Foundations of Biology Midterm
Exam
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology provides a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, including the structure and function of cells, genetic inheritance, evolution, biodiversity, and the flow of energy through living systems. Students will explore the molecular and cellular basis of life, understand key processes such as metabolism and reproduction, and analyze the relationships among organisms and their environments. The course emphasizes scientific inquiry and critical thinking, utilizing laboratory experiences and real-world examples to build a solid foundation for advanced study in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 11th Edition by Sylvia Mader
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A View of Life
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Q1) Living things show biological organization and other common characteristics of life
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Both living and nonliving entities adapt to the environment
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Unicellular prokaryotes
A)lack a membrane bounded nucleus
B)are classified in the domains Bacteria and Archaea
C)are found in almost all habitats
D)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q4) The classification system most commonly used by biologists today contains five domains.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Q1) As a solid,water floats.This means that
A)solid water is less dense than liquid water.
B)organisms in ponds,lakes,and reservoirs can survive under the ice cover.
C)this is due to hydrogen bonding changes.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) If an element contains 8 electrons how many electrons will be placed in the 2nd valence shell?
A)6
B)2
C)8
D)5
E)11
Answer: A
Q3) Human blood has a pH of about 7.4.This is A)neutral.
B)very acidic.
C)slightly acidic.
D)slightly basic.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Chemistry of Organic Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Below freezing and above boiling,cells are unable to function as "liquid machinery." However,most organisms' cells are still limited from functioning throughout this full range of liquid temperatures.At the molecular level in different organisms,cells' ability to vary in their tolerance to temperature,etc.,is most closely related to variation in A)enzyme activity and protein denaturation.
B)ATP efficiency.
C)ability to form glucose polymers.
D)replication of nucleic acids.
E)extent of saturation of fatty acids.
Answer: A
Q2) If a segment of DNA has 20% adenine in its base composition,what percent thymine is there?
A)20%
B)80%
C)60%
D)30%
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What figure has the greatest surface area : volume ratio?
A)Figure A
B)Figure B
C)Figure C
D)All of these are the same.
Q2) Which of the following organelles is found within an autotrophic,eukaryotic cell?
A)lysosomes
B)ribosomes
C)rough endoplasmic reticulum
D)chloroplast
Q3) Which of the following features is unique to bacterial cells?
A)nucleoid region
B)nucleus
C)cell membrane
D)cell wall
E)ribosome
Q4) Mitochondria have an inner membrane system called thylakoid membranes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) Eukaryotic cells are substantially larger than bacterial cells and average over 20 times more volume-per-surface-area than bacterial cells.How can the eukaryotic cell membrane provide this higher rate of exchange of materials?
A)Plasma membrane folds increase the surface area.
B)Carrier proteins speed the rate at which a solute crosses the plasma membrane in the direction of decreasing concentration.
C)Mitochondria are concentrated near membranes to provide energy for active transport of molecules or ions.
D)Large molecules are engulfed by vesicle formation.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) In a phospholipid bilayer,the
A)phosphate groups are hydrophobic.
B)fatty acid tails are ionized.
C)fatty acid tails are hydrophilic.
D)proteins are located only between the two layers.
E)phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward the cytoplasm.
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Chapter 6: Metabolism: Energy and Enzymes
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Q1) During the conversion of glucose into a free form of energy only a small percentage is converted into useable ATP.What is the rest of the energy converted into?
A)heat
B)CO<sub>2</sub>
C)H<sub>2</sub>O
D)CO<sup>-</sup>
Q2) A coenzyme is
A)an ionic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.
B)a protein cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.
C)a nonprotein organic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work.
D)an ionic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.
E)a protein cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of potential energy?
A)a snickers bar
B)an apple growing on a tree
C)a glass of milk
D)all are examples of potential energy
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8
Chapter 7: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What structure is required for an organism to be classified as an autotroph?
A)chloroplast
B)mitochondria
C)nucleus
D)Golgi Body
Q2) What is the ultimate destination for the energized electrons during the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A)they are taken up by NADP<sup>+</sup> to produce NADPH
B)they are taken up by NADPH to produce NADP<sup>+</sup>
C)they are taken up by NADH to produce NAD<sup>+</sup>
D)they are taken up by NAD<sup>+</sup> to produce NADH
Q3) Photorespiration is the process by which light is used to release the stored energy in carbohydrate molecules to perform all work in plant cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) forms a six-carbon molecule that immediately breaks down into two three-carbon PGA molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Cellular Respiration
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Q1) The most important contribution of the citric acid cycle to cellular respiration is:
A)production of large quantities of ATP
B)creation of proton gradients
C)reduction of glucose and corresponding oxidation of carbon dioxide
D)oxidation of metabolite molecules and the corresponding reduction of coenzymes
E)release of CO<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Glycolysis occurs before the preparatory reaction and the citric acid cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fermentation follows glycolysis in some cells when oxygen is not available.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glycolysis produces 1 pyruvate and 3 NADH coenzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Chloroplast are capable of running photosynthesis which is the most abundant form of anabolic metabolism in life.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) can be unleashed by internal or external signals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is NOT correctly associated with cancer?
A)Angiogenesis forms new blood vessels and brings nutrients and oxygen to the tumor.
B)The disorganized mass of cells is encapsulated and does not invade adjacent tissue.
C)Metastasis establishes new tumors distant from the site of the primary tumor.
D)Cells have receptors to adhere to basement membranes,then secrete proteinase enzymes to invade underlying tissues.
Q3) What is the result of a cell not meeting the criteria to pass the G<sub>1</sub> checkpoint?
A)The cell cycle halts.
B)The cell may enter the G<sub>0</sub> stage.
C)The cell may undergo apoptosis.
D)All of the above.
E)None of the above.
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11
Chapter 10: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) In human females,when is meiosis II completed?
A)at ovulation
B)immediately after the sperm penetration of the secondary oocyte
C)immediately after the sperm penetrates the primary oocyte
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a difference between anaphase I and anaphase II?
A)At the end of anaphase I,each chromosome is composed of two chromatids and at the end of anaphase II,sister chromatids have separated,becoming daughter chromosomes
B)Anaphase I occurs in a haploid cell while anaphase II occurs in a diploid cell.
C)Sister chromatids separate during anaphase II while homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I.
D)The cell undergoing anaphase II is genetically different from what it contained while undergoing anaphase I.
Q3) Where in the human male does spermatogenesis occur?
A)ovaries
B)prostate gland
C)epididymus
D)testes
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Mendelian Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) If a human who is a tongue roller (T)and has unattached ear lobes (E)marries a person who cannot roll their tongue and has attached earlobes,could they produce an offspring that was also a non-tongue roller with attached earlobes? What would be the genotype of the first parent? the second parent?
A)yes; TtEe; ttee
B)yes; TtEE; ttEe
C)no; TTEE; ttee
D)unable to determine from the information given
Q2) If the parents are AO and BO genotypes for the ABO blood group,their children could include which of the following genotypes?
A)AO and BO only
B)AO,BO,and AB only
C)AA,BB,and AB only
D)AO,BO,and OO only
E)AO,BO,AB,and OO only
Q3) Each gamete carries one factor,now called an allele,for each inherited trait.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Molecular Biology of the Gene
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication is considered semiconservative because:
A)it will create three new,identical strands when finished.
B)it uses the original strand as a template for replication.
C)it always replicates in the 3 to 5 prime direction.
D)it never replicates in the 5 to 3 prime direction.
Q2) Which of the following processes does NOT take place during translation?
A)Growth of a polypeptide chain.
B)Attachment of a ribosome to mRNA.
C)Binding of two tRNA molecules per ribosome.
D)Liberation of polypeptide from the ribosome.
E)Production of mRNA.
Q3) Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct?
A)Unwinding of the DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break.
B)Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it.
C)The process is known as semiconservative replication because one old strand is conserved in the new molecule.
D)The enzyme that catalyzes DNA replication is DNA polymerase.
E)Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds.
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Chapter 13: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Active genes in eukaryotic cells are associated with A)euchromatin.
B)heterochromatin.
C)methylated RNA and histones.
D)DNA with many methyl groups.
Q2) When a bacterium is introduced to a new environment that is an appropriate medium for that species to grow,fission allows a rapid expansion of the population (2-4-8-16-32-64 ...etc.).But there is usually a slight lag before the bacteria actually begin building up such a logarithmic growth curve.What is the best explanation?
A)It takes time for sub-cellular units to evolve the ability to digest new media.
B)A bacterium is not actively producing all the enzymes it can code for,and it takes time to induce and amplify the production of the currently needed enzymes.
C)Binary fission becomes more and more efficient.
D)A new media dissolves away repressor proteins.
E)Structural genes act more slowly than metabolic genes.
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15
Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Genomics
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Q1) The term "ligase" adds the suffix "-ase" to the Latin root word for A)gene.
B)work.
C)cut.
D)bind.
E)copy-producing.
Q2) How are DNA microarrays used in the study of genomics?
A)They are used to identify the mutations that an individual possesses.
B)They can be used to determine which genes are turned on or off in an individual.
C)They can be used to help determine an individuals genetic profile.
D)All of these are uses for DNA microarrays.
E)None of these are uses for DNA microarrays.
Q3) What is the first step in producing a transgenic animal?
A)implantation of a donor egg into the host mother.
B)inject the desired gene(s)into a donor egg.
C)transgenic organism produces offspring that have the desired gene which can then produce more transgenic offspring.
D)transgenic eggs are harvested from the surrogate mother.
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Chapter 15: Darwin and Evolution
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Q1) Over many generations man has chosen certain desirable characteristics in dogs by allowing dogs possessing those characteristics to reproduce.In this way,150 breeds of dogs,all in the same species,have descended from wolves.This process is referred to as A)natural selection.
B)inheritance of acquired traits.
C)artificial selection.
D)convergent evolution.
Q2) All of the following are examples of natural selection EXCEPT
A)the distribution of dark and light colored peppered moths in Britain.
B)a rise in bacterial resistance to antibiotics.
C)the reduction in beak length of scarlet honeycreepers when they changed food sources.
D)the 150 breeds of dogs developed from ancestral wolves.
E)two of the above are not examples of natural selection.
Q3) Erasmus Darwin,Charles Darwin's grandfather,suggested the possibility of evolutionary descent in his writings.
A)True
B)False
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17
Chapter 16: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) If two adjacent populations of the same species show gene flow,then the two populations will
A)become more similar in their gene pools.
B)become isolated from each other.
C)develop into different species.
D)adapt to different conditions and become separate.
Q2) Which of the following reflect(s)the likely presence of (a)gene mutation(s)?
A)Fruit flies subjected to intense radiation produce a wider array of variable offspring.
B)A chemical leaking from the surface of an old abandoned coal mine alters a regulatory gene so that a cricket nymph develops an extra set of eyes.
C)The bacteria that cause gonorrhea,a common sexually transmitted disease,have previously been killed by penicillin; however,after continuous usage of the antibiotic,penicillin-resistant strains are now becoming prevalent.
D)Radiation causes an alteration in a DNA nucleotide sequence,which is discovered when mapped,but which appears to be neither increasing nor decreasing in successive generations.
E)All of the choices are correct.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Speciation and Macroevolution
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Q1) The DNA base sequence of the mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase gene has been used in addition to the biological species concept to identify species.
A)True B)False
Q2) The evolutionary species concept assumes that the members of a species are reproductively isolated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A _____ is the first cell that results when an egg is fertilized by a sperm.
A)spermatogonium
B)gastrula
C)zygote
D)blastula
Q4) Evolutionary change above the species level is referred to as __________,whereas evolutionary changes below the species level is known as
A)convergent; divergent
B)macroevolution; microevolution
C)microevolution; macroevolution
D)punctuated; gradualistic
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Chapter 18: Origin and History of Life
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Q1) Which of the following time periods contains the others?
A)Cretaceous
B)Triassic
C)Jurassic
D)Mesozoic
Q2) Which event and date is mismatched?
A)origin of multicellular organisms-650 million years ago
B)origin of life-4.8 billion years ago
C)origin of eukaryotic cells-2.2 billion years ago
D)All the choices are incorrect.
Q3) The first cells gave rise to
A)bacteria and archaea.
B)archaea and protists.
C)bacteria and fungi.
D)eukaryotes and bacteria.
Q4) Plate tectonics explain that the amount of Earth being formed is much greater than the amount of the Earth's crust being destroyed in subduction zones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Taxonomy,systematics,and Phylogeny
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Q1) The principle of parsimony states that a cladogram produces the best hypothesis about relationships of organisms when the maximum number of assumptions are considered.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following features would be used to construct a phylogenic tree?
A)homologous structures
B)fossil record data
C)DNA-DNA hybridization
D)amino acid sequences
E)All of the above.
Q3) Phylogenetic trees with proportional branch lengths
A)indicate relatedness among organisms.
B)indicate the relative number of nucleotide pair differences between groups.
C)are constructed by comparing DNA sequences of homologous genes and calibrating this molecular clock with the fossil record.
D)All of the above are true.
E)indicate relatedness evolutionary time.
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21
Chapter 20: Viruses,bacteria,and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatch?
A)thermophiles - live in extremely cold temperatures
B)methanogens - prefer anaerobic environments
C)halophiles - live in high salt environments
D)thermoacidophiles - live in high temperatures and acidic environments
Q2) Viruses are categorized according to all of the following EXCEPT
A)size and shape.
B)their type of nucleic acid.
C)the presence of absence of an envelope.
D)their method of reproduction,whether asexual or sexual.
Q3) In order to infect a cell,a virus must
A)inject its protein into the cell while the nucleic acid remains attached to the host cell surface.
B)have a special protein on its surface that can interact with a protein on the surface of the host cell.
C)actively burrow through the cell wall or cell membrane of the host cell to reach the cell's nucleus.
D)produce a special extension of its cytoplasm when it comes into contact with the appropriate host cell.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Protist Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following pairs of Protists would be most closely related due to both of them possessing plastids?
A)Archaeplastids & Rhizaria
B)Archaeplastids & Chromalveolata
C)Rhizaria & Chromalveolata
D)Amoebozoa & Excavata
Q2) _________ is a mixotrophic protozoan that is able to combine autotrophic and heterotrophic nutritional modes.
A)Euglena
B)Plasmodium
C)Amoeba
D)Giardia
Q3) The deposits of chalky fossils that built the White Cliffs of Dover were formed by A)Amoebozoans.
B)Rhizarians.
C)Excavates.
D)Opisthokonts.
E)Chromalveolates.
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23
Chapter 22: Fungi Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) Which of the following statements most accurately describes the structural components of fungi?
A)The vast majority of fungi are multicellular organisms that are composed of a mycelium as well as individual hyphae.Chitin is a structural carbohydrate that makes up the cell wall of fungi.
B)The vast majority of fungi are multicellular organisms that are composed of a mycelium as well as individual hyphae.Cellulose is a structural carbohydrate that makes up the cell wall of fungi.
C)The vast majority of fungi are unicellular organisms that are composed of a mycelium as well as individual hyphae.Chitin is a structural carbohydrate that makes up the cell wall of fungi.
D)The vast majority of fungi are multicellular organisms that are composed of a single hyphae and multiple mycelium.Chitin is a structural carbohydrate that makes up the cell wall of fungi.
Q2) Fungi are thought to have been the first kind of eukaryotic cells that evolved.
A)True B)False
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Plant Evolution and Diversity
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Q1) The fiddlehead is a _______ that unfolds into a ______.
A)diploid gametophyte; fern frond
B)diploid sporophyte; fern frond
C)haploid sporophyte; fern frond
D)haploid gametophyte; fern frond
E)diploid gametophyte; moss plant
Q2) As plants invaded the land,there was
A)greater availability of light for photosynthesis.
B)greater concentrations of carbon dioxide.
C)increased threat of desiccation of unprotected cells.
D)All of the above.
Q3) In the pine life cycle,
A)fertilization occurs shortly after pollination to produce the zygote.
B)the gametophyte generation is dominant and the sporophyte generation is inconspicuous.
C)seed cones are smaller than pollen cones.
D)seed cones are located near the tips of higher branches and pollen cones develop near the tips of lower branches.
E)the cone is the fruit that surrounds the seeds.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Flowering Plants: Structure and Organization
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true about vascular tissue in plants?
A)In leaves,the vascular tissue is found in the leaf veins.
B)In stems,the vascular tissue is found in the vascular bundles.
C)Phloem cells are hollow and nonliving,and they form a continuous pipeline that transports sugars.
D)Xylem cells are hollow and nonliving,and they form a continuous pipeline that transports water and minerals.
E)In roots,the vascular tissue is found in the central vascular cylinder.
Q2) During the spring and fall each year thousands of maple trees are tapped for their fluids in order to make "real" maple syrup.If you were to tap into a maple tree to extract the syrup (sucrose)which tissue layer do you want to tap into?
A)phloem
B)xylem
C)epidermis
D)ground tissue
E)periderm
Q3) Vascular tissue extends through the roots,stems,and leaves of the entire plant.
A)True
B)False
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Flowering Plants: Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) How did the scientist Marcello Malpighi,in 1679,discover the role of phloem?
A)He observed aphids and cut off their beaks.
B)He was an early researcher on the cause of maple sap flow in producing syrup.
C)He observed the effects of girdling a tree below the level of the majority of leaves.
D)He used radioactive tracers to measure the flow of sap between two distances over time.
E)He observed the uptake of ink into the stem of celery.
Q2) Some scientists predict that the Earth will lose almost all of its topsoil by the middle of the next century.What factors are involved in the erosion of soil?
A)deforestation
B)desertization
C)poor farming practices
D)All of the above factors cause erosion.
Q3) Stomates allows carbon dioxide into the leaf and water out of the leaf under normal environmental conditions.
A)True
B)False
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Flowering Plants: Control of Growth Responses
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Q1) Which of the following hormones are believed to be involved in abscission?
A)ethylene
B)auxin
C)gibberellin
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) In order for signal transduction to work properly in plants the ______________________.
A)correct hormone needs to bind to the appropriate receptor in order to enter the cell
B)relay proteins need to amplify the signal and convert it into one that will alter the cellular machinery
C)gene expression must change to produce the appropriate cellular process
D)All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following plant hormones prevents plant tissues from senescing,or aging?
A)abscisic acid
B)auxin
C)cytokinin
D)ethylene
E)gibberellin
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Chapter 27: Flowering Plants: Reproduction
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Q1) Which of the following statements about fruits is NOT true?
A)A blackberry is an example of a simple fruit.
B)A fleshy fruit has a fleshy pericarp,as in a peach.
C)Most fruits are simple fruits,derived from a single ovary.
D)A dry fruit may split at maturity to release its seeds,as a pea or bean pod.
E)A multiple fruit,such as a pineapple,forms from many individual flowers on a stem.
Q2) Which of the following methods is used by plants when they are undergoing asexual reproduction?
A)Production of stolons.
B)Development of rhizomes.
C)Growth of suckers from the root base of specific types of trees.
D)All of the above are methods of asexual reproduction in plants.
Q3) Double fertilization in an angiosperm produces
A)a diploid zygote and a haploid polar nucleus.
B)a diploid zygote and a diploid endosperm.
C)a diploid embryo and a triploid zygote.
D)a triploid embryo and a diploid endosperm.
E)a diploid zygote and a triploid endosperm.
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29
Chapter 28: Invertebrate Evolution
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Q1) Most animal species possess the necessary features to be classified in which phylum?
A)Mollusca
B)Arthropoda
C)Chordata
D)Echinodermata
E)Annelida
Q2) What is the function of the buds formed by hydras?
A)They aid in digestion.
B)They develop into cnidocytes and can be used in defense.
C)They develop into the nerve net and are used to detect prey.
D)They produce new epidermal tissue to replace the old tissue.
E)They are a form of asexual reproduction.
Q3) Which statement is NOT correct about the roundworms?
A)There are three layers of tissues in the body.
B)Roundworms have a tube-within-a-tube body plan.
C)There is an internal body cavity called a pseudocoelom.
D)Roundworms have a smooth unsegmented outside body wall.
E)Roundworms are all parasitic.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Vertebrate Evolution
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Q1) The position of mammals in evolution is best described as A)they dominate life in the sea.
B)they were among the first animals to live on land and their diversity is greater than all living things known.
C)they arose from mammal-like reptiles in the Jurassic but remained small and insignificant while dinosaurs dominated the land.
D)mammals gave rise to birds.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following groups of chordates would be most impacted by a decrease in the phytoplankton levels in the ocean?
A)cephalochordates & urochordates
B)cartilaginous fish & cephalochordates
C)amphibians & urochodrates
D)molluscs & cephalochordates
Q3) Vertebrates without jaws would be the A)rays.
B)turtles.
C)lampreys.
D)eels.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Human Evolution
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Q1) Explain how mitochondrial DNA studies of Africans and Europeans support the replacement model for the evolution of modern humans.
A)a fossil must have an anatomy consistent with standing erect and bipedalism.
B)the individual would have a broader pelvis and hip joint to prevent swaying when walking.
C)the individual would have an arch instead of an opposable toe.
D)All of the choices are qualifications.
Q2) Apes walk on their feet and knuckles,which have opposable thumbs and big toes,like the ancestral form from which apes and humans evolved.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which two species are believed to have evolved from Homo ergaster?
A)Homo erectus & Homo floresiensis
B)Homo erectus & Homo rudolfensis
C)Homo rudolfensis & Homo floresiensis
D)Homo habilis & Cro Magnon man
Q4) All hominoids walk upright.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Animal Organization and Homeostasis
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Q1) What type of tissue lines body cavities and covers body surfaces?
A)muscle tissue
B)nervous tissue
C)epithelial tissue
D)connective tissue
Q2) Which of the following structures begins in the dermis and extends to the surface of the epidermis?
A)oil and sweat glands
B)hair follicles and nerve fibers
C)sweat glands and hair follicles
D)oil glands and hair follicles
Q3) Which statement is NOT true about cartilage?
A)Cartilage cells are located in small spaces called lacunae.
B)The matrix of cartilage includes calcium salts.
C)The matrix of cartilage is both solid and flexible.
D)The human fetal skeleton is made up of cartilage.
E)Adult bodies possess structures that are made up of cartilage such as the nose,ear,and pads between the vertebrae in the backbone.
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Chapter 32: Circulation and Cardiovascular Systems
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Q1) Identify the correct flow of blood through a one-circuit system.
A)ventricle - gill capillaries - systemic capillaries - sinus venosus - atrium
B)ventricle - systemic capillaries - gill capillaries - sinus venosus - atrium
C)ventricle - gill capillaries - systemic capillaries - atrium - sinus venosus
D)ventricle - pulmonary capillaries - atrium - aorta - systemic capillaries
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about red blood cells?
A)They are biconcave disks that lack nuclei when mature.
B)Their normal life span is about 120 days.
C)Hemoglobin is a protein that binds oxygen loosely to transport it.
D)There are about 6 million red blood cells per cubic millimeter of whole blood.
E)They are mainly produced in the liver.
Q3) All capillary beds have blood running to them at all times.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Platelets will release prothrombin activator at the site of an injury to initiate the clotting sequence.
A)True
B)False
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Page 34
Chapter 33: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Which kind of T cells regulate the immune response by producing stimulatory lymphokines?
A)memory T cells (T<sub>M</sub>)
B)suppressor T cells (T<sub>S</sub>)
C)cytotoxic T cells (T<sub>C</sub>)
D)helper T cells (T<sub>H</sub>)
Q2) What specific part of the antibody determines the class of the antibody?
A)variable region of the light chain and heavy chain
B)antigen binding sites
C)constant region
D)All of the above are correct.
E)None of the above are correct.
Q3) Natural killer (NK)cells that destroy virus-infected cells and cancer cells are
A)suppressor T cells (T<sub>S</sub>).
B)large,granular lymphocytes.
C)neutrophils.
D)eosinophils.
Q4) The first line of defense against invading microorganisms is nonspecific.
A)True
B)False
Page 35
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Chapter 34: Digestive Systems and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of bile salts?
A)act as emulsifiers
B)needed for fat digestion
C)aid the enzyme lipase in the digestion of fat molecules
D)production of vitamin D
Q2) A ruminant is
A)a carnivore with no extra digestive specializations.
B)a carnivore with extra stomach separations.
C)an omnivore with extra stomach separations.
D)a herbivore with no extra digestive specializations.
E)a herbivore with extra stomach separations.
Q3) Protein digestion occurs in the
A)mouth,stomach,and small intestine.
B)stomach and small intestine.
C)stomach,esophagus,and small intestine.
D)mouth and large intestine.
E)small intestine,large intestine,and mouth.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Systems
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Q1) As food is swallowed it is prevented from coming into contact with air and entering the trachea by the A)pharynx.
B)larynx.
C)bronchioles.
D)saliva.
E)epiglottis.
Q2) Which part of the respiratory system is an air tube held open by a series of C-shaped cartilaginous rings?
A)pharynx
B)larynx
C)trachea
D)bronchioles
Q3) Disorders of the upper respiratory tract consist of all of the following except for A)a runny nose.
B)pharyngitis.
C)the common cold.
D)asthma.
E)strep throat.
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Chapter 36: Body Fluid Regulation and Excretory Systems
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Q1) What are the potential consequences if a person's kidney suddenly stopped secreting the normal hormones?
A)The person would have trouble regulating their blood volume and pressure due to the imbalance of salt in the blood stream.
B)There would be an increase in the amount of water retained in the body,leading to edema.
C)There would be a significant increase in the amount of potassium that is excreted by the kidneys.
D)All of the choices are potential consequences.
Q2) Normally,concentrations of metabolically important substances,such as glucose,are
A)high in glomerular filtrate but only a trace in urine.
B)low in glomerular filtrate but high in urine.
C)high in glomerular filtrate and urine.
D)low in both glomerular filtrate and urine.
E)excluded from entering the excretory system altogether.
Q3) The kidneys filter all of the blood within the human body in about 40 minutes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Neurons and Nervous Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information gathering from the environment by a vertebrate is aided by which of the following?
A)paired eyes,ears,and olfactory structures
B)cephalization
C)bilateral symmetry with a vast increase in the number of neurons
D)All of the choices are information gathering aids.
Q2) Some memories are emotionally charged because the amygdala triggers associations between fear and sensory information.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is cut
A)death immediately occurs.
B)incoming sensory nerve impulses are lost.
C)outgoing motor nerve impulses are lost.
D)impulses do not cross over to the other side of the body.
Q4) At rest,the inside of the neuron is
A)negatively charged.
B)positively charged.
C)neutral,or equal to the exterior charge.
D)None of the choices are correct,since neurons are never at rest.
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Chapter 38: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In nearsightedness,light rays are brought into focus
A)in front of the retina.
B)in back of the retina.
C)on the retina.
D)on the hair cells of the ampulla.
E)unevenly across the retina.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the process of hearing is true?
A)Hearing is not dependent on the inner ear.
B)All parts of the organ of Corti hear all ranges of sound.
C)Loud music cannot damage your ears.
D)Hearing is dependent on mechanical pressure.
E)Sound is similar to light insofar as it is transmitted through the vacuum of space.
Q3) Which of the following structures would be impacted by a bacterial infection of the inner ear?
A)semicircular canal,cochlear nerve,malleus,and vestibular nerve
B)semicircular canal,tympanic membrane,ear lobe,and vestibular nerve
C)auditory canal,cochlear nerve,malleus,and vestibular nerve
D)pinna,stapes,vestibule,and cochlear nerve
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Chapter 39: Locomotion and Support Systems
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Q1) One of the major functions of the skeletal system is to store long term sources of energy for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these molecules acts as an ATPase,breaking down ATP to perform its function in muscle contraction?
A)actin
B)myosin
C)tropomyosin
D)troponin
E)calcium
Q3) Which of the following lists the correct order of vertebral regions from superior to inferior?
A)thoracic-lumbar-sacrum-cervical-coccyx
B)cervical-lumbar-sacrum-thoracic-coccyx
C)cervical-thoracic-lumbar-sacrum-coccyx
D)lumbar-sacrum-cervical-thoracic-coccyx
E)sacrum-cervical-thoracic-lumbar-coccyx
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Chapter 40: Hormones and Endocrine Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a negative feedback mechanism in regards to hormone regulation?
A)ADH is released from the pituitary causing water to be reabsorbed in the kidneys.
B)A baby suckles in order to stimulate milk production.
C)The uterine contractions during labor stimulate oxytocin production.
D)All of these are examples of a negative feedback mechanism.
E)None of these are examples of a negative feedback mechanism.
Q2) The pituitary gland controls the hypothalamus by the production of antidiuretic hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Identify the hormone that is released by the anterior pituitary but does not control other endocrine glands.
A)prolactin
B)thyroid stimulating hormone
C)adrenocorticotropic hormone
D)gonadotropic hormone
E)oxytocin
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Chapter 41: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an egg erupts from a follicle,the chamber that remains and secretes hormones is the
A)oocyte.
B)stroma.
C)corpus luteum.
D)primary follicle.
E)Graffian follicle.
Q2) The STD ______ causes an inflammation of the liver and is preventable by ___________.
A)hepatitis A,vaccination
B)hepatitis B,using a male condom
C)HIV,vaccination
D)gonorrhea,vaccination
E)syphilis,male condom
Q3) The egg is propelled down the oviduct by
A)cilia on the layer of nurse cells surrounding the egg.
B)oviduct cilia and tubular muscle contractions.
C)simply drifting on the prevailing current of body fluids.
D)suction from the uterine contractions.
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) What is the correct series of events during parturition?
A.The amnion breaks.
B.The cervix dilates.
C.ACTH causes the adrenal cortex to release androgens into the bloodstream.
D.Prostaglandins and oxytocin are produced.
E.The baby is born and the umbilical cord is cut.
F.The placenta is delivered.
A)c - d - b - a - e - f
B)c - d - a -b - e - f
C)a - d - b - c - e - f
D)c - d - b - f - a - e
E)c - b - f - a - e - d
Q2) Prevention of polyspermy depends upon changes in the plasma membrane of the egg and in the zona pellucida.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The human embryo becomes a fetus at the end of the second month of gestation.
A)True
B)False
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Behavioral Ecology
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Q1) Fireflies use pheromones to communicate with each other at night because it increases the chance the receiver will get the message.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Communication is an action by a sender that may influence the behavior of a receiver.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hippopotamuses perform territorial displays that include mouth opening.This is _____ communication.
A)auditory
B)visual
C)chemical
D)tactile
Q4) During operant conditioning the stimulus-response connection is weakened by repeated punishment.
A)True
B)False
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The particular place where an organism lives is its A)life zone.
B)niche.
C)ecosystem.
D)community.
E)habitat.
Q2) What is the expected pattern of growth for a population that has a birthrate that is higher than the death rate?
A)This population can expect to see a pyramid-shaped diagram that will cause the population to grow in the near future.
B)This population can expect to see an urn-shaped diagram that will cause the population to grow in the future.
C)This population can expect to see a bell-shaped diagram that will cause the population to grow in the future.
D)This population can expect to see an pyramid-shaped diagram that will cause the population to decrease in the future.
E)This population can expect to move into a logistic growth curve in the near future.
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Chapter 45: Community and Ecosystem Ecology
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Q1) A community that contains a low species diversity will often have a high species richness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Consider the following food chain: hawk - rabbit - clover.Each species will contain a different amount of calories in its body (clover: 10 calories,rabbit: 500 and hawk: 1200).Each species has a different daily caloric requirement (clover: sunlight,rabbit: 100 calories,hawk: 300). How many clover plants,per day,does it take to support a family of hawks (mom,dad and juvenile.Assume each hawk needs the same number of calories per day)?
A)approximately 1800 clover plants
B)approximately 600 clover plants
C)approximately 100 clover plants
D)approximately 18,000 clover plants
E)None,hawks do not eat clover plants.
Q3) The frequent change in HIV surface proteins is a type of A)coevolution.
B)parasitism.
C)mutualism.
D)commensalism.
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Chapter 46: Major Ecosystems of the Biosphere
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT strictly a freshwater community?
A)lakes
B)rivers
C)estuaries
D)streams
E)ponds
Q2) The Earth is actually farther from the sun during the period when the Northern Hemisphere is having summer.How can this be explained?
A)The sun grows more powerful on a half-year cycle.
B)There is a six-month lag phase between sunlight being absorbed and lost.
C)The tilt of the Earth presents the Northern Hemisphere in a more perpendicular angle,and this increased sunlight more than offsets the decrease in sunlight due to the added distance.
D)There must be some mistake in measuring the Earth's orbit because if the Earth were farther away,we would be cooler.
Q3) The Humboldt Current runs along the coast of South America carrying nitrogen rich cold water northward.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Conservation of Biodiversity
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Q1) The use of wheat,corn,rice and other crops derived from wild ancestors is an example of the _______ value of biodiversity.
A)agricultural
B)medicinal
C)consumptive use
D)climatic regulation
Q2) Biodiversity is a resource of immense value.All of the following are ways in which biodiversity is directly valuable to humans EXCEPT
A)agricultural.
B)medicinal.
C)consumptive use.
D)contributions to biogeochemical cycles.
Q3) The science of collecting,analyzing,and making readily available biological information is
A)habitat restoration planning.
B)landscape preservation.
C)bioinformatics.
D)a population viability analysis.
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