in Historical Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anton Mesmer,an early 18th-century physician,purported to cure patients by unblocking the flow of a bodily fluid he called "animal magnetism." Benjamin Franklin's double-blind experiment indicated that any effectiveness of Mesmer's methods was actually due to which of the following?
A) undetectable magnetic fields
B) chemically induced humoral balance
C) the power of suggestion
D) mental telepathy
Answer: C
Q2) In which defence mechanism does an individual substitute behaviour,thoughts,or feelings that are the direct opposite of unacceptable ones?
A) displacement
B) repression
C) rationalization
D) reaction formation
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: An Integrative Approach to Psychopathology
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Q1) John has inherited a personality trait that makes him more likely to keep to himself than to socialize.As a result,he does not have many friends and spends a lot of time alone.If John were to develop depression,which model would best explain this situation and the cause of his depression?
A) the interpersonal model
B) the reciprocal gene-environment model
C) the biological model
D) the diathesis-stress model
Answer: B
Q2) What is the average duration of interpersonal psychotherapy?
A) 5-10 sessions
B) 10-15 sessions
C) 15-20 sessions
D) 20-25 sessions
Answer: B
Q3) Name three important neurotransmitters and describe what impact each one is thought to have on human experience.
Answer: Student responses will vary.
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4
Chapter 3: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.DuPont is researching an assessment instrument.Which of the following is she most likely conducting research on?
A) the MMPI
B) the TAT
C) the Rorschach inkblot test
D) the PCL-R
Answer: A
Q2) What have recent research studies used PET scans for?
A) to look at varying patterns of brain metabolism that might be associated with different disorders
B) to locate brain tumours and injuries
C) to detect tissue variations associated with different disorders
D) to locate abnormalities in the structure or shape of the brain
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a category covered in a mental status exam?
A) physical symptoms
B) behaviour
C) appearance
D) intellectual functioning
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Research Methods
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Q1) Professor Black is asked by one of his students to describe the meaning of a hypothesis.What should Professor Black say?
A) A hypothesis is a question.
B) A hypothesis is a statement of fact
C) A hypothesis is a prediction about behaviour.
D) A hypothesis is an established theory.
Q2) Your friend was the recipient of a nine-month research grant.Based on her interests,she can choose one of the four areas of concentration.She has always wanted to work with street youth.Based on this fact,what prevention strategy will she most likely choose?
A) a selective prevention strategy
B) a universal prevention strategy
C) a positive development strategy
D) an indicated prevention strategy
Q3) What is the term for the study of treatment interventions that may help avert later problems?
A) preintervention research
B) process-focused research
C) outcome-focused research
D) selective-prevention research
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Chapter 5: Anxiety,Trauma-Related,and
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders
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Q1) At what age does social phobia usually begin,and when does it end?
A) It usually begins in young adulthood and ends in middle age.
B) It usually begins in childhood and ends in middle age.
C) It usually begins in middle age and ends in old age.
D) It usually begins in adolescence and ends in old age.
Q2) Mr.Jones suffers from a severe case of obsessive-compulsive disorder.His symptoms have not responded to either medication or psychological therapies.As a last resort,his therapist suggests the possibility of a psychosurgical procedure.What is this procedure called?
A) cingulotomy
B) lobotomy
C) limbicotomy
D) temporal lesioning
Q3) The term "agoraphobia" is derived from the Greek word agora.What does agora mean?
A) home
B) workplace
C) people
D) marketplace
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Somatization disorder and antisocial personality disorder are often associated with gender.Which of the following best describes this relationship?
A) Somatization disorder is more common among males, and it reflects high dependency.
B) Somatization disorder is more common among females, and it reflects high dependency.
C) Somatization disorder is more common among males, and it reflects high aggression.
D) Somatization disorder is more common among females, and it reflects high aggression.
Q2) In the "Hillside Strangler" case,what did Kenneth Bianchi claim to be suffering from?
A) dissociative identity disorder
B) dissociative trance disorder
C) dissociative fugue
D) dissociative derealization
Q3) Describe the treatment that is generally used to treat patients with dissociative identity disorder.What is the rationale for each part of the treatment?
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8
Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four people have just experienced the death of a spouse.Which of them is most likely to have a pathological grief reaction?
A) Alice, whose husband committed suicide
B) Beth, who was highly dependent on her late husband
C) Claire, who has no family support
D) Diane, who had a highly conflicted relationship with her late husband
Q2) Which of the following behaviours is NOT likely to lead to hospitalization for mania?
A) recurrent thoughts of suicide
B) self-destructive buying sprees
C) taking extreme physical risks
D) violent behaviour
Q3) Which of the following is a side effect of tricyclic antidepressants?
A) sexual dysfunction
B) insomnia
C) excessive urination
D) weight loss
Q4) Explain how a grief reaction can become a pathological disorder.Describe the psychological and social factors that predict who will develop a pathological grief reaction.
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Chapter 8: Eating and Sleep-Wake Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT something people with narcolepsy commonly experience?
A) cataplexy
B) hypnagogic hallucinations
C) hypnapompic hallucinations
D) sleep paralysis
Q2) Which type of treatment has the best long-term success for treating sleep disorders in older adults?
A) drug therapy
B) drug therapy combined with psychological treatments
C) psychological treatments
D) self-help treatments
Q3) Describe the typical treatment goals and treatment methods implemented for bulimia nervosa.
Q4) What is the most significant feature of bulimia?
A) purging
B) overeating
C) overeating followed by an urge to vomit
D) binge eating followed by compensatory behaviour
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Chapter 9: Physical Disorders and Health Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychologist Kim Lavoie and her colleagues (2004)noted that coronary heart disease (CHD)and another disorder often co-occur,and CHD patients with this additional disorder suffer greater morbidity and mortality rates than do CHD patients without it.What is the other disorder?
A) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
B) generalized anxiety disorder
C) paranoid delusional disorder
D) panic disorder
Q2) How many causes of death in children in Canada are more common than injuries?
A) none
B) one
C) three
D) five
Q3) According to Spielberger and Frank (1992),what is crucial criterion in mediating virtually all factors that lead to injury?
A) making the home environment safer
B) making the workplace safer
C) acknowledging and limiting risky activities
D) addressing psychological variables
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Chapter 10: Sexual Dysfunctions,Paraphilic Disorders,and Gender Dysphoria
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Questions
Q1) Nina from Sweden and Cathy from Canada just had sexual intercourse for the first time.Based on what is typical in each of their native countries,what can you predict about the probability of these women using contraception?
A) Nina is slightly more likely to have used contraception.
B) Nina is significantly less likely to have used contraception.
C) Nina is significantly more likely to have used contraception.
D) Nina and Cathy are equally like to have used contraception.
Q2) Masters and Johnson (1970)used sensate focus therapy for the treatment of premature ejaculation.In what percentage of cases did Masters and Johnson claim this therapy was effective?
A) 50 percent
B) 65 percent
C) 75 percent
D) almost 100 percent
Q3) What is the most common of all the male sexual dysfunctions?
A) inhibited orgasm
B) erectile dysfunction
C) premature (early) ejaculation
D) sexual aversion
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related,Addictive,and
Impulse-Control Disorders
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Q1) Dr.Reid is studying the efficacy of Gamblers Anonymous.What has she found to be necessary in order for the program to work?
A) The group leader must be a former gambler.
B) The gambler must have a desire to quit gambling before they start treatment.
C) The gambler must be financially stable
D) The treatment must occur in an psychiatric facility.
Q2) Which of the following describes the risks associated with opioid withdrawal?
A) No one should stop taking any opioid 'cold turkey'.
B) Opioid withdrawal is only dangerous if a person has been taking the substance for more than six months.
C) Opioid withdrawal is uncomfortable but not dangerous when the opioid is not in its pure form.
D) Opioid withdrawal is more dangerous than alcohol withdrawal.
Q3) What are alcohol and the drugs Seconal,Halcion,and Valium classified as?
A) intoxicants
B) stimulants
C) depressants
D) narcotics
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Chapter 12: Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) One unusual finding discussed in your textbook is that a personality disorder may have played a role in the behaviour of several serial killers.Which personality disorder is it?
A) histrionic personality disorder
B) narcissistic personality disorder
C) schizotypal personality disorder
D) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Q2) One of the contributing factors in the developmental history of individuals with antisocial personality disorder or psychopathy appears to involve parenting.Which of the following behaviours were their parents more likely than average parents to have utilized?
A) an overly permissive parenting style
B) overly firm discipline
C) physical discipline
D) inconsistent discipline
Q3) One might say that the thoughts of those with avoidant and dependent personality disorders are similar but the behaviours are not.We could further note that the behaviours of those with avoidant and schizoid personality disorders are similar but the thoughts are not.Explain these two statements.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders
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Q1) What is the negative symptom of schizophrenia known as "avolition"?
A) an inability to initiate and persist in activities
B) a lack of speech content and/or slowed speech response
C) a lack of emotional response and a blank facial expression
D) an inability to experience pleasure
Q2) When drugs are administered to patients with schizophrenia,what effect do they have?
A) Drugs that destroy dopamine cause an increase in schizophrenic behaviour.
B) Drugs that increase dopamine cause an increase in schizophrenic behaviour.
C) Drugs that decrease dopamine cause an increase in schizophrenic behaviour.
D) Drugs that increase dopamine decrease schizophrenic behaviour.
Q3) Veronica is hospitalized after a suicide attempt.In the hospital,she spends all of her time drawing sketches of monsters that she calls "hell's keepers." She claims that these "hell's keepers" talk to her and ordered her to plan her suicide.She talks to invisible people in her room.What is Veronica most likely suffering from?
A) dissociative identity disorder
B) paranoid personality disorder
C) schizophrenia
D) schizoid personality disorder
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Chapter 14: Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four-year-old Ava has just been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder.Her parents ask a specialist how likely it is that Ava will develop speech.What does the specialist tell them?
A) Approximately one out of every ten children with ASD develops speech.
B) Approximately one out of every four children with ASD develops speech.
C) Approximately one out of every two children with ASD develops speech.
D) Approximately three out of every four children with ASD develop speech.
Q2) Research by Lovaas (1987)suggests that an important element of intervention efforts with children with autism spectrum disorder is inclusion,such as helping children fully participate in the social and academic life of their peers.What does your textbook also note about inclusion?
A) It is especially important during adolescence.
B) It is not part of most models of early intervention.
C) It is helpful primarily for those with less severe forms of the disorder.
D) It applies not only to school but also to all aspects of life.
Q3) Describe the impairments in social interaction,communication,and activities typically experienced by individuals with autism spectrum disorder.
Q4) Describe the diagnostic criteria,clinical description,and prevalence of autism spectrum disorder.
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Chapter 15: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes the differing patterns of impairment associated with neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease and HIV-caused neurocognitive disorder?
A) the viral origins of HIV
B) unexplained causes
C) the different areas of the brain affected
D) the immune response to the virus in HIV patients
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a psychological or social factor influencing the risk for developing neurocognitive disorder?
A) level of formal education
B) diet
C) personality traits, such as hostility
D) participation in sports such as boxing
Q3) When do most instances of delirium,neurocognitive disorder,and amnestic disorders develop?
A) following brainstem injuries that occur with equal frequency at all ages
B) in late adulthood when cognition is not functioning normally
C) in late adulthood as part of the normal aging process
D) following complications at birth
Q4) Describe the typical causes of delirium and how it is treated.
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Chapter 16: Mental Health Services: Legal and Ethical Issues
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Q1) What question was the clinical efficacy axis of the APA clinical practice guidelines designed to answer?
A) What is the most efficient way of admitting patients to clinics or hospitals?
B) Is the treatment effective compared to an alternative treatment or to no treatment in a controlled clinical research setting?
C) What kind of research should be done to determine the type of clinician best suited for particular patients in terms of their diagnosis and chronicity?
D) How long should the treatment be continued if there is no improvement in the patient's condition or if the patient has serious side effects?
Q2) Professor Dietrich is giving a lecture about stigmas concerning people who have a mental illness.What will Professor Dietrich MOST likely claim is the reason for the popular opinion that people who have a mental illness are more dangerous than those who do not?
A) public knowledge of DSM-5 diagnostic criteria
B) data from medical records
C) media reports
D) statistics on homicide and other violent crimes
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