Food Science and Nutrition
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Food Science and Nutrition explores the chemical, biological, and physical properties of food and the principles underlying food processing, preservation, and safety. The course examines the nutritional composition of foods, the role of essential nutrients in human health, and the relationship between diet and disease. Students gain insight into current issues in food production, labeling, and regulation, as well as the development of healthier food products. Emphasis is placed on understanding how foods impact human metabolism, dietary requirements across the lifespan, and the importance of making informed food choices for overall well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Food Principles and Preparation 5th Edition by Amy Christine Brown
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30 Chapters
1632 Verified Questions
1632 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Food Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Threshold concentration is the maximum concentration required to detect a substance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The ethnic influences on the American food supply are largely due to our diverse minorities, increased travel, and increasing communication distances.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) consistency
Answer: c
Q4) The first impressions of food are received through the sense of A) smell.
B) sight.
C) hearing.
D) taste.
E) touch.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Food Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a criterion for a general taste panel?
A) chew no gum immediately before testing
B) have not ingested other food for at least 4 hours before testing
C) are nonsmokers
D) are of an equal distribution in gender
E) all of the above answers are criteria for a general taste panel
Answer: B
Q2) Whether or not a person prefers a certain aspect of a food is a focus of effective testing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which instrument or test would be used to observe microorganisms in food?
A) microscope
B) atomic absorption
C) shortometer
D) viscometer (or viscosimeter)
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Food Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following foods are good examples of predominately monounsaturated fats?
A) almonds, pecans, and walnuts
B) peanuts and peanut butter
C) corn and canola oils
D) milk, butter, and cheese
Answer: B
Q2) Hard water contains a greater concentration of calcium and magnesium compounds, whereas soft water has a higher _____ concentration.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) chloride
D) copper
Answer: A
Q3) The human body averages _____ percent water.
A) 20 to 40
B) 40 to 50
C) 50 to 60
D) 60 to 70
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Food Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biological hazards that may cause foodborne illness include all of the following EXCEPT
A) bacteria.
B) molds.
C) viruses.
D) parasites.
E) prions
F)pesticides.
Q2) Which of the following foods is the least susceptible to foodborne illness?
A) foil-wrapped baked potatoes
B) homemade chopped garlic-in-oil mixture
C) bacon cooked to a crisp
D) fresh apple cider
Q3) Which of the following bacteria is facultative and can thrive at refrigerator temperatures?
A) Salmonella
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Yersinia enterocolitica
D) Shigella
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Food Preparation Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mixing methods produces cakes with a fine-grained, velvety texture?
A) conventional sponge method
B) conventional or creaming method
C) pastry-blend method
D) muffin method
E) single-stage method
Q2) Which of the following salt varieties is refined rock salt that is often fortified with iodine and contains additives to prevent caking?
A) sea
B) rock
C) table d kosher
Q3) blanch
A)to add a liquid to the surface of roasting meat to preserve the moistness of the meat
B)to dip briefly into boiling water
C)any compound that enhances the flavor already found naturally in a food
D)a substance that adds a new flavor to food
E)to boil but only partially cook a food
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7
Chapter 6: Meal Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Planning psychologically and physiologically satisfying meals requires a basic knowledge of
A) food preparation.
B) nutrition.
C) presentation strategies.
D) all of the above
Q2) Complex carbohydrates should provide at least _____ grams of fiber per day for healthy women and _____ grams per day for healthy men.
A) 10, 20
B) 20, 25
C) 25, 38
D) 38, 50
Q3) Comparison of food prices is based on A) edible portion.
B) as purchased portion.
C) cost per serving.
D) delivery charges.
Q4) In hospitals, dietitians provide medical nutrition therapy.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Meats
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bones will be identified with the sirloin cut of meat?
A) backbone, rib bone, T-bone
B) arm bone, blade bone
C) pin bone, flat bone, wedge bone
D) round bone, breast and rib bones
Q2) The factor that has the greatest impact on the tenderness of meat is the location of the muscle on the animal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When broiling thick steaks or those to be well done, the door of an electric oven should be left open while a gas broiler door should be left closed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Federal laws require the inspection of an animal carcass that is going to be sold commercially.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Poultry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on current regulations, chicken sold in the United States
A) may come from chickens raised using hormones.
B) may not come from chickens that have been given antibiotics to prevent disease and increase feed efficiency.
C) may not contain additives if marketed as fresh chicken.
D) may bear labels as prescribed by the Food and Drug Administration.
E) may be treated with sodium erythorbate during processing to reduce the risk of foodborne illness.
Q2) The grading of poultry is mandatory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Braising, also called fricasseeing,
A) is a dry-heat cooking method and may be used for any whole poultry.
B) is a moist-heat preparation method of particular value with older, tougher birds.
C) is a process where chicken pieces, such as breasts, are placed in a frying pan and covered with water and cooked until tender.
D) is a steaming process in which the poultry pieces are arranged skin side up, covered with a little liquid, and cooked until tender.
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Chapter 9: Fish and Shellfish
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of invertebrates include
A) crustaceans.
B) bivalves and univalves.
C) cephalopods.
D) all of the above answers are correct
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) Marine vertebrates are sea creatures that
A) get their oxygen from above the water surface or through gills.
B) have shells and siphon water through valves to obtain nutrients.
C) are commercially important to the food supply.
D) are nutritionally superior to other meats.
Q3) The color of fish is darker when the muscle fibers are slow-twitch and the fat content is higher.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A dressed fish is best identified as a whole fish that has A) been left completely intact.
B) had its entrails removed.
C) had its entrails, head, tail, fins, and scales removed.
D) been minced, and then shaped, breaded, and frozen.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Milk
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Sample Questions
Q1) Milk is graded based on
A) bacterial count.
B) fat content.
C) the protein value of raw milk.
D) vitamin and mineral content.
E) the amount of added vitamins and minerals.
Q2) Which of the following factors does not influence the composition of milk produced by domesticated cattle?
A) season of the year
B) type of feed ingested
C) stage of lactation
D) breed
E) none of the above; all influence milk's composition
Q3) Since milk components are rarely added to processed foods, individuals with a milk allergy can usually make food safe choices without reading food labels.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Cheese
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Sample Questions
Q1) Currently the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)requires pasteurization for certain cheeses, but allows the use of raw milk (unpasteurized)to make _____ cheese if it is aged for at least _____.
A) feta; 20 to 40 days
B) Camembert; 40 to 50 days
C) cheddar; 60 days
D) Parmesan; 90 days
Q2) Cheese often browns and darkens during heating because A) of caramelization.
B) of the Maillard reaction.
C) there are too few sugars, amino acids, or lactose in the cheese.
D) all of the above answers are correct
Q3) It is correct to cut the mold off most soft, unripened cheeses as long as you go out one inch from the moldy area.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fat is the single determiner of the melting characteristics of cheese.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Eggs
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Sample Questions
Q1) yolk
A)the nutrient-dense yellow center of the egg that serves to nourish the developing chick
B)the egg white, which accounts for approximately three-fifths of the egg's weight
C)the waxy outer coating of the egg shell that seals the pores and protects the egg from moisture loss and bacterial contamination
D)the membrane surrounding the egg yolk and attached to the chalazae
E)the ropey, twisted strands of albumen that anchor the yolk to the center of the thick egg white
Q2) The air cell develops
A) before the egg is ready to be laid, when the contents begin to contract.
B) between the two shell membranes after the egg is laid and the contents contract with cooling.
C) under the shell at the small end when air is trapped inside and pushes against the contents.
D) within the outer ring of albumen from air trapped in the yolk.
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Chapter 13: Vegetables and Legumes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mealy potatoes are not the best choice for frying because the high sugar content tends to yield dark streaks and poor texture.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Without intercellular spaces, fruits and vegetables would be soft and flaccid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One cup of dried beans usually yields _____ cup(s)of cooked beans.
A) 1
B) 1 to 2
C) 2 to 2 ½
D) 2 ½ to 4
E) 4 to 5
Q4) The flavor of cabbage and onions change dramatically when they are cooked and these changes are due to sulfur compounds.
A)True
B)False
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15
Chapter 14: Fruits
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Sample Questions
Q1) jam
A)a thick and smooth fruit preserve made from long-cooked fruit that is sieved
B)a mixture of fruits (usually citrus, or at least with some citrus) with added nuts and raisins but no sugar
C)a product made from juice of cooked fruit with added sugar and pectin; may be clear if the juice is strained first
D)a preserved fruit product made from ground or mashed whole cooked fruit
E)a preserved fruit product made from the juice with thin slices of fruit and rind
Q2) Which of the following statements is correct regarding enzymes and haze?
A) Cellulase is added to juices to hydrolyze the pectin.
B) Pectinase is added to juices to hydrolyze the cellulose.
C) Glucose polymers are added to juices to reduce haze.
D) Amylase enzymes are added to eliminate haze caused by glucose polymers.
Q3) Bananas contain albedo, which is rich in pectin and aromatic oils.
A)True
B)False
Q4) USDA grading is based partly on the nutritional quality of the ripe fruit.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Soups, Salads, and Gelatins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ingredients that make a cream soup are milk or cream added to a thickened, flavorful purée of meats, poultry, fish, or vegetables.
A)True
B)False
Q2) consommé
A)a broth made from meat and vegetables and then strained to remove the solids
B)a bundle of parsley, thyme, bay leaf, and whole black pepper rolled and tied in a leek
C)a salad dressing consisting of only oil, vinegar, and seasoning
D)a richly flavored soup stock that has been clarified using egg whites
E)a cream soup traditionally made from shellfish
Q3) Stocks should be cooked at _____ for the least cloudy and cleanest tasting stock.
A) a gentle boil
B) a rolling boil
C) a simmer
D) stewing temperatures
Q4) Raw egg white is used to clarify the stock for consommé.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Cereal Grains and Pastas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whole-grain products are a good source of
A) soluble and insoluble fibers.
B) phytochemicals.
C) lignans.
D) phytoestrogens.
E) all of the above answers are correct f. none of the above answers is correct
Q2) The _____ in durum wheat flour gives pasta its elasticity and helps it maintain its shape during cooking.
A) carbohydrate
B) starch
C) protein
D) fat
E) carotenoids
Q3) The germ is rich in fat and is an excellent source of B vitamins and vitamin E.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The bran is not a good source of fiber and minerals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Flours and Flour Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eggs are added to baked products for their nutritional value alone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Yeasts multiply best
A) at temperatures of 68 degrees F to 81 degrees F, while fermentation is optimum at 81 degrees F to 100 degrees F.
B) at temperatures above 140 degrees F.
C) in a salty environment.
D) none of the above answers is correct
Q3) Which of the following flours yields a baked product that has a light and airy texture?
A) buckwheat
B) cornmeal
C) rye
D) soy
E) triticale
F) Wheat
Q4) Baking powder consists of baking soda and an inert filler, cornstarch.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Starches and Sauces
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is the varying _____ content causes that texture differences in starch-containing foods.
A) amylose
B) protein
C) fiber
D) polysaccharide
Q2) Short-bodied pastes that set to very rigid, opaque gels upon cooling are most likely prepared from starch derived from
A) roots and tubers.
B) high-amylase hybrids.
C) cereal grains.
D) waxy hybrids.
Q3) Oxidized starches
A) are more viscous than cross-linked starches.
B) are cloudier than cross-linked starches.
C) are not appropriate for use as stabilizers and emulsifiers.
D) are ideal for dusting foods such as marshmallows because of their powder-like consistency.
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Chapter 19: Quick Breads
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Sample Questions
Q1) Corn bread contains a combination of cornmeal and flour.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Scones
A) are the same as biscuits except that they are cut into different shapes.
B) contain eggs and milk or cream and are richer than ordinary biscuits.
C) contain fat, which is melted before being added to the other ingredients.
D) are kneaded so that a lot of gluten development is created.
Q3) crisp flat breads
A)staple breads of Mexico and Central America made from a grain treated with lime
B)the softer and more pliable of the flat breads made in Mexico
C)the whole-wheat flat bread, made with ghee, typical of Indian cuisine
D)Scandinavian flat breads made without any added leavening
E)unleavened breads that are typical of Jewish cuisine since Biblical times
Q4) Over-mixing of muffin batter creates a muffin with a smooth, peaked top and an interior that is tough and riddled with tunnels.
A)True
B)False
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Yeast Breads
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normally the preparation of yeast bread takes approximately
A) 45 minutes to one hour.
B) one to two hours.
C) two and a half to three hours.
D) three to five hours.
Q2) The bottom of a loaf of bread will sound hollow when tapped if it is done.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During bread dough fermentation
A) the shaped dough is placed in a dry, cool, undisturbed place for rising.
B) the ideal temperature for the dough is approximately 65 degrees F.
C) carbon dioxide is produced while enzyme and pH changes take effect.
D) none of the above answers is correct
Q4) Specialty bread products on the market include "low-glycemic-index" breads, which are
A) low carbohydrate and/or low fiber.
B) low carbohydrate and/or high fiber.
C) high carbohydrate and/or low fiber.
D) high carbohydrate and/or high fiber.
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Chapter 21: Sweeteners
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sweetness of foods is mostly determined by the type and concentration of sugars.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following sweeteners will result in the moistest cake?
A) confectioner's sugar
B) granulated sugar
C) molasses
D) sanding sugar
Q3) Which statement is accurate?
A) One teaspoon of white granulated sugar is 99.9% pure carbohydrate.
B) The main source of simple sugars in the U.S. diet is cakes and cookies.
C) The WHO recommends that 25% or less of kcalorie intake come from sugars.
D) A food whose label states "no sugar added" is sugar free.
Q4) The baking industry relies on crystalline _____ to enhance crust color, texture, and crumb, and to temper the sweetness of sucrose.
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) maltose
D) sugar alcohol
23
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Chapter 22: Fats and Oils
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emulsions are classified on the basis of their tendency to separate on standing and their viscosity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The three stages of _____ involve initiation, propagation, and termination.
A) hydrolytic rancidity
B) oxidative rancidity
C) flavor reversion
D) all of the above answers are correct
Q3) Fats provide satiety because
A) they are digested more quickly than carbohydrates and proteins.
B) they speed up the emptying of the stomach.
C) they slow (delay) the emptying of the stomach.
D) they are less complex molecules than carbohydrates and proteins.
Q4) _____ is an example of a plastic fat.The more _____ a fat is, the more plastic it will be.
A) Hydrogenated vegetable oil, saturated
B) Chilled butter, unsaturated
C) Chilled lard, saturated
D) Hydrogenated vegetable oil, unsaturated
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Cakes and Cookies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using glass pans for baking cakes, baking temperatures should be lowered by
A) 10 degrees F.
B) 15 degrees F.
C) 25 degrees F.
D) 40 degrees F.
Q2) Which of the following cakes must be cut with a "comb" or serrated knife?
A) angel food
B) chiffon
C) devil's food
D) sponge
Q3) When a cake batter stands too long the volume of the final product will be increased.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _____ effect on cake volume is thought to be due to its delaying of starch gelatinization.
A) Egg's
B) Fat's
C) Milk's
D) Sugar's
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Pastries and Pies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When making pastry, _____ may be needed at higher altitudes.
A) less liquid
B) more liquid
C) more fat
D) less fat
E) a harder flour
Q2) Tenderness, in reference to pastry, is
A) the ease with which the pastry may be cut.
B) the degree of brittleness the pastry exhibits when broken.
C) the ease with which the pastry gives way to the tooth.
D) the chewiness of plain pastry.
E) synonymous with flakiness.
Q3) Puff pastry can increase up to _____ times its original size.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
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26
Chapter 25: Candy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Candy contributes primarily _____ and possibly _____ to the diet, depending on the type of candy.
A) fat; protein
B) carbohydrate; fat
C) carbohydrate; protein
D) sugar alcohol; protein
Q2) All of the following are important to producing a crystalline candy with the desired small crystals except
A) controlling the proportions of ingredients.
B) controlling the temperature.
C) pouring or shaping the mix correctly.
D) stirring the mix correctly.
Q3) How is the doneness test determining the "hard crack" stage for candy syrup temperatures described?
A) no water test; the sugar liquefies and becomes light brown
B) syrup separates into threads that are hard and brittle, but do not stick to fingers
C) syrup forms a ball that is hard enough to hold its shape, yet plastic enough to roll out
D) syrup forms a ball that flattens out between fingers
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Chapter 26: Frozen Desserts
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Q1) By law, sherbets must contain
A) less than 5% milk fat.
B) the same milk fat level as imitation ice cream.
C) more than 2% but less than 5% milk fat.
D) less than 2% milk fat.
E) less fat than ice cream but more sugar.
Q2) Ice cream
A) is a colloid food foam.
B) contains an unfrozen liquid phase containing sugars and salts in solution.
C) contains frozen ice crystals and air bubbles surrounded with fat globules and coated with an emulsified protein layer.
D) all of the above answers are correct
E) none of the above answers is correct
Q3) The amount of MSNF is important because it influences ice cream's nutritive value, specifically in terms of A) protein.
B) iron.
C) vitamin E.
D) vitamin C.
E) all of the above answers are correct
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Chapter 27: Beverages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Popular claims in the press include "_____ alleviates stress" and "_____ boosts the immune system."
A) Ginkgo biloba; Saint John's wort
B) Saint John's wort; Ginkgo biloba
C) Ginseng; Kava
D) Echinacea; Guarana
E) Kava; Echinacea
Q2) About _____ percent of the kcaloric intake among Americans is thought to come from high-fructose corn syrup-sweetened beverages.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Q3) Compared to coffee, the caffeine and theobromine content of tea is
A) about the same.
B) greater.
C) less.
Q4) Liquors have added sugar and are at least 50 percent alcohol by volume.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Food Preservation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Irradiation of a food results in disruption of the DNA within the nuclei of cells within that food, including microbial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unless lobsters are kept alive to the very last second before cooking, the proteases cause the
A) lobster to become inedible.
B) tail shell to become purple in color when cooked.
C) tail meat to become mushy when cooked.
D) tail meat to become crumbly when cooked.
Q3) Once they are thawed, the texture of freezer-burned foods is spongy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Canning has been around since the Napoleonic Era.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Modified-atmosphere packaged foods must be aseptically packaged.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Government Food Regulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Food Allergen Labeling and Consumer Protection Act, the word "_____" must appear in the ingredients list if the food contains a protein derived from this food.
A) meat
B) milk
C) oats
D) tomatoes
E) gluten
Q2) For which of the following food components are qualified health claims related to diabetes allowed by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)?
A) B vitamins
B) chromium picolinate
C) calcium
D) 0.8 mg folic acid
Q3) The passage of federal food legislation in the United States started with the Food and Drug Act of 1938.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Careers in Food and Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11570
Sample Questions
Q1) Many graduate students think they will be researchers upon graduation because A) the larger food companies and certain government agencies hire food and nutrition researchers and usually only require a master's degree.
B) the working hours are so flexible and the financial rewards are so great.
C) that is their main focus in graduate school.
D) none of the above answers is correct
Q2) A food-service curriculum is either business or culinary based depending on whether the intended outcomes are management or food preparation orientated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which area of dietetic practice employs the largest percentage of registered dietitians?
A) private practice
B) corporations/nonprofit
C) clinical
D) community
Q4) The word nutritionist is a generic term that has no professional definition.
A)True
B)False
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