Foundations of Biology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Biology is an introductory course that explores the core principles, concepts, and methodologies of biological science. Students will investigate the structure and function of cells, genetics and heredity, evolution, biodiversity, and the interactions of organisms within ecosystems. Emphasis is placed on developing a deep understanding of scientific inquiry, experimental design, and data analysis. The course provides a basis for advanced studies in biology and highlights the relevance of biological concepts to contemporary issues in health, environment, and technology.
Recommended Textbook
Biology 9th Edition by Peter Raven George B. Johnson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Science of Biology
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Q1) Darwin described which of the following as "those individuals that possess superior physical,behavioral,or other attributes are more likely to survive than those that are not so well endowed," and thus more likely to pass their traits to the next generation?
A)biological diversity
B)geometric progression
C)natural selection
D)superior beings
E)survival of modifications
Answer: C
Q2) You are interested in studying the function of GABA<sub>A</sub> receptors and how certain deficits in GABA<sub>A</sub> receptor signaling result in anxiety-related behaviors in humans.Since many of the experiments you want to do cannot be performed on humans,you choose to study these processes in mice.In this case,mice can be considered what type of experimental organism?
A)a variable
B)a control
C)an applied
D)a model
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nature of Molecules
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Q1) Capillary action is one of the forces that aids water's upward movement in plants.The more narrow the diameter of the tube,the farther the water column will rise.Capillary action is a result of water molecules
A)storing heat and thus moving faster because of heat of vaporization.
B)producing sufficient surface tension to overcome the pull of gravity.
C)having a strong cohesive force and attaching to the surrounding vessel walls.
D)having an adhesive force,which allows them to attach to the vessel walls.
E)being associated with hydrophobic molecules,which can result in upward movement. Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements about protons is false?
A)Protons have one positive charge.
B)Protons have one Dalton of mass.
C)Protons are always found in the nucleus of the atom.
D)The number of protons is the same as the number of electrons.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Chemical Building Blocks of Life
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Q1) Imagine that you were able to see a nucleotide under a very special microscope.As you scan the nucleotide you see a T nitrogen base.Without seeing any other part of the nucleotide you know that
A)it is a DNA nucleotide.
B)it is a RNA nucleotide.
C)it is a either a DNA nucleotide or an RNA nucleotide.
D)you will need to continue to scan for more clues,such as the type of sugar associated with it,to be able to determine which type of nucleotide it is.
Answer: A
Q2) Functional groups found in amino acids include all of the following except A)-NH<sub>2</sub>.
B)phosphate.
C)-COOH.
D)-OH.
E)alkyl (linked multiple carbons with hydrogens).
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Structure
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Q1) The cell theory states that all of the ________ on earth are individual cells or aggregates of cells.
A)organisms
B)organs
C)cells
D)plants
Q2) The cytoplasmic space in eukaryotic cells is occupied by many diverse membrane-bound structures with specific cellular functions.These are called A)flagellA.
B)organelles.
C)cilia.
D)chromosomes.
E)receptors.
Q3) Which of the following is not present in all eukaryotic cells?
A)endoplasmic reticulum
B)ribosome
C)plasma membrane
D)cell wall
E)Golgi bodies
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Membranes
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Q1) Which of the following is not a part of the sodium-potassium pump?
A)Three sodium ions bind to the cytoplasmic side of the protein.
B)Three sodium ions are translocated out of the cell.
C)Phosphate facilitates potassium ion binding to transport protein.
D)Two potassium ions are transported into the cell.
E)ATP binds to the protein which becomes phosphorylated (ADP is released).
Q2) In bacteria,fungi,and plants the high internal pressure generated by osmosis is counteracted by the mechanical strength of their A)plasma membranes.
B)organelles.
C)cytoskeletons.
D)cell walls.
E)flagella.
Q3) Cell-walled organisms cannot carry out A)exocytosis.
B)active transport.
C)osmosis.
D)diffusion.
E)endocytosis.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Energy and Metabolism
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Q1) As energy is being reconverted through the many forms,it is continuously lost as A)electricity.
B)light.
C)sound.
D)heat.
E)chemical energy.
Q2) In an enzyme catalyzed reaction the reactant is called the A)ribozyme.
B)catalyst.
C)substrate.
D)end-product.
E)activator.
Q3) Reactions that occur spontaneously and release free energy are called _____________ reactions.
A)activation
B)exergonic
C)catabolistic
D)thermodynamic
E)endergonic
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Page 8
Chapter 7: How Cells Harvest Energy
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Q1) Yeast cells under anaerobic conditions
A)die.
B)produce ethyl alcohol (ethanol).
C)produce oxygen.
D)switch to oxidative respiration.
E)push the glycolytic pathway backward.
Q2) The oxygen utilized in cellular respiration finally shows up as A)CO<sub>2</sub>.
B)ATP.
C)new O<sub>2</sub>.
D)H<sub>2</sub>O.
E)part of a sugar.
Q3) A process common to all living organisms,aerobic and anaerobic,is A)glycolysis.
B)fermentation.
C)the Krebs cycle.
D)electron transport chain reactions.
E)pyruvate oxidation.
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9
Chapter 8: Photosynthesis
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Q1) A method devised by succulent desert plants to reduce the problem of photorespiration is
A)the C<sub>3</sub> pathway.
B)the CAM metabolism.
C)the Calvin cycle.
D)light reactions.
E)nitrogen fixation.
Q2) Even though the Calvin cycle reactions require the products of the light reactions,its reactions can occur in the ________.
A)light
B)dark
C)root
D)cold
Q3) Which of the following is common to both cellular respiration and the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A)the transfer of electrons to glucose
B)the chemiosmotic formation of ATP
C)oxygen is one of the byproducts
D)mitochondria are essential organelles
E)must have light
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Chapter 9: Cell Communication
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Q1) The protein SOS is a guanine nucleotide exchange factor for Ras.SOS helps facilitate the exchange of GDP for GTP.What would be the effect of a mutation that inhibits the interaction between SOS and Ras?
A)GTP would remain bound to Ras,thereby disrupting downstream signaling events.
B)GDP would remain bound to Ras,thereby disrupting downstream signaling events.
C)GTP would remain bound to Ras,leading to overstimulation of the Ras pathway.
D)GDP would remain bound to Ras,leading to overstimulation of the Ras pathway.
Q2) Small molecules or ions can pass from one cell to another through A)tight junctions.
B)gap junctions.
C)diffusion spheres.
D)desmosomes.
E)adherens junctions.
Q3) Chemically-gated ion ________ open or close when signal molecules bind to the channel,allowing specific ions to diffuse through the channel.
A)channels
B)molecules
C)species
D)membranes
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Page 11
Chapter 10: How Cells Divide
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Q1) Each chromosome has a ____________,a point of constriction containing certain repeated DNA sequences that bind specific proteins.
A)DNA strand
B)centromere
C)node
D)synapse
Q2) Before cell division of the body cells,each homologue replicates into two parts.These parts are connected by a centromere and are called
A)sister chromatids.
B)daughter chromatids.
C)sister chromosomes.
D)daughter chromosomes.
E)genes.
Q3) You are studying cell cycle progression in yeast cells.If you could prevent cdc2 from associating with mitotic cyclin,the cells would
A)arrest in G<sub>1</sub>.
B)arrest in G<sub>2</sub>.
C)arrest in M.
D)arrest in S.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Q1) If there was a single crossing over event between the second and third chromosomes from the top,the resulting chromosomes (in order)would be
A)A B C D E F G;A B C D E F G;a b c d e f g;a b c d e f g.
B)A B C D E F G;A B c d e f g;A B C D E F G;A B c d e f g.
C)A B C D E F G;A B c d e f g;a b C D E F G;a b c d e f g.
D)A B C D E F G;A B c d e F G;a b C D E f g;a b c d e f g.
Q2) Livestock owners and breeders have most likely maximized their abilities to greatly improve size and speed of the animals that they raise.This is a consequence of
A)too many crossing over events in previous livestock generations.
B)not enough crossing over events in previous livestock generations.
C)existing genetic combinations have been nearly exhausted as well as the limited amount of genetic variability that existed to begin with.
D)using artificial insemination instead of allowing animals to breed on their own.
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13
Chapter 12: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Yellow-seeded plants might be homozygous or heterozygous.We could find out which by crossing these plants with
A)true breeding yellow-seeded plants.
B)true breeding green-seeded plants.
C)heterozygous yellow-seeded plants.
D)true breeding white-flowered plants.
E)true breeding purple-flowered plants.
Q2) The genotypic ratio produced in the F<sub>2</sub> generation is A)3:1.
B)1:2:1.
C)¾:¼.
D)cannot determine from the information provideD.
Q3) Individuals carrying two "factors" for most traits are A)haploid.
B)diploid.
C)eukaryotiC.
D)homozygous.
E)heterozygous.
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14
Chapter 13: Chromosomes Mapping and the MeiosisInheritance
Connection
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Q1) Traits that are carried on the X chromosome are said to be
A)autosomal B)gametal C)sex-linked D)alleles
Q2) Given that bw and hv are closely linked,which of the following genotypic ratios can you expect to find in the F<sub>2</sub> generation?
A)1:2:1
B)1:1:1:1
C)9:3:3:1
D)3:1
Q3) If a female was a carrier for sex-linked color blindness,what percentage of her male children would also be color blind?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)100%
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Dna: the Genetic Material
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Q1) Which of the following choices is the correct sequence for DNA replication in A)initiation,termination,elongation
B)initiation,elongation,termination
C)elongation,termination,initiation
D)elongation,initiation,termination E)coli?
Q2) Information obtained by Franklin from X-ray crystallography on DNA suggested that it is a A)helix.
B)ribbon.
C)hollow cylinder.
D)pleated sheet.
E)icosahedron.
Q3) The reading of the bases along the length of a nucleic acid molecule for either transcription or translation is done from the A)1' end.
B)2' end.
C)3' end.
D)4' enD.
E)5' end.
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Chapter 15: Genes and How They Work
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Q1) Protein synthesis proceeds by the ribosome
A)alternating between many chains.
B)moving three nucleotides at a time on the mRNA.
C)attaching amino acids in a random fashion.
D)selecting the tRNA molecule that fits.
E)attaching amino acids to the growing chain without charged tRNAs.
Q2) Given the sentence "THE FAT CAT ATE THE RED RAT," which of the following would represent a frameshift mutation?
A)THE FAT CAT ATE THE RED RAT
B)THE CAT ATE THE RED RAT
C)THE FAC ATA TET HER EDR AT
D)THE FAT RAT ATE THE RED RAT
Q3) In _________,a ribosome assembles a polypeptide,whose amino acid sequence is specified by the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA (which itself is a copy of the template DNA).
A)transcription
B)translation
C)replication
D)synthesis
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Control of Gene Expression
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Q1) The enzyme \(\beta\)-galactosidase acts on lactose to form galactose.In turn,the presence of galactose leads to expression of the enzymes responsible for the metabolism of galactose.In this case,lactose is serving as a carbon source and as a(n) A)inducer.
B)repressor.
C)effector.
D)operon.
Q2) DNA methylation,adding a methyl group to DNA nucleotides,in vertebrates ensures that
A)the gene functions without interruption.
B)no errors will be made during transcription.
C)the nucleosome will quickly form,which assists in mRNA formation.
D)once that gene is transcribed,the mRNA is saved and used over and over again.
E)once a gene is turned off,it will remain off.
Q3) Small RNAs,once thought to be of no importance in gene expression contain
A)between 21 to 28 nucleotides.
B)exactly 64 nucleotides.
C)between 15 and 20 codons.
D)between 21 and 64 codons.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Biotechnology
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Q1) _________ is a human protein synthesized in small amounts that can dissolve blood clots.
A)TPA
B)fibrinogen
C)DNA
D)restriction endonuclease
Q2) You are trying to clone a piece of DNA into a plasmid vector that exhibits blue-white selection.Following ligation and transformation,you plate the host cells onto several plates containing the appropriate selective media.The next day you examine the bacterial colonies that grew.Which of the following plates should you select to proceed with the analysis of possible transformants?
A)3 white colonies,50 blue colonies
B)97 white colonies,105 blue colonies
C)43 white colonies,6 blue colonies
D)238 blue colonies
Q3) Which of the following two enzymes are needed to construct a cDNA library?
A)reverse transcriptase and DNA ligase
B)reverse transcriptase and Taq polymerase
C)DNA ligase and Taq polymerase
D)Taq polymerase and RNA polymerase
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Chapter 18: Genomics
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Q1) Traditionally,toxicology studies have involved numerous bioassays on rodents.However,a more reliable and reproducible approach to study the genome-wide effects of a toxin,one could use A)a protein microarray.
B)functional genomics.
C)a yeast two-hybrid screen.
D)a DNA microarray.
Q2) Microarrays are created by
A)robotically placing DNA on to a microscope slide and probing with RNA from the tissue of interest.
B)robotically placing DNA on to a microscope slide and probing with another DNA from the tissue of interest.
C)robotically placing DNA on to a microscope slide and probing with SNPs from the tissue of interest.
D)robotically placing DNA on to a microscope slide and probing with STSs from the tissue of interest.
E)clone by clone sequencing.
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Chapter 19: Cellular Mechanisms of Development
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Q1) A zygote is a fertilized egg formed by an egg and a sperm.The zygote undergoes many mitotic events as it develops into a solid ball of cells called a blastomere.Select the correct statement that describes the condition of a blastomere.
A)During the initial cleavages,there is a tremendous increase in the number of cells and the cell size of the blastomeres.
B)During the initial cleavages,there is a tremendous decrease in the number of cells and the cell size of the blastomeres.
C)During the initial cleavages,there is a tremendous increase in the number of cells coupled with a decrease in the size of the cells composing the blastomeres.
D)During the initial cleavages,there is no increase in the number of cells of the blastomere,but the size of the cells increases.
Q2) A seed germinates as a result of
A)a predetermined internal clock set in place at fertilization.
B)responses to changes in its environment.
C)having tolerated a long winter.
D)being planted at the correct time.
E)its genetics.
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Chapter 20: Genes Within Populations
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Q1) The total of all the alleles of all the genes in a population can be thought of as
A)an allele mixture.
B)a gene pool.
C)a genetic melting pot.
D)a genome.
E)variant genes.
Q2) The key point in Darwin's proposal is that the ___________ imposes the conditions that determine the results of selection and thus the direction of selection.
A)parent
B)gene
C)individual
D)environment
Q3) The fitness of an individual may depend on all of the following factors except A)life span of the individual.
B)climate change.
C)offspring produced per mating.
D)frequency of individual's phenotype in population.
E)presence of many pleiotropic genes.
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Chapter 21: The Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Some of the most dramatic evidence for evolution has come from human agriculture.One of the most highly artificially selected crop plants is A)peas.
B)tomatoes.
C)potatoes.
D)corn.
E)asparagus.
Q2) A technique used in dating a rock can be used to accurately predict the age of the fossils occurring in the rocks.This technique involves A)fossil dating.
B)successive rock layering.
C)radioactive isotope decay.
D)structural geology.
E)developmental geology.
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23
Chapter 22: The Origin of Species
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Q1) The model that assumes that evolution proceeds with slow successive change in a given evolutionary line is referred to as
A)successive descent model.
B)punctuated equilibrium.
C)gradualism.
D)the allopatric model.
E)the sympatric model.
Q2) Adaptive radiation is best described as the
A)existence of groups of closely related species recently evolved from a common ancestor.
B)existence of groups of distantly related species recently evolved from a common ancestor.
C)existence of groups of closely related species recently evolved from different ancestors through hybridization.
D)existence of individuals of closely related species that originated in different areas within diverse habitats,but that have rejoined as a single species.
Q3) Recurrent isolation promotes _______.
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Chapter 23: Systematics and the Phylogenetic Revolution
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Q1) One day after a biology class four of your friends argue about the difference between phylogeny and systematics.Which friend is right?
A)Friend A states that systematics and phylogenies are really the same,one is more recent than the other,but basically they are the same.
B)Friend B says that systematics is the same as cladistics and cladistics is reconstructing clades,which ultimately lead to the development of phylogenies.
C)Friend C argues that systematics is the actual collecting and cataloguing of specimens into museums that can be used later by scientists to construct clades and phylogenies.
D)Friend D says that the way she remembers is that systematics is the reconstruction and study of phylogenies.
Q2) Character states shared by the ancestor or outgroup of a clade are called A)derived traits.
B)homoplasies.
C)synapomorphies.
D)plesiomorphies.
E)symplesiomorphies.
Q3) A ______________ group does not contain the most recent common ancestor.
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Chapter 24: Genome Evolution
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Q1) Which one of the following statements describing what we know about Plasmodium falciparum,the parasitic protist that causes malaria,is false?
A)P.falciparum has many genes with similar function clustered together on its chromosomes.
B)P.falciparum is difficult for the immune system to target because it "cloaks" itself inside of red blood cells.
C)P.falciparum has inherited a unique subcellular organelle called an apicoplast from the chloroplast of an alga.
D)Although the P.falciparum apicoplast has no known function,targeting the apicoplast with chloroplast-specific herbicides might kill the parasite.
Q2) Today,gene swapping between two species is
A)illegal and irresponsible.
B)impossible,but it happened frequently in the distant past.
C)infrequent but possible;it happened more often in the distant past.
D)much more frequent than in the distant past.
E)only possible if they are in the same family of organisms,such as lions and tigers.
Q3) Genes with the same ancestral sequence are known as ___________________.
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Chapter 25: Evolution of Development
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the evolution of notochord development in ascidians is false?
A)The ancestral Brachyury gene exists in invertebrates.
B)Brachyury gene in ascidians has a role in notochord development.
C)In ascidians,the Brachyury T-box region encodes a transcription factor.
D)The Brachyury gene is not present in vertebrates.
E)Since invertebrates do not have notochords,the Brachyury gene must have evolved a new function.
Q2) Indirect development in sea urchins involves the presence of a _________________ stage.
Q3) Most mutations that affect developmental regulatory genes are _________________.
Q4) The evolution of notochord development in ascidians is best explained by A)a new gene mutation.
B)the co-option of an existing gene for a new function.
C)homoplastic convergence.
D)gene duplication and divergence.
E)conserved genes.
Q5) An alternation in the timing of a developmental event caused by a genetic mutation is called _________________.
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Q6) Another name for analogous structures is _________________ structures.
Chapter 26: The Tree of Life
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Q1) Endosymbiotic relationships between prokaryotes evolved into more complex cell types called ________,which possessed nuclear membranes and membrane-bound organelles.
Q2) Which of the following was produced in experiments on primitive Earth conditions conducted by Miller-Urey and others?
A)ammonia and water
B)amino acids
C)CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
D)formaldehyde and hydrogen sulfide
E)methane and oxygen
Q3) A scientist is studying endosymbiosis in cells.This means she is investigating
A)how mitochondria and chloroplasts were derived from eukaryotic cells.
B)how mitochondria and chloroplasts were derived from prokaryotic cells.
C)how mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved into eukaryotic cells.
D)how mitochondria and chloroplasts evolved into prokaryotic cells.
E)how mitochondria but not chloroplasts evolved into prokaryotic cells.
Q4) The Swedish biologist,________,developed a simpler two-part (binomial)naming system for organisms.
Q5) The highest (most inclusive)unit of biological classification is called ________________.
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Chapter 27: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following statements about TSEs (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies)is false?
A)TSEs include scrapie in sheep,mad cow disease,chronic wasting disease in deer and elk,and kuru and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans.
B)The incidence of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans increased after an outbreak of mad cow disease in England suggesting that mad cow disease may be transmitted to humans.
C)Viroids are the likely cause of TSEs.
D)TSEs do not seem to be affected by treatments that would eliminate nucleic acid-based diseases.
E)Infectious TSE preparations do not seem to contain DNA or RNA.
Q2) Which matching of HIV drug therapy and proposed mode of action is incorrect?
A)AZT-blocks viral replication
B)protease inhibitor-inhibitor of reverse transcriptase
C)defective nef gene-incorporation into a vaccine
D)chemokines-block HIV binding to CD4<sup>+</sup> cells
E)CAF-block viral replication
Q3) The SARS virus is a completely new form of _______ _________.
Q4) _____________ infects the CD4 + T cells,which are required for normal immunity.
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Chapter 28: Prokaryotes
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Q1) Prokaryotic cell walls consist of a network of polysaccharide molecules connected by cross-links of A)other polysaccharides. B)lipids.
C)polypeptides.
D)ribosomes.
E)chromosomal DNA.
Q2) When bacteria are exposed to nutrient-poor conditions,they form thick-walled structures that contain the chromosome and a small amount of cytoplasm.These structures are called A)plasmids.
B)pseudomonades.
C)nucleoids.
D)endospores.
E)exospores.
Q3) Carbon fixation carried out by the prokaryotes known as the __________ involves chlorophyll a.
Q4) Genetic diversity in bacteria is created by mutation and ___________.
Q5) The earliest fossilized forms of microscopic life,known as ___________,were prokaryotes.
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Chapter 29: Protists
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Q1) Trypanosomiasis is spread by
A)mosquitoes.
B)airborne droplets.
C)tsetse flies.
D)fleas on rats.
E)contaminated water.
Q2) Which one of the following groups is not considered monophyletic?
A)Euglenozoa
B)amoebas
C)Alveolata
D)Rhodophyta
E)Stramenopila
Q3) The common characteristic of Alveolata is
A)a single,unique mitochondriA.
B)a layer of flattened vesicles beneath the plasma membrane.
C)silica covering.
D)funnel-shaped,contractile collar.
E)presence of a plasmodium.
Q4) Typical asexually reproducing protists can reproduce ________ in times of stress.
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Chapter 30: Overview of Green Plants
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Q1) Bryophytes,like ferns and certain other tracheophyte plants,require
A)air to reproduce sexually.
B)water to reproduce sexually.
C)soil to reproduce sexually.
D)shade to reproduce sexually.
E)sunlight to reproduce sexually.
Q2) Advances in molecular systematics show that whisk ferns and horsetails are the closest living relatives of A)mosses.
B)club mosses.
C)seed plants.
D)gymnosperms.
E)ferns.
Q3) Well-developed vascular systems are absent in all of the following except A)mosses.
B)liverworts.
C)hornworts.
D)Charophytes.
E)Pterophytes.
Q4) Pollen grains are immature ____ gametophytes.
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Of the following statements about the fungal Phylum Zygomycota,which is incorrect?
A)Sexual reproduction occurs by the fusion of gametangiA.Gametangia may be formed on hyphae of different mating types.
B)Asexual reproduction occurs more frequently in the Zygomycota than does sexual reproduction.
C)An example of the Phylum Zygomycota is bread mold.
D)The phylum Zygomycota has the most species of the three fungal phyla.
E)Hyphae of Zygomycota produce clumps of erect stalks called sporangiophores.
Q2) The system of fungal filaments that penetrates and grows through the substrate is called a(n)
A)exoskeleton.
B)hyphal compartment.
C)mushroom.
D)mycelium.
E)sporangium.
Q3) Fungi exist mainly in the form of slender filaments,barely visible to the naked eye,which are called ________.
Q4) Mushrooms are fungi belonging to the phylum ____________.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) Which one of the following terms applies to the phylum Nematoda?
A)Parazoa
B)radial cleavage
C)diploblastic
D)deuterostome
E)pseudocoelomate
Q2) Which one of the following statements about molecular systematics and its role in the classification of animals is false?
A)Clades consist of monophyletic taxa sharing the same gene sequences.
B)Different molecules sometimes support different taxonomic relationships.
C)Molecular data suggests that arthropods and annelids are part of the same clade.
D)Molecular data suggests that a new group of "molting" animals,the Ecdysozoa,is monophyletic.
E)Combining data from many different molecules gives the best picture of phylogenetic relationships.
Q3) Animals with a body cavity located between the mesoderm and endoderm are ______.
Q4) Animals are multicellular heterotrophs and obtain their food by ________.
Q5) Eumetazoa can be subdivided into two principal branches based on _____.
Page 34
Q6) Nearly all major animal body plans evolved by the _______ period.
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Chapter 33: Noncoelomate Invertebrates
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Q1) Which of the following are not correctly matched?
A)spicules-sponges
B)nematocyst-cnidaria
C)flame cells-flatworms
D)stylets-roundworms
E)scolex-rotifers
Q2) Anthozoan corals are characterized by all of the following except
A)some may have hard calcium carbonate exoskeletons.
B)the coral animals are always found in nutrient-rich waters.
C)some participate in the formation of shallow-water limestone ridges.
D)many harbor symbiotic algae.
E)they are a class of cnidarians.
Q3) Cnidarians are grouped into four or five classes.Which one is not one of the classes of Cnidaria?
A)Ecdysozoa
B)Anthozoa
C)Cubozoa
D)Hydrozoa
E)Scyphozoa
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Coelomate Invertebrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) In arthropods,locomotion is accomplished by muscles that work against A)each other.
B)the exoskeleton.
C)a hydrostatic skeleton.
D)mineralized bones.
E)the pseudocoel.
Q2) Radula modification allowed all of the following functions in gastropods except A)scraping algae off rocks.
B)eating vegetation.
C)boring holes in other mollusk shells.
D)protecting themselves with nematocysts.
E)injecting poison through a harpoon-like structurE.
Q3) Nauplius,a unique kind of larva,is characteristic of A)mites.
B)crustaceans.
C)horseshoe crabs.
D)insects.
E)chelicerates.
Q4) The molluscan class ________ includes the snails and slugs.
Q5) Echinoderms show ______ symmetry as adults and have a five-part body plan.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Vertebrates
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Q1) Which one of the following is not true about tunicates?
A)Adult forms are sessile and filter feeding.
B)Adult forms secrete a tunic composed mainly of cellulose.
C)Adult forms are not segmented.
D)Larval forms show all chordate characteristics.
E)Larval forms feed actively.
Q2) All of the following are true about prosimians except
A)they are big-eyed mammals with increased acuity.
B)they live in trees and have long balancing tails.
C)only two lineages survive today.
D)they are nocturnal.
E)they are widespread.
Q3) Of the species of humans that have evolved,Homo _______ has been the most successful,lasting for nearly a million years and spreading out of Africa across Europe and Asia.
Q4) An animal with a single hollow nerve cord,a flexible rod on the dorsal side of the primitive gut,and pharyngeal slits is a(n)________.
Q5) The four living orders of the vertebrate class _______ include the turtles,tuataras,lizards and snakes,and crocodiles.
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Chapter 36: Plant Form
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Q1) In the annual rings of woody trees,how does the xylem of the Spring and Summer wood compare to the fall and winter wood?
A)It is more dense.
B)It has smaller vessels.
C)The cell walls are thicker.
D)It is younger.
E)The vessel diameters are larger.
Q2) Which statement concerning root hairs is not correct?
A)Root hairs are tubular extensions of individual epidermal cells.
B)A root hair is isolated from its epidermal cell with a cross wall.
C)Root hairs generally live only a few days before being sloughed off.
D)Root hairs increase the absorption of water and minerals.
E)Root hairs are located in the zone of maturation of a root.
Q3) The tissue layers in the middle of a leaf,between the upper and lower epidermis,are called the
A)mesophyll tissue.
B)ground tissue.
C)protoderm tissue.
D)parenchyma.
E)collenchyma.
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Chapter 37: Vegetative Plant Development
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Q1) Plant tissues that contain cells capable of repeated division and are found at the root and shoot apices are called
A)primary growth tissues.
B)secondary growth tissues.
C)ground tissues.
D)meristem tissues.
E)mesophyll tissues.
Q2) Which of the following statements does not describe a characteristic of morphogenesis in plant embryos?
A)Changes in the rate of cell division occur.
B)Many cell divisions occur but the embryos do not increase in size much.
C)Cells expand as they form as a result of turgor pressure.
D)Changes in the planes of cell division occur.
E)Plant hormones influence the orientation of microtubule deposition on the interior of the plasma membranE.
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Chapter 38: Transport in Plants
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Q1) Plants living in standing water often face which of the following problems?
A)increased CO<sub>2</sub> levels
B)chilling of the roots
C)oxygen deprivation
D)loss of stomata
E)harmful root pressure
Q2) Mechanisms that evolved in plants to regulate the rate of water loss do not include
A)becoming dormant during dry times of the year.
B)losing leaves.
C)producing leaves that are thick and hard.
D)containing stomata in crypts or pits.
E)increasing the number of water vacuoles in the cells.
Q3) Turgor is most directly related to the plant cells'
A)total water potential.
B)pressure potential.
C)solute potential.
D)osmosis.
E)gravity potential.
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Chapter 39: Plant Nutrition and Soils
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Q1) Inserting a cloned gene for a certain plasma membrane transporter into crop plants could lead to
A)the ability of a plant to produce its own micronutrients.
B)extra uptake of minerals that would fortify the crop for human consumption.
C)the evolution of nodule-formation on the crop plant.
D)elevated CO<sub>2</sub> levels in the atmosphere.
E)plants taking up enough minerals that they no longer need to photosynthesizE.
Q2) Which of the following is not a plant micronutrient?
A)iron
B)phosphorus
C)chlorine
D)copper
E)manganese
Q3) Required for protein synthesis and operation of stomata.
A)nitrogen
B)calcium
C)potassium
D)phosphorus
E)magnesium
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Plant Defense Responses
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the pathogen-specific response is true?
A)The pathways involved always trigger the hypersensitive response.
B)The pathogen is recognized by its avr gene product.
C)There is never a gene-for-gene response.
D)If the R gene product is not triggered,no disease will occur.
E)Avr and R gene pairs have been cloned in species pathogenized by microbes,fungi,and insects.
Q2) A pathogenic organism's gene that responds to the product of a plant resistance gene.
A)avr
B)HR
C)PR
D)R
E)SAR
Q3) Chemical toxins within plants
A)do not cost much energy to produce and be maintained.
B)are seldom maintained at steady-state levels.
C)are found mostly in the nuclei of the plant cells.
D)are only produced after a wound has occurreD.
E)are specific to certain families of plants.
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Chapter 41: Sensory Systems in Plants
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Q1) Several scientists,including Charles and Francis Darwin,Frits Went and others,demonstrated that auxins caused stems to bend toward light in a series of elaborate experiments.Went was the researcher who finally determined that bending of the stem toward light was a result of which mechanism?
A)Light caused a reduction in auxin concentration and a reduction in stem elongation on the lighted side of the plant stem,and thus a bending in the direction of the light.
B)The transport of auxin to the shaded side of the plant stem stimulated stem elongation and a bending in the direction of the light.
C)Auxin concentration was equal on both sides (lighted and shaded)of the stem;however,the apical meristem responded to the presence of light.
D)A combination of positive phototropism and a negative gravitropism.
E)The stems actually were responding to the agar blocks that had been used in the experiments.
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43
Chapter 42: Plant Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best description of double fertilization in angiosperms?
A)One sperm fertilizes the egg,which develops into the embryo;the other sperm fertilizes the ovary,which becomes the fruit.
B)One sperm fertilizes the egg,which develops into the embryo;the other sperm fertilizes the polar nuclei,which forms the endosperm.
C)One sperm fertilizes the egg,which develops into the embryo;the other sperm fertilizes the polar nuclei,which forms the seed coat.
D)One sperm fertilizes the egg,which develops into the embryo;the other sperm produces the pollen tube.
E)One pollen grain fertilizes the embryo sac;the other sperm fertilizes the pollen grain.
Q2) Ovules are produced in the ovary that is located in the swollen lower portion of the A)anther.
B)stamen.
C)filament.
D)stigma.
E)pistil.
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Chapter 43: The Animal Body and Principles of Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals that allow their body temperature to conform to the environment are termed
A)heterotherms.
B)homeotherms.
C)isotherms.
D)poikilotherms.
E)endotherms.
Q2) Epithelial membranes are not very thick because
A)epithelial tissues cannot support other cells growing on top of the tissue.
B)epithelial tissues are nourished by blood vessels in adjacent tissues,thus diffusion is limited to thin tissues.
C)epithelial tissues can only reach a certain level of thickness because of their pre-programmed cell growth.
D)epithelial tissues that are much greater than a few cell layers in thickness collapse because of drying conditions caused by the environment.
E)epithelial tissues are not able to grow past several cell layers because of an interrupted cell cycle which occurs after several complete cell cycles.
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Chapter 44: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A shift in the membrane potential toward the positive direction and exceeding the threshold causes a(n)
A)resting potential.
B)equilibrium potential.
C)action potential.
D)ion current.
E)electrolyte bias.
Q2) The parasympathetic effects of acetylcholine require the action of A)G proteins.
B)GABA.
C)AMPAR.
D)habituation.
E)synaptic integration.
Q3) For each 3 Na<sup>+</sup> ions pumped outward,the sodium-potassium pump takes in
A)3 Cl<sup>-</sup>.
B)2 K<sup>+</sup>.
C)3 K<sup>+</sup>.
D)2 NaCl molecules.
E)3 water molecules.
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Chapter 45: Sensory Systems
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Q1) Humans who are nearsighted have the image
A)focused behind the retinA.
B)focused in front of the retina.
C)focused on the retina but the image appears blurred.
D)focused within the lens with a shadow on the retina.
E)focused but upside down.
Q2) The sensory structures that enable the brains of most invertebrates to determine the orientation of the body with respect to gravity are called A)carotid bodies.
B)statocysts.
C)Ruffini endings.
D)baroreceptors.
E)interoceptors.
Q3) Stimulus-gated channels respond to stimulation of A)sensory cells.
B)adipose cells.
C)blood cells.
D)intestinal mucosal cells.
E)bone cells.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: The Endocrine System
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Q1) The anterior pituitary gland is controlled by both the hormones secreted by the hypothalamus,and the hormones secreted by itself through a ________ feedback mechanism.
A)reverse
B)sympathetic
C)negative
D)closed
E)positive
Q2) Which hormone is not produced by the anterior pituitary gland?
A)prolactin
B)lutenizing hormone
C)calcitonin
D)growth hormone
Q3) All hormones can be characterized as ________ (fat-soluble)or water soluble.
A)hydrophobic
B)permeable
C)oleophobic
D)lipophilic
E)transmutable
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Page 48
Chapter 47: The Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In arthropods,locomotion is accomplished by muscles that work against A)each other.
B)the exoskeleton.
C)a hydrostatic skeleton.
D)mineralized bones.
E)the pseudocoel.
Q2) Which of the following regarding the Haversian System is false?
A)It keeps osteocytes alive.
B)Haversian canals may contain nerve fibers.
C)Haversian canals run parallel to the length of long bone.
D)It contains the marrow cavity.
Q3) You witness a demonstration of a martial arts master breaking a large concrete block with his hand.Besides mastering technique,what is another benefit of the repetitive practice of breaking concrete.
A)Repetitive stress on the long bones will solidify cartilage.
B)The haversian canal system will supply more blood and strengthen the bone.
C)The repetitive stress on the long bones will be remodeled and strengthened.
D)The marrow cavity will solidify and strengthen the bone.
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Chapter 48: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which digestive hormone inhibits stomach emptying?
A)gastrin
B)cholycystokinin
C)gastric inhibitory peptide
D)secretin
Q2) Which of the following is not a secretion by the pancreas?
A)trypsin
B)chymotrypsin
C)duotrypsin
D)pancreatic amylase
E)lipase
Q3) Excess blood glucose is removed by the liver to convert it into A)cellulose.
B)maltose and other disaccharides.
C)starch.
D)glycogen.
E)all of thesE.
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Chapter 49: The Respiratory System
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Q1) The _______ is a covering over the gills of bony fish.
A)operculum
B)spiracle
C)rostrum
D)papula
Q2) Each breath is initiated by neurons in the "respiratory control center" located in the A)spinal cord.
B)larynx.
C)cerebellum.
D)brain stem.
Q3) The large number of alveoli in lungs improve diffusion by ______.
A)decreasing the distance for diffusion
B)increasing the surface area for diffusion
C)increasing the concentration difference
D)changing the diffusion constant
Q4) During exhalation,the diaphragm ________.
A)contracts
B)relaxes
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Chapter 50: The Circulatory System
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Q1) _________,the liquid portion of blood contains metabolites,wastes,hormones,ions,and a variety of proteins.
A)Eosinophil
B)Lymph
C)Edema
D)Plasma
Q2) Erythrocyte
A)lymphoid stem cell
B)megakaryocyte
C)monoblast
D)reticulocyte
E)myeloblast
Q3) One mechanism that involves the blood supply that can be utilized by some animals to limit heat loss in cold environments is
A)vasodilation of the near surface blood vessels.
B)vasodilation of below surface blood vessels.
C)vasoconstriction of the precapillary sphincters in the skin.
D)vasoconstriction of veins.
E)increasing cardiac output.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Osmotic Regulation and the Urinary System
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Q1) In mammals,the degradation product of purine nucleotides is ____________.
A)urine
B)ammonia
C)nitric acid
D)uric acid
Q2) Marine reptiles eliminate excess salt by means of _____________ located near the nose or the eye.
A)pores
B)tubules
C)salt glands
D)scales
Q3) In comparing the kidneys of marine and freshwater fish which of the following is not true?
A)Marine fish drink greater quantities of water.
B)The flow of the filtrate is faster in marine fish.
C)Freshwater fish fluids have a greater osmotic concentration.
D)Marine fish excrete many of the divalent cations through the anus.
E)The urine is less concentrated in freshwater fish.
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53
Chapter 52: The Immune System
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Q1) Which of the following describes passive immunity?
A)antibodies transferred to the fetus from the mother across the placenta
B)vaccination for polio
C)allowing oneself to become infected with chicken pox
D)vaccination for influenza
E)catching a common cold
Q2) All of the following are defense mechanisms employed by vertebrates except A)specific antibodies.
B)negative test,as in,not finding self-markers.
C)skin and mucous membranes as barriers.
D)positive test to recognize presence of nonself-markers.
E)change in chromosomal composition.
Q3) The ability to digest foreign invading cells is not present in A)macrophages.
B)neutrophils.
C)natural killer cells.
D)T cells.
E)monocytes.
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Chapter 53: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Select the mismatched hormone with its function.
A)FSH in males-stimulates spermatogenesis
B)FSH in females-stimulates growth of ovarian follicles
C)LH in males-stimulates development of male secondary sexual characteristics
D)LH in females-stimulates ovulation
E)Oxytocin in females-stimulates contraction of the uterus and the milk ejection reflex
Q2) __________ stimulates contraction of uterus.
A)LH
B)Testosterone
C)Progesterone
D)Prolactin
E)Oxytocin
Q3) The avoidance of reproduction without giving up sexual intercourse is known as __________.
A)abstinence
B)the rhythm method
C)asexual reproduction
D)contraception
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Chapter 54: Animal Development
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Q1) Which of the following regarding the Spemann organizer is false?
A)The dorsal lip cells directly activate dorsal development.
B)The organizer forms in the area of the grey crescent.
C)The organizer determines the dorsal-ventral axis.
D)Signaling molecules from the organizer inhibit ventral development.
E)The point of sperm entry determines the orientation of the organizer.
Q2) The appearance of the __________ in the developing embryo marked the beginning of the first truly vertebrate phase of development.
A)limb buds
B)heart
C)neural crest
D)gastrula
Q3) In the diagram,which of the following is true?
A)Both diagrams show developmental sequences occurring in the same animal.
B)Both diagrams show blastulas.
C)Diagram II shows gastrulation in a bird.
D)Diagram I shows gastrulation in a frog.
E)Diagram II shows gastrulation in a mammal and diagram ii shows gastrulation in a reptilE.
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Page 56
Chapter 55: Behavioral Biology
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Q1) Which choice best completes the following? Learning that occurs only during a brief period early in life and results in a behavior that is difficult to modify is called A)imprinting.
B)filial imprinting.
C)innate behavior.
D)instinct.
E)operant conditioning.
Q2) Which one of the following is not an example of associative learning?
A)imprinting
B)classical conditioning
C)Pavlovian conditioning
D)operant conditioning
E)cognition
Q3) Eusocial (true social)insects include all of the following except A)honeybees.
B)ants.
C)termites.
D)fruit flies.
E)wasps.
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Population Ecology
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Q1) Organisms with a Type III life history are probably
A)K-selected.
B)r-selected.
C)idiopathiC.
D)at their carrying capacity.
E)subject to low predation rates.
Q2) Organisms such as lizards that need to maintain body temperature through external means do so by
A)shivering to produce heat.
B)sunbathing.
C)swimming in geothermal pools.
D)running frequently to warm up.
E)eating large meals to provide calories for heat production.
Q3) The r-selected populations are characterized by all of the following except A)early age of first reproduction.
B)large brood size/numerous offspring.
C)little or no parental care.
D)short generation time.
E)Type I survivorship curves.
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Page 58
Chapter 57: Community of Ecology
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74 Verified Questions
74 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dynamic processes that are of critical importance in succession involve all of the following except
A)tolerance.
B)facilitation.
C)inhibition.
D)competitive exclusion.
E)disturbancE.
Q2) Which of the following statements about the intermediate disturbance hypothesis is false?
A)The intermediate disturbance hypothesis predicts that most communities eventually reach an end-state or climax community.
B)Intermediate disturbance should lead to increases in species richness.
C)Disturbances tend to lead to the dominance of r-selected species.
D)An example of intermediate disturbance would be a tree fall in a mature rain forest.
E)Intermediate disturbance should lead to all successional stages being present in the community at the same timE.
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59
Chapter 58: Dynamics of Ecosystems
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69 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary consumers are
A)autotrophs.
B)carnivores.
C)decomposers.
D)detritivores.
E)herbivores.
Q2) The form of nitrogen most likely to be absorbed from the soil by plants is
A)nitrogenous wastes.
B)nucleic acids.
C)nitrogen gas.
D)nitrous oxide gas.
E)nitrite/nitrate ions.
Q3) Factors that could determine productivity of an aquatic community include all of the following except
A)nitrogen-fixing bacteriA.
B)seasonality.
C)the number of autotrophs.
D)a limiting nutrient.
E)rainfall.
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Page 60
Chapter 59: The Biosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following would not be different if Earth did not rotate on its axis?
A)westerlies
B)notheast trade winds
C)southeast trade winds
D)descent of air at 30<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> N and 30<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> S latitude
E)coriolis effect
Q2) Most of the ultraviolet radiation reaching the upper atmosphere is absorbed by A)CFCs.
B)ozone.
C)nitrogen.
D)carbon dioxide.
E)water vapor.
Q3) Periodic disturbances in ocean currents by the warming of the waters known as ________ can have profound global influences on world climate.
A)El Niño
B)the intertropical convergence
C)La Niña
D)Trade Winds
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Chapter 60: Conservation Biology
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62 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A small island has stable populations of plants and animals,including one species of hawk as the only predator.The removal of the hawks could cause ____________ for at least a year or two.
A)an increase in the plants
B)an increase in the insects
C)an increase in the small rodents
D)a decrease in the fish
E)a decrease in the plants
Q2) As habitats are fragmented,shrinking in size,a major problem is ______.
A)the edge effect
B)lack of corridors
C)overexploitation
D)introduced species
Q3) A species goes extinct without any clear,single cause.
A)hotspot
B)habitat loss
C)edge effects
D)megafaunal extinction
E)extinction vortex
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