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Family Nursing Practice explores the comprehensive care of families as units within diverse healthcare settings. The course emphasizes holistic assessment, health promotion, and disease prevention across the lifespan, recognizing the dynamic structure and function of family systems. Students learn to apply family-centered theories and evidence-based interventions, develop effective communication strategies, and collaborate with interprofessional teams to support families during periods of health, illness, and transition. Cultural competence, ethical considerations, and advocacy are integral components, preparing students to address the unique needs of families and foster resilience and wellness within varied community contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Health Assessment and Physical Examination 5th Edition by Mary Ellen Zator Estes
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1242 Verified Questions
1242 Flashcards
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Q1) The evaluation phase of the nursing process is
A) conducted weekly to monitor the effectiveness of the interventions and progress toward outcomes.
B) carried out when all the patient outcomes are achieved.
C) an ongoing process focused on evaluating the effectiveness of the interventions.
D) a continual process focused on the progress patients make toward achieving established outcomes.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is a disciplined,creative,and reflective approach used together with critical thinking,its purpose being to establish potential strategies to assist patients in reaching their desired health goals?
A) critical thinking
B) clinical reasoning
C) outcomes assessment
D) evidence-based practice
Answer: B
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Q1) When interviewing an elderly patient,all of the following techniques will be helpful,EXCEPT
A) allowing extra time for the interview.
B) scheduling more than one interview.
C) speaking loudly and slowly.
D) interviewing a family member or caregiver as well as the patient.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is planning to give a lecture on the importance of examining a patient for signs of Intimate Partner Violence (IPV).Recognizing that there will be over 100 health care providers attending the lecture,the nurse recognizes that the appropriate distance between herself and the audience would be considered which of the following?
A) intimate distance
B) personal distance
C) social distance
D) public distance
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most effective way to assess the quantity of pain is to ask the patient to
A) describe the pain as minor, moderate, or severe.
B) classify the pain as small, medium, or large.
C) rate the pain on a scale from 0 to 10.
D) compare the pain with pain experienced in the past.
Answer: C
Q2) Two days ago a patient fell while jogging and hurt his left foot.Since then his left foot has remained painful.Which of the following chart entries is documented correctly?
A) Mass the size of an egg on the left ankle.
B) Pain in left foot appears to be worse today.
C) Occasionally takes ibuprofen for pain.
D) Left foot with 2+ nonpitting edema.
Answer: D
Q3) The patient's past health history includes which of the following?
A) childhood illnesses, allergies, alcohol use
B) religion, sexual practice, and surgeries
C) work environment, injuries and accidents, and tobacco use
D) medications, immunizations, and communicable diseases
Answer: D

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Q1) A mother is comparing her child with the neighbor's child who is the same age.The mother is concerned that her child does not have as advanced language skills as the neighbor's child.The nurse assesses the child and determines the language skills are within the range of normal.This nurse would advise the mother that
A) speech develops more rapidly in children with siblings.
B) some children's talents lie in areas other than language skills.
C) the child needs to have a battery of psychological tests.
D) the development of language skills varies greatly in children.
Q2) Which life event or transition is reported to be particularly stressful to toddlers?
A) having more than five siblings
B) personal injury or illness
C) both parents working outside the home
D) illness or death of a cousin
Q3) One of the major tasks of infancy is ___________________,which requires children to give up the breast or bottle,a major source of gratification.
Q4) Most people develop analytical thinking at age ___________________ to ___________________ years.
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Q1) The nurse evaluates a client as being past focused.The client most likely demonstrates which of the following characteristics?
A) revering long-standing traditions
B) tending to be disciplined in scheduling and using time
C) living in the "here and now," perceiving time in a linear fashion
D) willing to defer gratification to ensure he can meet a future goal
Q2) Your grandmother has not been feeling well and expresses to you that her illness is a punishment from God.Your grandmother believes in which of the following?
A) family illness
B) folk illness
C) scientific illness
D) irrational illness
Q3) You ask a patient from Tunisia a question and the patient responds,"yes N'sha'llah" ? The patient's response most likely implies which of the following?
A) Maybe
B) If God is willing
C) If you pray for me
D) If I live a good life
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Q1) It is important for you as a nurse to identify your own spiritual beliefs because A) they will help you identify and understand your own biases and points of view, as well as help you empathize with patients and their decisions based on their own spiritual beliefs.
B) it is necessary to be able to express your views to your patients when doing their spiritual assessment.
C) you will be able to advise patients when dealing with issues of a spiritual nature.
D) you will be able to accept your patients' beliefs and help them even when their beliefs conflict with your personal beliefs.
Q2) The father of a hospitalized child tells the nurse,"She can't have meat.We are Buddhists and vegetarians." The nurse's best intervention is to
A) help the father understand that meat provides protein needed for healing.
B) explain that hospital patients are exempt from dietary rules.
C) ask a Buddhist priest to visit.
D) order the child a meatless tray.
Q3) Solemn and ceremonial acts that reinforce faith are called

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Q1) The toxic effects of steroids include
A) cancer of the thyroid.
B) hypertension and testicular atrophy.
C) joint pain.
D) pathological bone fractures.
Q2) Which statement tells you that your patient is prone to yo-yo dieting or weight cycling to control her obesity?
A) "I tried the grapefruit diet first, then switched to the Scarsdale diet and lost 5 or 6 pounds."
B) "I try to go walking after breakfast and play tennis or swim after dinner each night, but I don't always make it."
C) "Two years ago, I lost 20 pounds with the Weight Watchers program, and now I'm back in the program trying to lose 30 pounds."
D) "I've tried fasting 1 day a week but found that using the sauna is the best for taking off a couple of pounds."
Q3) The three most important nutrients that provide the body with energy are

Q4) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is lack of
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Q1) Hyperresonance,heard while percussing the lungs,is most likely to be caused by
Q2) According to the American Academy of Allergy,Asthma,& Immunology,what percentage of the general population have a latex allergy?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
Q3) Light palpation is useful to gain information about the
A) mobility and consistency of organs and masses.
B) position of organs and masses.
C) presence of large masses or fluid.
D) size and shape of organs and masses.
Q4) Which of the following medical products contain latex? Select all that apply.
A) Syringes
B) Thermometers
C) Wound drains
D) Tourniquets
E) Blood pressure cuffs
F) Rubber stoppers on medication vials
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Q1) Which factor tends to increase the pulse rate?
A) increased blood pressure
B) increased vagal stimulation of the autonomic nervous system
C) pain
D) aging
Q2) Bradypnea,a respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths per minute in an adult at rest,commonly occurs with which of the following?
A) hypoxia
B) stress and anxiety
C) metabolic acidosis
D) decreased metabolic rate during normal sleep
Q3) A weak,thready pulse can be caused by ____________________ shock.
Q4) You are conducting a general assessment of a 6-years-old child.While the child is sitting on the examination table you assess his respiratory rate.You would begin by A) first informing him of what you are doing.
B) counting the number of respirations in 15 seconds and multiplying by 2.
C) counting the respirations while measuring his pulse.
D) placing the stethoscope on his chest so he does not know you are counting respirations.
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Q1) Which of the following practices should be implemented to reduce exposure to integumentary irritants? Select all that apply.
A) Notify HAZMAT officials if a dangerous chemical or toxin exposure occurs.
B) Follow Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and employer's safety guidelines.
C) Use rubber gloves when handling toxins or caustic substances.
D) Follow the directions on the labels of all products; pay special attention to warning labels.
E) Contact a poison control center for treatment guidelines if exposed to toxic or caustic substances.
F) If using a personal care product for the first time, perform a patch test to evaluate for sensitivity.
Q2) Apocrine glands are found primarily in which areas? Select all that apply.
A) Naval
B) Axillae
C) Genital
D) Nipples
E) Neck
F) Rectal areas
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Q1) Your patient's face appears round and swollen with periorbital edema and dry,dull skin.You suspect that she likely has
A) Cushing's syndrome.
B) Graves' disease.
C) hypothyroidism.
D) hyperthyroidism.
Q2) Which of the following best describes craniotabes?
A) abnormal enlargement of the skull and bony facial structures
B) enlargement of the head without enlargement of the facial structures
C) profound state of wasting of the vital tissues that is associated with cancer, malnutrition, and severe chronic illnesses
D) softening of the skull caused by hydrocephalus or demineralization of the bone due to rickets, osteogenesis imperfecta, or syphilis
Q3) The vertebra prominens is found at which level in the human body?
A) C<sub>1</sub>
B) C<sub>2</sub>
C) C<sub>7</sub>
D) T<sub>1</sub>
Q4) A(n)_____________________ headache is an example of a vascular headache.
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Q1) Bilateral protrusion of the globes seen in thyroid disease is called ____________________.
Q2) The opaque material covering the structures inside the eye is called the A) iris.
B) lens.
C) pupil.
D) sclera.
Q3) To examine your patient's corneal light reflex,you would instruct the patient to look straight ahead as you focus a penlight on the patient's corneas from a distance of
A) 2-5 inches away at the midline.
B) 2-5 inches away at the midline and laterally.
C) 12-15 inches away at the midline.
D) 12-15 inches away at the midline and laterally.
Q4) A heavily pigmented,slightly elevated area visible in the iris is commonly caused by which of the following?
A) benign iris nevus
B) hyphema caused by bleeding in the iris
C) iridectomy
D) trauma to the iris during cataract surgery
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Q1) To palpate and percuss the maxillary sinuses,the nurse would do which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Stand in front of the patient.
B) Gently press the thumbs under the bony ridge of the upper orbits.
C) Avoid applying pressure on the globes themselves.
D) Observe for the presence of pain.
E) Percuss the area using the thumb.
F) Note the sound.
Q2) Which portion of the ear has bony and membranous portions?
A) ossicles
B) labyrinth
C) tympanic cavity
D) tympanic membrane
Q3) You would expect a patient who has normal hearing to report which of the following after a Rinne test?
A) hearing the sound longer through air conduction
B) hearing the sound longer through bone conduction
C) hearing the sound louder through bone conduction
D) hearing the sound through air and bone conduction for an equal period of time
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Q1) A breast cancer that results in fibrotic shortening and disablement of the Cooper's ligaments can be manifested in which clinical finding?
A) nipple discharge
B) breast edema
C) eczematous dermatitis
D) dimpling
Q2) An abnormal finding related to the size and symmetry of the breasts is which of the following?
A) enlargement of the breast on the side of the dominant arm
B) nipples pointing upward and laterally
C) significant unilateral reduction of breast tissue
D) supernumerary nipples
Q3) The procedure for palpation of the axillary lymph nodes is to first stand at the patient's right side,facing the patient,and next
A) ask her to flex her head to enhance relaxation of the shoulders and arms.
B) abduct her left arm, using your left hand to relax the axillary muscles.
C) adduct her right arm, using your left hand so that it is close to the chest wall.
D) support her flexed left arm on your left forearm.
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Q1) Pulsations on a patient's anterior chest wall detected by palpation may indicate a(n)
A) large tumor.
B) thoracic aortic aneurysm.
C) obstructed thoracic artery.
D) normal finding.
Q2) Coarse crackles are characterized by crackling or gurgling sounds that A) occur during both inspiration and expiration.
B) mimic the sound caused by rolling hair with your fingers near your ear.
C) cannot be cleared by coughing.
D) result from air passing through moisture in large airways that reinflate.
Q3) The thoracic anatomic landmark at the junction of the manubrium and the sternum is called the ____________________.
Q4) On expiration,the lung is approximately at the level of A) the fifth rib at the midaxillary line.
B) T3.
C) T10.
D) the oblique fissure.
Q5) Pink,frothy sputum is expectorated by patients diagnosed with
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Q1) The mitral area,one of the cardiac landmarks,is located in the A) second intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
B) second intercostal space to the right of the sternum.
C) third intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
D) fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line.
Q2) Potential causes of hyperkinetic pulsations include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Shock
B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Mitral regurgitation
D) Severe Anemia
E) Left-to-right heart shunts
F) Decreased myocardial contractibility
Q3) The lower portion of the heart,called the ____________________,extends into the left thoracic cavity.
Q4) A pulsation in the aortic area,discovered upon inspection,is considered
A) normal, due to blood pulsating against the aortic wall.
B) abnormal, possibly caused by an aortic root aneurysm.
C) abnormal, possibly caused by right ventricular hypertrophy.
D) abnormal, possibly caused by aortic regurgitation.
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Q1) When palpating for the epitrochlear node,you should place your finger pads
A) in the suprasternal notch in the space between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the trachea.
B) in the axillary area between the pectoral muscles and the latissimus dorsi.
C) along the path of the trochlear nerve.
D) in the groove between the biceps and the triceps muscles, superior to the medial condyle of the humerus.
Q2) You plan to inspect and palpate your patient's epitrochlear lymph nodes.You would ask the patient to assume which of the following positions?
A) supine
B) prone
C) sitting
D) standing
Q3) Lymphatics supplement which of the following systems?
A) respiratory
B) digestive
C) endocrine
D) cardiovascular
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Q1) The nurse is evaluating the pain complaints of four clients.Which client does the nurse report to the primary care provider as indicative of peptic ulcer disease?
A) right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain radiating to the right shoulder
B) low, colicky abdominal pain
C) a gnawing epigastric pain relieved by food
D) left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain that radiates to the back
Q2) Muscle guarding,or tensing of the rectus muscles,during expiration indicates A) the patient may be anxious.
B) bulging of the aorta.
C) possible pyelonephritis.
D) possible peritonitis.
Q3) Your patient,a 62-year-old white male whose chief complaint is abdominal discomfort,is jaundiced and has an enlarged abdomen.The patient denies any tenderness after you perform fist percussion over his liver.This finding most likely indicates
A) a normal finding.
B) hepatitis.
C) insensitivity to pain associated with a grossly enlarged liver.
D) obstructed bile ducts.
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Q1) Your client can achieve complete range of motion of both elbows only as you support her joints and without applying manual resistance.How would you record her muscle strength?
A) 4/5, good
B) 3/5, fair
C) 2/5, poor
D) 1/5, trace
Q2) While observing a patient walking,you note that she lifts one foot 1-2 inches off the floor and steps forward approximately 12 inches,shifting her weight from the heel onto the ball of that foot,and continues forward.The patient is erect,balanced,and swings her arms freely in the opposite direction to the movement of her legs.You record that her gait and mobility are
A) normal.
B) abnormal; she lifts her foot too high.
C) abnormal; her stride is too long.
D) abnormal; her arm motion is uncoordinated.
Q3) The function of the tendon is to ______________________________.
Q4) The function of the tendon is to _______________________________.
Q5) The ____________________ membrane lines a movable joint.
Q6) Osteoporosis is the loss of ____________________.
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Q1) The tandem walk is tested by instructing the patient to walk
A) first on tiptoe and then on the heels.
B) with the arms swinging opposite the movement of the legs.
C) hopping first on one foot and then on the other.
D) in a straight line, touching the heel to the toe of the other foot.
Q2) Assessment findings of pinpoint pupils,varied response to painful stimuli,and absent reflexes most likely indicate
A) permanent vegetative state.
B) locked-in syndrome.
C) coma.
D) brain death.
Q3) To perform the Romberg test,you should ask the patient to stand erect with the feet
A) together, and arms at the sides, first with the eyes open and then closed.
B) slightly apart, arms straight out in front, and eyes closed.
C) wide apart, arms at the sides, and eyes closed.
D) together, arms elevated over the head, and eyes open.
Q4) Memory storage and recall are associated with the _____________________.
Q5) The subdural space is located below the ____________________.
Q6) Sensory messages are sent to and from the spinal nerve via ____________________.
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Q1) Your assessment of an 18-year-old,who has not experienced menarche,should include evaluating her for all of the following,EXCEPT
A) eating disorders.
B) intensive athletic training.
C) thyroid disease.
D) premenstrual syndrome.
Q2) If the cervix could not be visualized upon the initial insertion of the speculum,you would close the blades and
A) insert the speculum 2-3 cm farther and check again for the cervix.
B) withdraw the speculum 2-3 cm and reinsert at a slightly different angle.
C) withdraw the speculum and select a larger speculum for reinsertion.
D) withdraw the speculum and select a smaller speculum for reinsertion.
Q3) Pubic hair distribution in a diamond-shaped pattern from the umbilicus that is not associated with cultural or familial differences most likely indicates
A) chronic infestation of parasites.
B) early signs of syphilis.
C) hirsutism resulting from an endocrine disorder.
D) the effects of long-term use of estrogen.
Q4) The urinary meatus is located in the __________________.
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Q1) In light-skinned individuals,a scrotal mass with a bluish discoloration may be caused by
A) accumulation of fluid in the testis.
B) blockage of the efferent ductules of the rete testis.
C) dilated veins in the pampiniform plexus of the spermatic cord.
D) oily, fatty matter secreted by the sebaceous glands.
Q2) Sperm production occurs at approximately age ____________________.
Q3) Your patient complains of sudden onset of swelling and pain in his scrotum.Assessment reveals a swollen scrotum with reddened skin that is taut with pitting.These findings most likely indicate
A) cryptorchidism.
B) epididymitis from gonorrhea.
C) orchitis caused by a bacterial infection.
D) scrotal edema from trauma with possible testicular rupture.
Q4) During the male sexual act,the penis becomes erect when blood fills the corpora cavernosa because of A) sympathetic nerve impulses.
B) increased levels of prostaglandins and testosterone.
C) flow of semen from the epididymis to the vas deferens.
D) dilation of arterioles and compression of veins.
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Q1) You are assigned to a 60-year-old African American patient who has diabetes and arthritis.Your patient is receiving treatment for a recurrent urinary tract infection and today has developed a sudden rise in temperature and complains of rectal pain.You prepare the patient for a prostatic examination.To perform prostatic palpation,you should insert your gloved finger into the anal sphincter with the A) tip of the finger extended at a right angle to the perianal area.
B) ball of the finger toward the posterior rectal wall.
C) ball of the finger toward the left lateral rectal wall.
D) tip of the finger toward the anterior rectal wall.
Q2) The component of prostatic fluid that maintains the osmotic equilibrium of the seminal fluid is A) citrate.
B) prostatic acid phosphatase.
C) prostate-specific antigen.
D) zinc.
Q3) Hemorrhoids result from ____________________ of the superior and inferior hemorrhoidal veins.
Q4) Rectal polyps are most often diagnosed by ____________________.
Q5) The function of the Houston's valves are to retain ____________________.
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Q1) To assess the breast for discharge and protraction of the nipple,you would place A) the fingertips of both hands on each side of the breast and press gently.
B) one hand under the breast for support and gently press with the fingers of your other hand from the outer edge of the areola toward the nipple.
C) your thumb and forefinger on the areola and press inward.
D) your thumb and forefinger on the nipple and gently squeeze.
Q2) Widening of the symphysis pubis produces an unsteady gait known as the __________________________.
Q3) Because of the relaxation of the esophageal sphincter and subsequent reflux,pregnant women commonly complain of
A) constipation.
B) heartburn.
C) increased flatulence.
D) nausea and vomiting.
Q4) Braxton Hicks contractions can begin in the ____________________ trimester.
Q5) A decrease in fundal height resulting from the descent of the fetus into the pelvis is known as ____________________ or ____________________.
Q6) Melasma,or chloasma,is better known as the _____________________.
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Q1) Assessing the rooting or sucking reflexes in the infant also tests which cranial nerve(s)?
A) CN III, IV, and VI
B) CN V
C) CN VIII
D) CN IX and X
Q2) You are caring for a 5-year-old male patient and determine that the child's urethral meatus is located on the dorsal surface of the penis.This location is
A) a normal finding.
B) epispadias.
C) hypospadias.
D) phimosis.
Q3) Swelling over the occipitoparietal region of the skull of a newborn is known as A) caput succedaneum.
B) cephalhematoma.
C) craniosynostosis.
D) craniotabes.
Q4) A cleft palate that involves the uvula,soft palate,hard palate,or a combination,is classified as a(n)____________________ malformation.
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Q1) An 80-year-old man has been experiencing fecal incontinence.Which of the following is the most likely cause of this disorder?
A) denervation of the sensory receptors in the muscles surrounding the rectum
B) increase in the tone of the internal anal sphincter
C) decline in the large bowel transit
D) decrease in intestinal mobility and absorption
Q2) A 70-year-old man presents with a pearly white lesion on his cheek.He tells the nurse that he used to work in the construction industry building houses.The lesion has become itchy and bleeds.What disorder would the nurse suspect this patient has?
A) malignant melanoma
B) squamous cell carcinoma
C) actinic keratosis
D) basal cell carcinoma
Q3) Which finding is abnormal in an elderly female?
A) small, flat nipples
B) granular breast tissue upon palpation
C) bilateral tenderness
D) firm, stringy ductal tissue around the nipple
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Q1) All of the following are contraindications for an adolescent boy's participation in sports,EXCEPT
A) poorly controlled seizure disorder.
B) absence of a paired organ.
C) cardiomyopathy.
D) varicocele.
Q2) After assessing Mr.R's lower extremities,you would prepare him for the next assessment by
A) asking him to bend over the examination table.
B) asking him to stand and lift his gown in front.
C) draping his legs and helping him sit up.
D) instructing him to get dressed.
Q3) A breast examination normally includes checking all of the following features of the breasts,EXCEPT
A) weight.
B) contour.
C) discharge.
D) symmetry.
Q4) Femoral pulses are palpated and auscultated when you are assessing the
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29