Foundations of Abnormal Behavior Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Foundations of Abnormal Behavior explores the scientific study of psychological disorders, their symptoms, and the factors that contribute to their development. The course examines historical and cultural perspectives on abnormality, major theoretical frameworks, and the processes used for diagnosing mental health conditions. Students will learn about the most common mental disorders, including mood, anxiety, psychotic, and personality disorders, and will consider approaches to assessment, treatment, and prevention. Emphasis is placed on current research, ethical issues, and the impact of social and environmental influences on mental health.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology 17th Edition by Jill M. Hooley
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17 Chapters
2107 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Abnormal Psychology: Overview and Research Approaches
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133 Verified Questions
133 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fact that body piercings are commonplace today while they would once have been viewed as abnormal illustrates that
A) modern society is unlikely to change.
B) what is acceptable for men and women is no longer different.
C) American culture values independence.
D) the values of a society may change over time.
Answer: D
Q2) What is a culture-specific disorder?
A) A disorder seen in all cultures
B) A disorder that is seen universally, but presents itself differently depending on cultural factors
C) A disorder that is a product of cultural stressors
D) A disorder seen only in certain cultures
Answer: D
Q3) Comorbidity means ________
A) that a disorder is often fatal.
B) that a person has two or more disorders.
C) that a person has a more severe form of a disorder.
D) that a person is unlikely to recover from the disorder.
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Historical and Contemporary Views of Abnormal Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The belief in the four humors as a means of explaining temperament ________
A) is inconsistent with a biological explanation for mental illness.
B) has yet to be disproven.
C) proposed different proportions of each humor in each individual.
D) provides that first indication that ancient people recognized the significance of the brain in determining behavior.
Answer: C
Q2) The use of malarial fever to treat paresis ________
A) is an example of the barbaric treatment that mental patients received at the beginning of the twentieth century.
B) proved to be so ineffectual that many professionals abandoned the biological explanation of mental disorders.
C) represented the first clear-cut defeat of a mental disorder by medicine.
D) was the first time scientists used knowledge of brain chemistry to develop specific drugs for treating mental disorders.
Answer: C
Q3) Who was Wilhelm Wundt?
Answer: The man who established the first experimental psychology laboratory.
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Chapter 3: Causal Factors and Viewpoints
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________ are the conditions that guarantee the occurrence of a disorder.
Answer: Sufficient causes
Q2) Defense mechanisms ________
A) make a person feel more anxious and have more problems, because they begin to act defensively.
B) are strategies the id uses to try to achieve what it desires.
C) are conscious, intentional attempts to cope in an effective way with an anxiety producing event.
D) help a person feel less anxious, but because they usually work by distorting reality, they are not always adaptive.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the primary focus of the field of developmental psychopathology?
A) Understanding how critical incidents in childhood affect people as adults.
B) To understand what is within the range of normal development so as to have a better understanding of what is abnormal.
C) To discover and improve the environmental factors that can contribute to a child later developing a mental illness.
D) Understanding how disorders develop over time.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about assessment and professional orientation?
A) Regardless of whether a therapist is behaviorally or psychodynamically oriented, the same basic assessment procedures are employed.
B) The focus of the assessment will be largely determined by the professional orientation of the clinician.
C) While some assessment procedures will vary, a biological screening and administration of a personality test are components of all assessments.
D) The assessment techniques employed will serve to reveal the causal factors that are most consistent with the clinician's orientation.
Q2) The term MRI in assessment of the brain means __________.
Q3) A person comes to a mental health professional with a certain complaint. The professional attempts to understand the nature and extent of the problem. This process is called ________
A) diagnosis.
B) assessment.
C) clinical treatment.
D) screening.
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Chapter 5: Stress and Physical and Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the severity of stress measured?
Q2) Selye ________
A) recognized that both happy and sad life events can be sources of stress.
B) conducted extensive research on the effects of stress on the immune system.
C) failed to acknowledge the role of the environment in adapting to stress.
D) focused on the cognitive component of the stress response.
Q3) People with heart disease are ____ times more likely than healthy people to be depressed.
A) two
B) three C) four
D) five
Q4) During WWII, the descriptors of the traumatic reactions to combat conditions _________
A) emphasized that these were a product of organic processes.
B) placed too much emphasis on physical exhaustion.
C) did not differentiate these reactions from other psychological problems, such as drug abuse.
D) were comparable to what is now called acute stress disorder.
Q5) The biological cost of adapting to stress is called the __________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Panic, Anxiety, Obsessions, and Their Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Repeated stimulation of the limbic system by discharges from the locus coeruleus may lower the threshold for later experiences of anxiety. Then, through learning, controlled by the prefrontal cortex, the person actively avoids fearful situations." This quotation most clearly refers to the biological processes involved in ________
A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B) panic disorder with agoraphobia.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) social phobia.
Q2) Studies of preparedness and social phobia ________
A) find that angry faces act as fear-relevant stimuli.
B) reveal that an explicit perception of threat is necessary to evoke a sympathetic response.
C) do not provide justification for the seemingly irrational nature of social phobia.
D) provide an explanation for why such a maladaptive behavioral response persists.
Q3) __________ are more likely to suffer from social phobia than _____________.
Q4) The basic emotion that involves activation of the "fight-or-flight" response is __________.
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8
Chapter 7: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stressful life events _________
A) do not trigger manic episodes.
B) appear to increase the time to recovery from a manic episode.
C) do not generally precipitate an initial manic episode, but tend to play more of a role over time.
D) play no role in the development or progression of bipolar II disorder.
Q2) Abramson revised the learned helplessness theory to suggest that ________
A) the worldview dimension of attributions is the most important to depression.
B) hopelessness is needed to produce depression, helplessness is not important.
C) the number of negative life events someone experiences is more important than his or her attributions for those events.
D) the pessimistic attributional style people have about negative events produces depression.
Q3) Although bipolar I disorder is described as "bipolar," ________
A) a depressed episode is not necessary for a diagnosis.
B) few patients show both manic and depressed symptoms.
C) both depressed and manic symptoms typically occur simultaneously.
D) a year or two commonly passes between manic and depressed episodes.
Q4) What are independent and dependent life events? What is their importance?
Q5) Describe the hopelessness theory of depression.
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Chapter 8: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of opposite sex alters in DID?
A) They are rare.
B) They are quite common.
C) When they do occur, they usually assume the role of host.
D) They occur most commonly when sexual abuse has occurred.
Q2) Sociocognitive theory ________
A) explains why symptoms of DID are often not seen until after treatment is initiated.
B) explains why the number of alters is usually constant.
C) can't account for the role that trauma appears to play in DID.
D) does not explain the phenomenon of "lost time."
Q3) Discuss two of the causal factors of somatic symptom disorder.
Q4) What is dissociative fugue? Under what circumstances is this disorder likely to develop?
Q5) Unlike the DSM-IV, the DSM-5 includes the description of an external spirit, power, or deity possessing an individual; this is referred to as ______________.
Q6) _____________ is the disorder in which a person has many different physical symptoms from different areas of the body that cannot be explained by medical findings.
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Chapter 9: Eating Disorders and Obesity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Binge-eating disorder ________
A) is an extremely rare variant of bulimia nervosa.
B) is diagnosed when a person binges and then purges by using laxatives or self-induced vomiting.
C) cannot be diagnosed if a person is overweight.
D) involves binges comparable to those in bulimia but without any inappropriate "compensatory" behavior to limit weight gain.
Q2) With all else being held equal, which of the following individuals is most likely to be found guilty in a jury trial?
A) A heavier person who is male.
B) A heavier person who is female.
C) A leaner person who is male.
D) A leaner person who is female.
Q3) In order to make a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, the client must ________
A) have a distorted body image.
B) not meet the criteria for anorexia nervosa.
C) have missed three consecutive menstrual periods.
D) admit that she has a problem.
Q4) What puts whites at higher risk for eating disorders than non-whites?
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Chapter 10: Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common component of cognitive behavioral treatments for antisocial personality?
A) Punishment
B) Relaxation
C) Self-critical thinking
D) Response-prevention training
Q2) Which of the following is true about the connection between psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder?
A) Psychopathy is another name for antisocial personality disorder.
B) While there is overlap, ASPD is broader and psychopathy is more narrowly defined.
C) Psychopathy is a less severe form of antisocial personality disorder.
D) Psychopathy is a more easily treated form of antisocial personality disorder.
Q3) Which of the following is a Cluster B personality disorder?
A) Depressive
B) Schizoid
C) Paranoid
D) Borderline
Q4) What are the two dimensions of psychopathy and the relationship to antisocial personality disorder?
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Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An involuntary reoccurrence of perceptual distortions can occur weeks or months after taking a particular drug. The phenomenon is called ________; the drug is called
A) amphetamine psychosis; amphetamine
B) a flashback; LSD
C) a rush; LSD
D) a blackout; alcohol
Q2) Rosa has been admitted to the hospital and is in acute alcohol withdrawal. She is given the drug _________, which is in a category of drugs that has largely revolutionized the treatment of withdrawal. symptoms.
A) Vitamin B.
B) Narcan.
C) Antabuse.
D) Valium.
Q3) Name and describe the effects of two medications used in the treatment of alcohol dependence.
Q4) Name and describe the two phenomena that are seen when a person has a physiological need for a psychoactive substance.
Q5) What causes alcohol amnestic disorder?
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Chapter 12: Sexual Variants, Abuse, and Dysfunctions
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some personality characteristics of rapists?
Q2) The role of anxiety in erectile dysfunction according to Barlow and colleagues
________
A) has been shown not to exist.
B) actually enhances performance.
C) is less important than the distraction of thinking about it.
D) is the main problem.
Q3) Which of the following is a possible psychological cause of female sexual arousal disorder?
A) Antidepressant medication
B) Reduced level of testosterone
C) Early sexual trauma
D) Lower tactile sensitivity
Q4) Social-skills training is most likely to be used in the treatment of ________
A) pedophiles.
B) rapists.
C) sadists.
D) exhibitionists.
Q5) Is rape motivated by sex or aggression? Explain and provide support for your answer.
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Chapter 13: Schizophrenia and Other Psychotic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "demence precoce" was used by Benedict Morel to describe schizophrenia and to also explain the ________
A) lack of brain damage that characterizes the brain of most schizophrenics.
B) effectiveness of psychological treatments for schizophrenia.
C) transient nature of most schizophrenias.
D) difference between schizophrenia and dementias of old age.
Q2) What is a stressor that has been found to increase the risk of developing schizophrenia?
A) Being an identical twin
B) Being raised in an isolated rural area
C) Being a recent immigrant
D) Living alone
Q3) Harold and Tanya both have a wide range of schizophrenic symptoms. Harold's symptoms have lasted for eight months; Tanya lasted only eight weeks before she recovered. According to the DSM-5, their diagnoses should be _________
A) schizophrenia for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya.
B) disorganized schizophrenia for Harold; schizophrenia for Tanya.
C) schizoaffective disorder for Harold; schizophreniform disorder for Tanya.
D) schizophreniform disorder for Harold; brief psychotic disorder for Tanya.
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Chapter 14: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Q1) The damage that might be caused to the brain by riding a violently fast roller coaster is consistent with ________
A) a closed-head injury.
B) a penetrating head injury.
C) vascular dementia.
D) a series of circumscribed cerebral infarcts.
Q2) The most common cause of major neurocognitive disorder is ________
A) intracranial tumors.
B) severe or repeated head injury.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) drug toxicity.
Q3) When Mrs. Thomason experienced a stroke, a small area of her brain was deprived of oxygenated blood. This resulted in a ________
A) diffuse brain injury.
B) focal brain lesion.
C) psychopathological dementia.
D) diffuse lesion.
Q4) The disturbances associated with delirium tend to develop over a ___________ period of time.
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Chapter 15: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence (Neurodevelopmental Disorders)
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ are the most common types of medications used in the treatment of ADHD.
Q2) Among children, the most commonly diagnosed disorders are ________
A) anxiety disorders.
B) psychotic conditions such as schizophrenia.
C) depression and phobic conditions.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder and conduct disorder.
Q3) Childhood and adult depression differ in what way?
A) Irritability is often seen as a major symptom in childhood depression.
B) Altered eating habits are not seen in childhood depression.
C) Adult depression does not remit without pharmacological intervention.
D) Altered hormone levels are not seen in children.
Q4) For children with mild intellectual disabilities, the best approach to education is likely to be ________
A) home schooling with a tutor from the public school district.
B) home schooling with parents.
C) behavior modification programs at specialized institutions.
D) well-planned mainstreaming in a regular school.
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Q5) Children and youth who experience or are exposed to violence are at _________ risk for developing psychological disorders.
Chapter 16: Psychological Treatment
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Q1) A good example of psychotherapy being used as a guardian of the status quo
A) occurs when psychotherapy is viewed as a set of tools rather than a system of ethics.
B) is when a Rogerian therapist takes a nondirective approach with a client.
C) occurred when psychiatry was used as a means of political control in the former Soviet Union.
D) happens when therapists disregard their therapeutic approach and use whatever technique works for the client.
Q2) Julia has just been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor to treat her depression. What warning should her doctor give her?
A) Stay out of the sun.
B) Avoid foods containing tyramine.
C) Don't try to drive a car.
D) You may have a manic episode.
Q3) What is a token economy?
Q4) What are the key elements of the therapeutic alliance?
Q5) What is a randomized clinical trial?
Q6) What is systematic desensitization, and what is its purpose?
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Chapter 17: Contemporary and Legal Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Q1) The American Law Institute (ALI) standard is also called the __________ test.
Q2) The underlying basis of the insanity defense is ________
A) people who have a mental illness should not be punished.
B) people who have a mental illness cannot ever form the intent needed to commit a crime, so shouldn't be punished.
C) some people who have a mental illness are not able to fully comprehend their behavior, so are not able to form the needed intent for a crime, so should not be punished.
D) even if they had the required intent for a crime, the mentally ill still shouldn't be punished.
Q3) Which of the following is a criticism of the use of token economies?
A) They are ineffective.
B) They are inconsistent with how the real world works.
C) The patient is not an active part of the treatment process.
D) It is inhumane to expect a mental patient to behave in accordance with an established schedule of reinforcements.
Q4) What are the key tasks involved in universal interventions? Why is epidemiological research particularly important to these efforts?
Q5) What principles guide the approach called milieu therapy?
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