First Year Psychology Exam Materials - 7014 Verified Questions

First Year Psychology Exam Materials

Course Introduction

First Year Psychology provides an introduction to the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. This course covers foundational topics such as biological bases of behavior, sensation and perception, learning, memory, motivation, emotion, development, and the principles of psychological research. Students will explore major psychological theories and concepts, gain an understanding of how psychologists conduct research, and examine how psychological knowledge can be applied to everyday life. The course also encourages critical thinking about psychological issues and introduces students to ethical considerations within the field.

Recommended Textbook

Discovering Psychology 7th Edition by

Sandra E. Hockenbury

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70 Chapters

7014 Verified Questions

7014 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Section 1: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Compare and contrast psychoanalysis and behaviorism. Answer: The answer should include the following information: Psychoanalysis emphasized the role of unconscious conflicts in determining behavior and personality. The psychoanalytic theory of personality and behavior was based largely on Freud's work with patients and on insights derived from self-analysis. Freud believed that human behavior was motivated by unconscious conflicts that were almost always sexual or aggressive in nature. Past experiences, especially childhood experiences, were thought to be critical in the formation of adult personality and behavior. Freud believed that unconscious impulses were revealed in everyday life in dreams, memory blocks, slips of the tongue, and spontaneous humor. On the other hand, behaviorism rejected the emphasis on consciousness promoted by structuralism and functionalism as well as Freud's ideas about unconscious influences on behavior since they are difficult to test. For the behaviorist, consciousness and unconscious variables are not usable concepts. Instead, behaviorism believed that psychology should focus its scientific investigations strictly on overt, observable behaviors that could be objectively measured and verified.

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3

Chapter 1: Section 2: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Clinical psychologists:

A)are medical doctors.

B)can prescribe medicine in all 50 states.

C)are trained in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of psychological disorders.

D)can hospitalize clients and order biomedical therapies, such as ECT.

Answer: C

Q2) During the 1960s the movement away from traditional behaviorism and toward the study of how mental processes influence behavior was called:

A)"the cognitive revolution" and was influenced by the development of the first computers.

B)the "third force" in American psychology.

C)the positive psychology perspective.

D)the humanistic perspective.

Answer: A

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Chapter 1: Section 3: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) In his research, Dr. Klein explores how people are affected by their social environments. He is particularly interested in helping behavior, conformity, obedience, prejudice, and aggression. Dr. Klein is a social psychologist.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) René Descartes promoted a doctrine called interactive monism, an idea that the mind and the body are one entity that produces sensations, emotions, and other conscious experiences.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Random assignment helps ensure that potential differences among participants are spread out evenly across all experimental conditions.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 5

Chapter 1: Section 4: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) _____, an approach developed by Edward B. Titchener, became the first major school of thought in psychology.

A)Behaviorism

B)Structuralism

C)Functionalism

D)Psychoanalysis

Q2) Dalpiez conducts research with mice, pigs, and chimpanzees. Dr. Dalpiez's specialization is in _____ psychology.

A)clinical

B)experimental

C)comparative

D)educational

Q3) According to Psych For Your Life: Successful Study Techniques, which of the following studying strategies should you AVOID?

A)Using flashcards.

B)Taking notes on your laptop.

C)Studying while multitasking.

D)Taking notes by hand.

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6

Chapter 1: Section 5: Introduction and Research Methods

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Q1) Psychologists are expected to abide by ethical principles regulating research with human participants; these principles include all of the following EXCEPT:

A)informed consent.

B)deception.

C)confidentiality.

D)compulsory participation.

Q2) The term _____ refers to the tendency to use your own culture as the standard for judging other cultures.

A)ethnocentrism

B)expectancy effect

C)empiricism

D)collectivism

Q3) _____ dominated American psychology for the first half of the twentieth century.

A)Behaviorism

B)Psychoanalysis

C)Humanism

D)Structuralism

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Chapter 2: Section 1: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) What is the primary motor cortex? What is the degree of representation on the primary motor cortex?

Q2) What are the key structures of the midbrain and what roles do they play?

Q3) Assume that you are going to learn a challenging new skill, such as juggling or a complicated video game. According to research presented in your textbook, how long does it take for learning to transfer into structural changes in the brain?

Q4) What are the key structures of the hindbrain and what roles do they play?

Q5) Who was Roger Sperry and what contributions did he make to the understanding of the human brain?

Q6) What are the key structures of the limbic system?

Q7) Identify the four lobes of each cerebral hemisphere and summarize the function associated with each lobe.

Q8) Describe the goals of the Human Connectome Project, the diffusion spectrum imaging technique, and the challenges faced by the Project.

Q9) Distinguish between cortical localization and lateralization of function and give an example of each.

Q10) What are the functions of the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system?

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Chapter 2: Section 2: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Like a key in a lock, the shape of the _____ must fit the _____ to affect the postsynaptic neuron.

A)dendrite; axon terminal

B)cell body; axon terminal

C)neurotransmitter; receptor site

D)synaptic vesicle; receptor site

Q2) The drug called L-dopa:

A)is used to treat people suffering from schizophrenia.

B)blocks pain signals.

C)is found in all sensory neurons.

D)converts to dopamine in the brain.

Q3) Psychologists are greatly interested in the biological basis of behavior. Which of the following questions reflects this interest?

A)Why do people choose specific careers?

B)Why do you get hungry?

C)Why do some people use social media, while others dislike it?

D)Why do people from different cultures have different values?

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9

Chapter 2: Section 3: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) According to one research study that involved participants who learned how to juggle, learning a new motor skill produces physical changes in specific brain structures related to the skill.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An antagonist is a drug or other chemical that binds to a receptor site and triggers a response in the cell.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Diffusion spectrum imaging can produce three-dimensional images of the neural pathways that connect one part of the brain to another.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Black widow spider venom causes the release of dopamine, resulting in muscle spasms.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 2: Section 4: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Psychologist and neuroscientist Roger Sperry is BEST known for:

A)his efforts to debunk the pseudoscientific claims of phrenology.

B)the discovery of neurogenesis in the adult human brain.

C)his studies on split-brain patients.

D)identifying the specific brain areas involved in different forms of aphasia.

Q2) The _____ functions as the main link between the nervous system and the endocrine system.

A)adrenal medulla

B)adrenal cortex

C)amygdala

D)hypothalamus

Q3) The terms autonomic and somatic refer to the two main subdivisions of the _____ nervous system.

A)sympathetic

B)central

C)peripheral

D)parasympathetic

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11

Chapter 2: Section 5: Neuroscience and Behavior

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Q1) Processing somatosensory information is to the _____ lobe as seeing is to the _____ lobe.

A)parietal; temporal

B)frontal; parietal

C)temporal; occipital

D)parietal; occipital

Q2) Michael takes medication that increases _____ levels to help control symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

A)endorphin

B)serotonin

C)GABA

D)dopamine

Q3) Broca is to _____ as Wernicke is to _____.

A)expressive aphasia; receptive aphasia

B)the left cerebral hemisphere; the right cerebral hemisphere

C)structural plasticity; functional plasticity

D)receptive aphasia; expressive aphasia

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Chapter 3: Section 1: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) What properties of a sound wave correspond to our perception of sound?

Q2) Explain what is meant by bottom-up processing and top-down processing. Provide examples of each.

Q3) What is the basic pathway for information transmission from the eye to the brain?

Q4) Discuss the sense of touch including the nature and location of sensory receptor cells.

Q5) Describe and contrast the trichromatic and the opponent-process theories of color vision.

Q6) How are ganglion cells different from bipolar cells?

Q7) What is sensory adaptation and why is it important?

Q8) Define ESP and parapsychology. Identify four different forms of ESP and summarize the research findings on ESP claims.

Q9) Distinguish between sensation and perception.

Q10) Define and describe the process of transduction. Explain how transduction takes place in at least two different senses with specific examples.

Q11) What are pheromones and what evidence is there for the existence of human pheromones?

Q12) Describe the functions of each of the key structures involved in hearing. Page 13

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Page 14

Chapter 3: Section 2: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) What causes nearsightedness, farsightedness, and astigmatism?

A)The blind spot is abnormally large or small.

B)Incoming light signals are not properly focused on the retina.

C)The iris and cornea do not function properly.

D)Accommodation does not take place.

Q2) Flying in an airplane you look out your window and notice that everything on the ground far below looks hazy and blurred. This is an example of which depth perception cue?

A)motion parallax

B)relative size

C)aerial perspective

D)linear perspective

Q3) Pitch is determined by the:

A)intensity or amplitude of a sound wave.

B)decibel level of a sound wave.

C)frequency or rate of vibration of a sound wave.

D)complexity of a sound wave.

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15

Chapter 3: Section 3: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) The results of research presented in the Culture and Human Behavior box: Ways of Seeing, showed that compared to the U.S. students, the Chinese students used a more holistic perceptual style and tended to see and remember object and background as a single perceptual image.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The vast majority of people who are color blind are unable to distinguish red from yellow or blue.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Proprioceptors are special receptor cells in the skin which respond only to pressure.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Conduction deafness, which is caused by exposure to loud noises, cannot be helped with a hearing aid.

A)True

B)False

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16

Chapter 3: Section 4: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) As you walk into your grandmother's home, you catch the whiff of your favorite peanut butter cookies. The process by which the odor of cookies is converted into neural signals that your brain can interpret as the smell of cookies is called:

A)transduction.

B)sensory adaptation.

C)proprioception

D)neuroplasticity.

Q2) The optic disk produces:

A)color vision.

B)night vision.

C)the blind spot.

D)proprioception.

Q3) Research shows that repeated exposure to a particular stimulus leads to increased liking for that stimulus. This is referred to as:

A)the mere exposure effect.

B)psychokinesis.

C)perceptual constancy.

D)sensory adaptation.

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Chapter 3: Section 5: Sensation and Perception

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Q1) Your Pacinian corpuscles are sensory receptors that respond to:

A)barometric changes.

B)pressure.

C)pain.

D)movement.

Q2) While helping his friends move, Ben dropped a box of books on his big toe. The immediate, sharp sensation of pain was carried by _____, while the throbbing pain that lasted for the next few days was transmitted by _____.

A)nociceptors; substance P

B)A-delta fibers; C fibers

C)Pacinian corpuscles; nociceptors

D)C fibers; A-delta fibers

Q3) _____ is the scientific study of paranormal phenomena and ESP.

A)Parapsychology

B)Extrasensory psychology

C)Pseudopsychology

D)Gestalt psychology

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18

Chapter 4: Section 1: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) What characterizes each of the different NREM sleep stages?

Q2) Explain how addictive drugs affect the brain, discussing the physical changes that produce drug tolerance, withdrawal, and craving.

Q3) Describe the perils of multitasking or dividing attention, and provide an example.

Q4) Describe and provide an example of misdirection, inattentional bias, and inattentional deafness.

Q5) How are sleepwalking and sleep-related eating disorders similar? Also explain how they differ.

Q6) Contrast Freud's explanation of the significance of dreams with that of the activation-synthesis model of dreaming.

Q7) How is sleep involved in the formation of memories?

Q8) What situations can produce symptoms of jet lag?

Q9) According to researcher Paul Thompson and his colleagues, MRI scans reveal significant tissue loss in the brains of chronic methamphetamine users. Which areas of the brain were most affected?

Q10) How do patterns of sleep change over the lifespan?

Q12) List four strategies for preventing sleep problems. Page 19

Q11) How do sleep specialists treat obstructive sleep apnea? Give a specific answer.

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Page 20

Chapter 4: Section 2: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Which of the following statements about narcolepsy is FALSE?

A)Sleep paralysis sometimes occurs as the person with narcolepsy awakens from an episode of daytime sleepiness.

B)The onset of narcolepsy typically occurs in early childhood and rarely develops later in life.

C)Narcolepsy is considered a chronic, lifelong condition.

D)The sudden loss of voluntary muscle control and strength that occurs with narcolepsy is called cataplexy.

Q2) Although Audrey had told Lyle before they got married that she was a sleepwalker as a child, Lyle thought nothing of it. But after they had been married for about two years, Lyle discovered that Audrey had started sleepwalking again. But instead of just wandering aimlessly around their apartment, Audrey would often sleepwalk to the kitchen and compulsively eat anything that was sweet-tasting. After consulting a sleep specialist, Lyle learned that Audrey had:

A)REM sleep behavior disorder.

B)a parasomnia called sleep-related eating disorder.

C)a condition called narcolepsy.

D)a parasomnia called sexsomnia.

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Chapter 4: Section 3: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) Narcolepsy is characterized by the sleeper's airway becoming narrow or blocked, which causes very shallow breathing or repeated pauses in breathing during sleep.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Yair failed to notice when his girlfriend Lena got her hair cut because he wasn't paying attention to her hair. Not noticing that Lena cut her hair is an example of inattentional blindness deficit.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The appearance of sleep spindles and K complexes is a clear sign that the sleeper is in stage 2 NREM sleep.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The MOST frequently abused opioid is heroin.

A)True

B)False

Q5) There are two basic types of sleep: REM sleep and NREM sleep.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 4: Section 4: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) The Psych for Your Life section provides a number of tips to help minimize sleep problems. Which of the following is NOT one of those recommendations?

A)Use stimulus-control therapy.

B)Engage in regular daytime exercise.

C)Use depressant drugs, such as alcohol or barbiturates, that cause drowsiness.

D)Develop a consistent sleep-wake cycle.

Q2) Which of the following lists the CORRECT sequence of sleep stages during the first 90 minutes of sleep?

A)stage 1 NREM, stage 2 NREM, stage 3 NREM, stage 4 NREM, REM sleep

B)REM sleep, stage 4 NREM, stage 3 NREM, stage 2 NREM, stage 1 NREM

C)stage 1 REM, stage 2 REM, stage 3 REM, stage 4 REM, NREM

D)wakefulness, drowsiness, dreaming, deep sleep, paradoxical sleep

Q3) The activation of the _____ area(s) in the brain reflect the emotional qualities of dreams.

A)prefrontal cortex

B)limbic system

C)language

D)left hemisphere

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23

Chapter 4: Section 5: Consciousness and Its Variations

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Q1) A lucid dream is a dream:

A)that occurs during periods of sleep deprivation.

B)with very clear content that you can recall in the morning.

C)that is filled with a black and red color scheme.

D)in which you become aware that you are dreaming while you are still asleep.

Q2) Along with attending 18 hours of college classes, Tolek is working full time at his uncle's hardware store. When Tolek complained to a friend about how tired he was all the time, his friend offered to sell him some methamphetamines. "They give you more energy," his friend explained. Tolek has been using the methamphetamines almost daily for the last two weeks. If Tolek continues his chronic use of methamphetamines, he is likely to experience:

A)a significant increase in the number of dopamine receptors and dopamine transporters in his brain.

B)an increase in the synaptic levels of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine because methamphetamines block their reuptake and potentiate their effects.

C)frequent bouts of delirium tremens (DTs).

D)permanent destruction of brain tissue.

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Chapter 5: Section 1: Learning

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Q1) Define learning and conditioning as psychologists use the terms, and give examples of three forms of learning.

Q2) Compare and contrast positive reinforcement and negative reinforcement, and provide an original example of each.

Q3) Who was Edward Thorndike, and what were his contributions to the study of learning?

Q4) Describe a study that shows indirect evidence of mirror neurons in humans.

Q5) Discuss some of the ways that the concept of learned helplessness has been applied to human behavior, and how learned helplessness can be overcome in academic settings.

Q6) What did Skinner and other behaviorists believe should be the appropriate subject matter of psychology? That is, what should we study?

Q7) Define a discriminative stimulus, and give at least two examples of a discriminative stimulus not used in the text.

Q8) Describe at least three strategies that can be used to change behavior without resorting to punishment.

Q9) Explain how the idea of biological preparedness can be applied to human phobias.

Q10) Define instinctive drift, and explain its implications for operant conditioning.

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Chapter 5: Section 2: Learning

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Q1) After buying an electric grass trimmer, Richard changed into his shorts and went out in his bare feet to trim the grass. When he moved the trimmer too close to his leg, the rotating line gashed and cut his ankle. Richard no longer wears shorts or goes barefoot when he uses the grass trimmer. Richard's behavior of dressing inappropriately for gardening has been changed as a result of:

A)punishment by application.

B)punishment by removal.

C)negative reinforcement.

D)learned helplessness.

Q2) Six-year-old Blair liked the first grade right up until her teacher, Ms. Havemayer, took maternity leave. The substitute teacher, Mrs. Snarly, was strict and scolded Blair on several occasions, making her cry. On one Saturday morning as Blair was helping her father with grocery shopping, she suddenly came face to face with Mrs. Snarly. Blair instantly burst into tears. For Blair, Mrs. Snarly in the grocery store is an example of a(n):

A)conditioned stimulus.

B)unconditioned response.

C)unconditioned stimulus.

D)conditioned response.

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26

Chapter 5: Section 3: Learning

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Q1) Classical conditioning was discovered by behaviorist John B. Watson during the experimental research with "Little Albert."

A)True

B)False

Q2) Though sometimes it's a little early or a little late, your mail almost always arrives around 10:30 every morning. As it gets closer to 10:30, you tend to check the mailbox more often. This is an everyday example of a variable-interval schedule of reinforcement.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The law of effect helps to explain how classically conditioned responses develop from pairing a biologically significant UCS with a neutral stimulus.

A)True

B)False

Q4) To enhance the effectiveness of positive reinforcers, you should make sure the reinforcer is reinforcing to the individual whose behavior you want to modify.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Section 4: Learning

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Q1) Pavlov taught a dog to salivate at the sound of a musical tone by repeatedly pairing food with a musical tone. In this example, the food is the _____ and the dog salivating to the food is the _____.

A)unconditioned stimulus; conditioned response

B)unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response

C)conditioned response; unconditioned response

D)conditioned stimulus; conditioned response

Q2) According to psychologist _____ and the _____ perspective, classical conditioning involves learning the relationship between events rather than simply associating two events.

A)Edward C. Tolman; cognitive

B)Martin Seligman; cognitive

C)Robert Rescorla; cognitive

D)John Garcia; evolutionary

Q3) _____ is the application of learning principles to help people learn more effective or adaptive behaviors.

A)Behavior modification

B)Operant training

C)Classical conditioning

D)Discrimination training

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Chapter 5: Section 5: Learning

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Questions

Q1) In his original studies of digestion, Pavlov placed food on a dog's tongue to make the dog salivate. In this situation, the food is a(n) _____ stimulus and the dog salivating is a(n) _____ response.

A)conditioned; unconditioned

B)unconditioned; unconditioned

C)conditioned; conditioned

D)unconditioned; conditioned

Q2) If an action is negatively reinforced, it is _____ likely to be repeated. If an action is positively reinforced, it is _____ likely to be repeated.

A)less; more

B)more; less

C)less; less

D)more; more

Q3) Which of the following advertising techniques is based on classical conditioning principles?

A)a $5.00 coupon toward your next purchase of Brand A

B)the maker of Brand A explaining why the product works so well

C)an attractive model using Brand A

D)people shopping for Brand A

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Page 29

Chapter 6: Section 1: Memory

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Q1) Your textbook lists seven factors that can contribute to the development of false memories. Pick four factors and explain them, giving an example of each.

Q2) Describe schemas and scripts, and explain how they can potentially contribute to inaccurate memories.

Q3) Describe the progression and symptoms of Alzheimer's disease, including changes in the brain.

Q4) Describe at least four strategies that can be used to enhance memory.

Q5) Using what you have learned about memory, explain why multiple-choice, matching, and fill-in-the-blank questions are easier to answer than essay questions.

Q6) Summarize what has been learned about memory from the famous case of H.M.

Q7) What did George Sperling's classic experiment reveal about our visual memory system?

Q8) Identify the role played by at least three brain structures involved in memory.

Q9) Provide a detailed description of a research study by Elizabeth Loftus that demonstrates the misinformation effect, including the results and implications of the study.

Q10) Describe Hermann Ebbinghaus's research and what it demonstrated.

Q11) Identify and describe at least two factors that seem to influence forgetting.

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Chapter 6: Section 2: Memory

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Q1) According to the Psych for Your Life feature, which of the following helps the process of consolidating new memories?

A)sleep

B)alcohol

C)background noise

D)massed practice

Q2) In relation to amnesia, "backward moving" is to _____ as "forward moving" is to _____.

A)anterograde amnesia; retrograde amnesia

B)dementia; Alzheimer's disease

C)retrograde amnesia; anterograde amnesia

D)Alzheimer's disease; dementia

Q3) As James watched Haley wave the 4th of July sparkler back and forth, he noticed that the sparkler seemed to produce a trailing afterimage that faded within a split second. Which type of sensory memory can account for the quickly fading afterimage of the sparkler?

A)echoic memory

B)the déjà vu experience

C)prospective memory

D)iconic memory

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Chapter 6: Section 3: Memory

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Q1) The basic idea of the semantic network model is that activating one concept, such as the word "dog," can trigger the activation of other concepts that are associated with it, such as the words "cat," "hound," or "pound."

A)True

B)False

Q2) For the majority of people, déjà vu experiences involve the common memory processes of absentmindedness and retrieval cue failure.

A)True

B)False

Q3) As Erica watched the small airplane start its engine, she could see the trailing, fading images of the propeller twirling. This is an example of visual sensory memory.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Eric Kandel's research with the sea snail Aplysia demonstrated that memory formation involves functional and structural changes in neurons.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 6: Section 4: Memory

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Q1) During a test of his short-term memory, Tommy was given lists of items to remember. He found the task to be much easier if he grouped the items according to whether they were animals, plants, minerals, and so on. Tommy is using a memory aid called:

A)clustering.

B)the self-referencing technique.

C)chunking.

D)massed practice.

Q2) The famous case of the man known as H. M. illustrates the important role played by _____ in the formation of new memories.

A)the amygdala

B)beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

C)the hippocampus

D)the cerebellum

Q3) Years after H. M.'s surgery, doctors were surprised that he had acquired:

A)atypical Parkinson's symptoms.

B)a full range of episodic memories.

C)some new semantic knowledge.

D)a lifetime of false memories.

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Page 33

Chapter 6: Section 5: Memory

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Q1) In the earliest stages of Alzheimer's disease, the MOST common symptoms are:

A)agitation and moodiness.

B)spontaneous recovery of long-term and working memories.

C)forgetting names of familiar people and the locations of familiar places.

D)misplacing common objects and moodiness, such as one's keys, glasses, or checkbook.

Q2) Short-term memory is also called _____ memory.

A)working

B)semantic

C)episodic

D)sensory

Q3) Focusing on the meaning of information is called:

A)chunking.

B)clustering.

C)maintenance rehearsal.

D)elaborative rehearsal.

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34

Chapter 7: Section 1: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Define heritability and explain heritability estimate.

Q2) Describe at least three suggestions that can enhance your ability to think creatively.

Q3) Can nonhuman animals "think"? Do they consciously reason? Such questions may be unanswerable. Describe the approach that contemporary comparative psychologists take today instead.

Q4) Define the concepts of standardization, reliability, and validity, and explain why they are important requirements for any psychological test.

Q5) Define and discuss creativity.

Q6) Define stereotype threat, and provide an example of psychological research that has demonstrated its effects on test performance.

Q7) Define stereotype lift, and explain how psychological research has demonstrated its effects on test performance.

Q8) Describe the experimental procedure and major findings of Kathleen O'Craven and Nancy Kanwisher's fMRI study of mental imagery involving faces and places.

Q9) Describe and explain the implications of the study by Stephen Kosslyn and his colleagues that involved memorizing locations on a map of a fictitious island.

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Chapter 7: Section 2: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) The Focus on Neuroscience box, "Seeing Faces and Places in the Mind's Eye," reported on an fMRI study of mental imagery. In comparing perception and imagery, the researchers found that:

A)compared to imagining a face or place, perceiving a face or place evoked a stronger brain response.

B)looking at faces activated the parahippocampal place area (PPA) and imagining faces activated the fusiform facial area (FFA).

C)compared to imagining a face or place, perceiving a face or place evoked a much weaker brain response.

D)looking at places activated the parahippocampal place area (PPA) and imagining places activated the fusiform facial area (FFA).

Q2) _____ developed the first systematic intelligence test.

A)Alfred Binet

B)David Wechsler

C)Lewis Terman

D)Louis L. Thurstone

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Chapter 7: Section 3: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) The hallmarks of autism spectrum disorder, according to the In Focus box on neurodiversity, are problems with communication and social interactions with others.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Research has shown that just imagining a face or place activates the same brain region that is activated when a person perceives a face or a place.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Functional fixedness can hamper attempts to solve problems because it prevents people from seeing the full range of potential uses for a familiar object.

A)True

B)False

Q4) According to the In Focus box on neurodiversity, intellectual disability is a condition in which an individual's IQ score is 70 or below.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Section 4: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) Emily is planning a trip to northern Canada in January. She decides to buy the warmest coat she can find, no matter what its cost or appearance. Emily is relying on the _____ to decide which coat to buy.

A)additive model

B)single-feature model

C)elimination-by-aspects model

D)insight and intuition

Q2) When a psychological test is administered to the same group of people on different occasions and it produces very similar scores for each of the participants, it is said to be:

A)reliable.

B)standardized.

C)a "culture-free" test.

D)valid.

Q3) Juliana is equally proficient in both English and Spanish. Julia has achieved:

A)telegraphic speech.

B)bilingual pragmatics.

C)balanced proficiency.

D)bilingual code switching.

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Chapter 7: Section 5: Thinking, Language, and Intelligence

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Q1) In the model of intuition described in your text, Stage _____, the _____ stage, involves conscious, analytic thinking.

A)1, guiding

B)2, integrative

C)3, mental set

D)4, logical-mathematical intelligence

Q2) Research indicates that bilingualism may serve as a protective factor against:

A)Parkinson's disease.

B)bipolar disorder.

C)Alzheimer's disease.

D)schizophrenia.

Q3) A new friend asks you to describe the house you grew up in. You pause and think for a moment. You will need to use _____ to answer her question.

A)intuition

B)mental images

C)an exemplar

D)a prototype

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Chapter 8: Section 1: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Describe how classical conditioning and operant conditioning motivate eating behavior.

Q2) Contrast competence motivation and achievement motivation, and give an original, real-life example of each.

Q3) Describe Abraham Maslow's theory of motivation, and list the qualities that characterize self-actualized people.

Q4) Define self-efficacy, and list some characteristics of individuals who have high and low self-efficacy. Identify different ways to strengthen your sense of self-efficacy.

Q5) Give evidence supporting the idea that facial expressions of basic emotions are innate, and explain how facial expressions are affected by cultural display rules.

Q6) Provide evidence to support the idea that humans may be evolutionarily programmed to overeat when food is abundant.

Q7) Define leptin, insulin, and neuropeptide Y, and compare the mechanisms by which they act as long-term signals to regulate body weight.

Q8) List four factors that contribute to people becoming overweight, and generate an original example for each factor from real life.

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Chapter 8: Section 2: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Sarah is five feet four inches tall, weighs 143 pounds, and has a BMI of 23.1.

Christopher is five feet eight inches tall, weighs 148 pounds, and has a BMI of 22.5.

Andrew is five feet 10 inches tall, weighs 220 pounds, and has a BMI of 31.6. Assuming that none of these people are elite athletes or bodybuilders, which person probably has the highest blood level of leptin?

A)Sarah

B)Christopher

C)Andrew

D)Without knowing when each person ate his or her last meal, it is impossible to tell.

Q2) By the time Austin reached his 25th birthday, he had a weight problem. Since then, Austin has been on several diets, each time losing some of his excess weight. But as soon as Austin stops dieting, he regains the excess weight in a matter of weeks. The phenomenon that Austin, like so many dieters, is experiencing is called:

A)leptin resistance.

B)dopamine resistance.

C)weight cycling.

D)ghrelin resistance.

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Chapter 8: Section 3: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) Research has shown that when people lose weight by dieting, it has no effect on blood levels of the hormone called ghrelin.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Eating is triggered by a drastic drop in blood glucose levels, which are rapidly restored by food consumption.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Although Deci and Ryan's self-determination theory is popular, psychological research has failed to support the basic claims of the theory.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Emotion is a distinct psychological state that involves subjective experience, a physiological response, and a behavioral expression or response.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Section 4: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) According to Paul Ekman, that the human face is capable of creating _____ different expressions.

A)about 20

B)fewer than 100

C)approximately 200

D)more than 7,000

Q2) In collectivistic cultures, achievement motivation tends to reflect:

A)individual goals.

B)an urge to control or influence the behavior of other people or groups.

C)increasing the success or status of one's family or group.

D)the quest for personal self-efficacy.

Q3) Another term for a polygraph test is:

A)lie detector.

B)virtual reality.

C)biofeedback.

D)truth detector.

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43

Chapter 8: Section 5: Motivation and Emotion

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Q1) In a study comparing normal-weight versus obese individuals, researchers found that the obese participants had significantly:

A)fewer dopamine receptors in their brains.

B)lower levels of the neurotransmitter neuropeptide Y (NPY) in various brain areas, most notably the hypothalamus.

C)more dopamine receptors in their brains.

D)higher levels of the neurotransmitter neuropeptide Y (NPY) in various brain areas, most notably the hypothalamus.

Q2) Which three characteristics are commonly associated with motivation?

A)self-fulfillment, self-actualization, and self-efficacy

B)activation, persistence, and intensity

C)autonomy, competence, and relatedness

D)drive, incentive, and arousal

Q3) Measures of achievement motivation are correlated with all of the following EXCEPT:

A)productivity and worker output.

B)relationship satisfaction.

C)job performance.

D)academic success.

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Chapter 9: Section 1: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Describe the major research findings on the effects of aging on cognitive and intellectual abilities in late adulthood.

Q2) Describe Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development as it pertains to adolescents.

Q3) Compare and contrast the views of Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky on the cognitive development of children.

Q4) What cognitive abilities and limitations characterize a child's thinking during the sensorimotor and preoperational stages?

Q5) Describe the function of alleles, specify what the best-known pattern of allele variation is, and give an example to illustrate the concept of dominant and recessive genes.

Q6) How did researchers Alexander Thomas and Stella Chess classify the temperamental patterns of infants? Describe characteristics of each temperamental pattern.

Q7) List and describe factors that can affect the timing of puberty.

Q8) Describe how a zygote develops into a full-term fetus, noting the characteristics of the three stages of prenatal development.

Page 45

Q9) What is the major premise of the activity theory of aging?

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Chapter 9: Section 2: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Russian psychologist Lev Vygotsky believed that cognitive development is strongly influenced by:

A)social and cultural factors.

B)heredity.

C)epigenetic factors.

D)the opportunity to actively explore one's physical environment.

Q2) According to developmental psychologist Jerome Kagan a low-reactive infant:

A)would have difficulty adjusting to loud, busy, or crowded environments.

B)has a tendency to be tense, fearful, and inhibited.

C)is less likely to show curiosity and interest than fear when exposed to new objects, people, or experiences.

D)is more likely to show curiosity and interest than fear when exposed to new objects, people, or experiences.

Q3) Gender schema theory is to _____ as social learning theory is to _____.

A)cognitive categories; reinforcement, punishment, and modeling

B)genetics; environment

C)reinforcement, punishment, and modeling; cognitive categories

D)environment; genetics

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Chapter 9: Section 3: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Epigenetics refers to the study of the mechanisms that control gene expression and its effect on behavior and health.

A)True

B)False

Q2) For the first few months after birth, an infant can distinguish among the speech sounds of all the world's languages.

A)True

B)False

Q3) According to the Focus on Neuroscience box, "Boosting the Aging Brain," aerobic exercise resulted in a 2 percent increase in hippocampal volume in older adults over a 1-year period.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Most developmental psychologists believe that gene expression is primarily influenced by the fixed, master plan, or genetic blueprint, with which people are born.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Section 4: Lifespan Development

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Sample Questions

Q1) Diamond is 12 years old and has just experienced her first menstrual period. Diamond has experienced:

A)spermarche.

B)menarche.

C)atypical puberty.

D)the pubertal spurt.

Q2) Morelli investigates how gene activity is regulated within a cell, including what signals switch genes "on" or "off." In general, she is interested in the mechanisms that control gene expression and its effect on behavior and health. Her area of research is called:

A)genetic mutation research.

B)epigenetics.

C)stem cell research.

D)the human genome project.

Q3) The human genome consists of approximately _____ genes.

A)1,000 to 5,000

B)5,000 to 15,000

C)20,000 to 25,000

D)70,000 to 75,000

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Chapter 9: Section 5: Lifespan Development

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Q1) Anson has an 80-year-old grandfather. Anson wants to make sure his grandfather maintains his cognitive abilities as long as possible. According to Focus on Neuroscience: Boosting the Aging Brain, from which of the following behaviors would Anson's grandfather benefit MOST?

A)taking vitamins and supplements

B)watching stimulating television programs

C)taking at least one daily nap

D)engaging in aerobic exercise

Q2) _____ genes are examples of alleles.

A)Polygenic

B)Stem cell

C)Mutated

D)Dominant and recessive

Q3) According to Piaget, each child:

A)passively acquires information about the world.

B)is born equipped with the tools needed to acquire language.

C)progresses through a series of eight stages of cognitive development.

D)actively tries to make sense of his or her environment.

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Chapter 10: Section 1: Personality

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Q1) What was Freud's personality theory? Describe the personal, historical, and cultural factors that may have influenced the development of Freud's personality theory.

Q2) Describe Karen Horney's key ideas, including her views on Freud's interpretation of female development.

Q3) Cindy recently gave birth to her first child. She unexpectedly went into labor at a shopping mall, and had the baby before the ambulance could arrive to take her to the hospital. Cindy had to endure the pain of childbirth in a strange, stressful environment without any anesthetic. Her baby is now 3 months old, and when people ask Cindy about her birthing experience, she claims that she cannot remember most of that day. In the context of Freud's psychoanalytic theory, what is the likely cause of Cindy's lapse in memory? Will she ever remember this event in full?

Q4) Describe the four major theoretical perspectives on personality.

Q5) What is the Oedipus complex? According to Freud, how is the Oedipus complex manifested and resolved in boys and girls?

Q6) How did Freud describe the structure of personality?

Q7) What personality types did Hans Eysenck describe in his trait theory of personality?

Q8) Describe the primary themes of Alfred Adler's theory.

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Chapter 10: Section 2: Personality

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Q1) Jose is a ninth-grader who dreams of becoming a major-league baseball player. Because of his _____, Jose will probably practice longer and harder than the other players on his high school softball team.

A)trait of conscientiousness

B)extraversion

C)superiority complex

D)possible self

Q2) Because her baby seemed to enjoy putting so many things in his mouth Jessica provided the infant with many different kinds of pacifiers and chewable toys. According to Freud's theory Jessica is running the risk of producing _____ at the _____ psychosexual stage of development.

A)reaction formation; oral

B)the Oedipus complex; genital

C)fixation; oral

D)fixation; anal

Q3) The collective unconscious is to _____ as basic anxiety is to _____.

A)Carl Jung; Alfred Adler

B)Carl Jung; Karen Horney

C)Sigmund Freud; Alfred Adler

D)Alfred Adler; Karen Horney

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Chapter 10: Section 3: Personality

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Q1) A self-report inventory that determines a person's personality type by measuring his or her preferred way of dealing with information, making decisions, and interacting with others, is called the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI).

A)True

B)False

Q2) Hans Eysenck and Raymond Cattell were personality theorists who emphasized unconscious motives in explaining personality and human behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Personality tests are deemed useful if the person who takes the test finds that the results agree with his or her existing self-concept.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Self-efficacy beliefs are strengthened when new skills are mastered, and challenges are successfully met.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Section 4: Personality

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Q1) Which of the following is a strength of the social-cognitive perspective as compared with the other perspectives on personality?

A)It provides insights into unconscious influences, motives, and conflicts.

B)It helps explain many seemingly irrational aspects of human behavior.

C)Its strength is that it works best in controlled laboratory research rather than complicated real life settings.

D)Its key ideas can be operationally defined, measured, and empirically tested.

Q2) According to research on identical twins separated at birth and raised in different families, similarities in personality traits are due to _____, whereas differences in personality traits are due to _____.

A)genetic influences; environmental influences

B)environmental influences; genetic influences

C)emergenic influences; heritability of traits

D)heritability of traits; emergenic influences

Q3) Which of the following is an example of a nonshared environmental influence?

A)socioeconomic status

B)illness

C)parenting

D)neighborhood

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Page 53

Chapter 10: Section 5: Personality

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Q1) Which of the following perspectives on human personality emphasizes the study of individual differences?

A)psychoanalytic

B)social cognitive

C)trait

D)neo-Freudian

Q2) According to Table 10.5 in the textbook, Robert McCrae and Paul Costa, Jr., are key personality theorists associated with the _____ perspective.

A)trait

B)psychoanalytic

C)humanistic

D)social-cognitive

Q3) The successful resolution of the Oedipus complex involves the use of:

A)rationalization.

B)fixation at the oral stage.

C)identification.

D)regression.

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Chapter 11: Section 1: Social Psychology

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Q1) Describe the case of Kitty Genovese. What role did the bystander effect and diffusion of responsibility play in her case?

Q2) Describe the physical, interpersonal, situational, and cultural factors that influence attraction and liking.

Q3) Give two examples of the fundamental attribution error, and explain how it can influence our explanations for the behavior of other people.

Q4) What is implicit cognition, and what is an implicit personality theory? Why do these reactions occur, and how can they potentially lead to faulty perceptions of other people?

Q5) Explain how the fundamental attribution error, the hindsight bias, and the just-world hypothesis contribute to people's tendency to "blame the victim" of misfortune.

Q6) Describe research findings on the use of fMRI scans of people's brains while they looked at photos of physically attractive people, and identify the brain areas that were activated. Also, identify brain areas that are responsive to the reward value of attractive faces.

Q7) Describe the findings of Solomon Asch's research on conformity.

Q8) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of the social categorization process.

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Chapter 11: Section 2: Social Psychology

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Q1) Kitty Genovese was murdered outside her New York City apartment. This tragic event led to intense psychological research on:

A)attribution and attitudes.

B)altruism and prosocial behavior.

C)ethnocentrism and the stereotype threat.

D)blaming the victim and the just-world hypothesis.

Q2) A local television station did an on-the-scene news report about a nearby town that was almost totally destroyed when a tornado ripped through it. Most of the residents lost their homes and possessions. During the newscast, some of the residents made direct appeals to the viewers for help. According to your textbook, the victims of this tragedy are:

A)not likely to receive help because viewers will likely succumb to the "blame the victim" effect.

B)likely to get help because their plight occurred through no fault of their own.

C)not likely to get help because the news show will put the viewers watching it in a bad mood.

D)very likely to get help because the bystander effect and diffusion of responsibility will motivate viewers to do their part.

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Page 56

Chapter 11: Section 3: Social Psychology

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Q1) The Stanford Prison Experiment lasted for six months before it was halted.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The bystander effect refers to the phenomenon in which the greater the number of people present, the less likely each individual is to help someone in distress.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The murder of a young woman named Kitty Genovese became famous when it was reported that 38 people had witnessed her murder but not one of those people intervened to help her.

A)True

B)False

Q4) To quickly evaluate others we rely on automatic, nonconscious thought processes and rarely, if ever, do we use explicit cognition.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Collectivistic cultures often demonstrate the self-effacing bias.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Section 4: Social Psychology

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Q1) The Robbers Cave experiment showed that an effective way to reduce prejudice and tension between members of different groups was to:

A)create a situation in which members of different groups cooperate to achieve a common goal.

B)set up competitive situations in which members of different groups can demonstrate their expertise.

C)provide opportunities for members of different groups to socialize.

D)force members of different groups to have contact with one another in a stressful situation, in this case being trapped in a cave.

Q2) _____ are the "rules," or expectations, for appropriate behavior in a particular social situation.

A)Moral imperatives

B)Context rules

C)Social norms

D)Rules of reciprocity

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Chapter 11: Section 5: Social Psychology

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Q1) The greater the number of people present when someone is in distress, the less likely any one individual is to help. This phenomenon is called the _____ effect.

A)"not my problem"

B)hindsight

C)"Golden Rule"

D)bystander effect

Q2) "I can't believe that people would be so stupid as to build a house on the edge of a cliff like that; it's their own fault they are homeless now," Owen said as he looked at the news footage of the wrecked expensive homes at the bottom of the muddy hillside collapse. Owen's response illustrates an attributional pattern called:

A)the self-serving bias.

B)the fundamental attribution error.

C)blaming the victim.

D)hindsight bias.

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Chapter 12: Section 1: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Define telomeres, and describe how they are affected by stress.

Q2) What kinds of stressors have been found to influence the effectiveness of the immune system, and what are the practical implications of these findings?

Q3) Define burnout, explain the characteristics of burnout, and describe work situations that are likely to lead to burnout, as well as steps that can be taken to prevent burnout.

Q4) Identify and describe what is involved in the stress pathway identified by Hans Selye, and explain the conditions under which this response may be helpful or harmful to physical health.

Q5) Identify and discuss the four strategies, described in the Psych for Your Life box, "Minimizing the Effects of Stress," that help minimize the negative effects of stress, and explain why they are helpful.

Q6) According to the In Focus box: "Providing Effective Social Support," what are the three most commonly studied broad categories of social support? Give original examples of each.

Q7) Health psychologist Shelley Taylor has proposed that women "tend-and-befriend" in response to stress. Define the "tend-and-befriend" response, and explain this phenomenon from an evolutionary perspective.

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Chapter 12: Section 2: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about telomerase is TRUE?

A)Acute, short-term stress produces a positive adaptive effect on telomerase activity.

B)Acute, short-term stress produces a maladaptive effect on telomerase activity.

C)Chronic stress has an adaptive effect on telomerase activity.

D)Chronic stress has a positive effect on telomerase activity.

Q2) Compared to physically inactive people, physically fit people:

A)are less physiologically reactive to stressors and produce lower levels of stress hormones.

B)respond more vigorously to stressful situations because of their heightened physiological arousal due to exercise.

C)pass through the alarm stage of the general adaptation syndrome more quickly.

D)are likely to have higher levels of catecholamines and corticosteroids.

Q3) The general adaptation syndrome, a three-stage progression of physical changes that occur in response to intense and prolonged stress, was described by:

A)Walter Cannon.

B)Robert Ader.

C)Janice Kiecolt-Glaser.

D)Hans Selye.

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Chapter 12: Section 3: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Sample Questions

Q1) Although racism and discrimination can create social problems, they are not significant sources of ongoing or chronic stress for those who are discriminated against on the basis of their race.

A)True

B)False

Q2) In the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the symptoms of the alarm stage reappear, only this time irreversibly; as the body's energy reserves become depleted, adaptation begins to break down, leading to physical disorders, and, potentially, death.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The Daily Hassles Scale was developed by Thomas Holmes and Richard Rahe in an attempt to measure the amount of stress people experience.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Women are much less likely than men to seek out social support during stressful circumstances.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Section 4: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) Brenda forgot to set her alarm clock, overslept, missed her train, and was late to work. When she got to her office, she realized that she'd left the power adapter for her laptop at home. By afternoon, Brenda had a mountain of work on her desk and a tension headache. Brenda's high level of stress:

A)is due to her Type B behavior pattern.

B)can best be explained as the cumulative effect of daily hassles.

C)can best be explained by the social contagion effect.

D)is due to the release of the hormone oxytocin by the adrenal medulla.

Q2) According to Martin Seligman, people who use stable, internal, and global explanations for negative events:

A)have a strong immune system response to stress, with high levels of lymphocytes, T-cells, and helper T cells.

B)have an optimistic explanatory style.

C)are prone to the stress contagion effect.

D)have a pessimistic explanatory style.

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Chapter 12: Section 5: Stress, Health, and Coping

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Q1) When you are confronted with a threatening event, you will experience stress if:

A)the event or situation rates above 75 life event units on the Social Readjustment Rating Scale.

B)you think you are unable to cope with the event or situation.

C)you use external, unstable, and specific explanations for the threatening event or situation.

D)you lack social support.

Q2) _____ is guided by the biopsychosocial model of health, illness, and well-being.

A)Clinical psychiatry

B)Health psychology

C)Psychoneuroimmunology

D)Developmental psychology

Q3) According to Critical Thinking: Do Personality Factors Cause Disease?, which of the following is personality traits is LEAST likely to be associated with poor health habits?

A)high extraversion

B)high sensation seeking

C)low sensation seeking

D)low conscientiousness

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Chapter 13: Section 1: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) Teresa is a 51-year-old mother of three children. Since childhood, Teresa has had difficulties with controlling her emotions and behaviors. Beginning in her teenage years, Teresa started stealing from stores, friends, and family members. Often, the items had little or no monetary value or she had no need for them. For example, she once stole a lint brush from her aunt and boots that were three sizes too large from a co-worker. Friends and family have always been perplexed by Teresa's behavior, wondering why she would hurt and betray her loved ones over such insignificant items. What disorder does Teresa have, and what are the primary characteristics of this disorder?

Q2) Define major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and seasonal affective disorder (SAD), and describe the similarities and differences between these three disorders.

Q3) Discuss the prevalence of cigarette smoking among people with mental disorders, and summarize the key research findings showing a link between cigarette smoking and mental disorders.

Q4) Summarize the research by neuroscientist Paul Thompson and contrast the brain development of normal, healthy teenagers with that of adolescents who have early-onset schizophrenia.

Q5) How does pathological anxiety differ from normal feelings of anxiety?

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Chapter 13: Section 2: Psychological Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Juanita was very upset and distraught at her father's funeral. As his coffin was being lowered into the grave she suddenly experienced heart palpitations, dizziness, and the feeling that she was going crazy. She started to scream and swear, and hit out at those around her, but was immediately comforted and embraced by her family members. Juanita may have experienced a syndrome called _____ that has been reported in many Latin American cultures.

A)ataque de nervios

B)dissociative fugue

C)the delusion of being controlled

D)taijin kyofusho

Q2) In most cases, the disorder called dissociative amnesia occurs as a response to:

A)stress, trauma, or an extremely distressing situation.

B)chemical imbalances in the brain.

C)an overdose of drugs or alcohol.

D)a concussion or other injury to the brain.

Q3) Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

A)reduced emotional expressiveness and speech

B)severely disorganized thought processes and behavior

C)delusions

D)hallucinations

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Chapter 13: Section 3: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) According to the findings of the National Comorbidity Study Replication (NCS-R), only one in twenty adults have experienced the symptoms of a psychological disorder at some point in their lifetime.

A)True

B)False

Q2) According to the catastrophic cognitions theory of panic disorder, a biological predisposition toward anxiety, a low sense of control over potentially life-threatening events, and oversensitivity to physical sensations combine to make a person vulnerable to panic.

A)True

B)False

Q3) When his family finally found him, Michael was living in West Yellowstone, Montana, under the name of Elliot North and working as a short order cook. Michael claimed to have no memory of his previous life as a Dallas psychology professor. Michael appears to display the symptoms of dissociative fugue.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Section 4: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) According to one explanation, dissociative identity disorder:

A)occurs in response to abnormal brain levels of dopamine.

B)represents a way to cope with extreme abuse or trauma that occurred during childhood.

C)is more common among creative artists and writers and represents a form of pathological creativity.

D)is the result of abnormal brain structures, such as enlarged ventricles or overall lower brain volume of gray matter tissue.

Q2) According to the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R), approximately 1 out of _____ American adults has experienced the symptoms of a psychological disorder during the previous year.

A)2

B)4

C)7

D)20

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68

Chapter 13: Section 5: Psychological Disorders

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Q1) According to the information presented in Critical Thinking: Does Smoking Cause Major Depressive Disorder and Other Psychological Disorders?:

A)individuals with multiple psychological disorders have higher rates of smoking and smoke more cigarettes per day than people with one or no psychological disorders.

B)adults with major depressive disorder are less likely to smoke than adults in the general population.

C)smoking is more effective than medication in alleviating the symptoms of depression and anxiety.

D)people diagnosed with schizophrenia are four times less likely to smoke than the general population.

Q2) Research indicates that anxiety:

A)interferes with all aspects of functioning, even in the short term.

B)can be adaptive, helpful, and beneficial when it alerts people to a realistic threat.

C)can cause emotional ups and downs but has little impact on health.

D)generally requires pharmacological interventions.

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Chapter 14: Section 1: Therapies

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Q1) What roles do self-help groups play in helping people with psychological problems? Give an example of a self-help group and describe how it works.

Q2) Compare the impacts of psychotherapy and antidepressant medication on brain function in patients with major depressive disorder. Which treatment is more effective?

Q3) What effects do benzodiazepines produce? What are possible side effects?

Q4) Christopher has been depressed for over six months. He has gained weight, his sleep is disturbed, and he and his wife are discussing divorce. Christopher's self-esteem has declined as a result of his weight gain and marital difficulties. How would Freud and Rogers explain the source of Christopher's problems?

Q5) Using information presented in the Critical Thinking box "Do Antidepressants Work Better Than Placebos?" describe the results from a meta-analysis conducted by Kirsch and his colleagues (2008).

Q6) Describe the psychotherapy techniques that were developed by Sigmund Freud, and explain their therapeutic functions.

Q7) How does psychotherapy differ from biomedical therapy? Are the two always used separately?

Q8) How do short-term dynamic therapies differ from traditional psychoanalysis?

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Chapter 14: Section 2: Therapies

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Q1) Carl Rogers believed that several qualities of the therapist are critical in producing beneficial changes in client-centered therapy. Which of the following is NOT one of those qualities?

A)The therapist should display genuineness by openly and honestly sharing his or her thoughts with the client.

B)The therapist should strive to create an atmosphere of conditional acceptance so that the client is motivated to change his or her behavior to gain the therapist's approval.

C)The therapist should communicate empathic understanding by reflecting back both the content and personal meaning of what the client is saying.

D)The therapist should be nondirective to allow the client to direct the focus of therapy.

Q2) Which techniques did Mary Cover Jones use in her successful treatment of a 3-year-old boy named Peter who had a phobia of rabbits?

A)dream interpretation, free association, and transference

B)observational learning and counterconditioning

C)positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and shaping

D)virtual reality (VR) therapy

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Chapter 14: Section 3: Therapies

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Q1) The trade name drugs Prozac, Zoloft, and Paxil are all classified as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

A)True

B)False

Q2) Free association, transference, and dream interpretation are three techniques that are central to both cognitive therapy and client-centered therapy.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The therapist who uses Beck's cognitive therapy (CT) establishes an atmosphere of collaboration and tries to show clients how to test the accuracy of automatic thoughts, especially negative or upsetting thoughts.

A)True

B)False

Q4) People from a collectivistic culture may not be comfortable with the strong emphasis placed upon individual responsibility and individual needs found in most Western psychotherapies.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Section 4: Therapies

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Q1) You are thinking about entering psychotherapy. It is reasonable for you to expect that your therapist will:

A)share your private thoughts and feelings with other clients and therapists.

B)always support your position.

C)make your decisions for you.

D)challenge how you think and act.

Q2) The basic assumption of _____ therapy is that adaptive and maladaptive behaviors are learned.

A)behavioral

B)psychoanalytic

C)cognitive

D)humanistic

Q3) _____ is a drug that alters mental functions, alleviates psychological symptoms, and is used to treat psychological or mental disorders.

A)A psychotropic medication

B)Marijuana

C)A placebo

D)Oxytocin

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Chapter 14: Section 5: Therapies

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Q1) A commonly seen _____ symptom that occurs in schizophrenia is _____.

A)negative; delusions

B)positive; hallucinations

C)positive; flat affect

D)negative; sensory distortion

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with suicide?

A)flexible thinking and rational beliefs

B)a family history of suicide

C)exposure to cyberbullying

D)presence of a firearm in the home

Q3) Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by:

A)a rigid preoccupation with orderliness, cleanliness, and rituals that interfere with completing tasks.

B)erratic, unstable relationships and desperate efforts to avoid real or imagined abandonment.

C)extreme social inhibition due to feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to criticism or disapproval.

D)pervasive but unwarranted distrust and suspiciousness, and assumptions that other people intend to deceive, exploit, or harm them.

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