Environmental Microbiology Test Bank
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the fundamental roles that microorganisms play in natural and engineered environments. The course examines the diversity, physiology, and ecological functions of bacteria, archaea, viruses, fungi, and protists in habitats such as soil, water, and air. Topics covered include microbial interactions with plants and animals, biogeochemical cycling, bioremediation, and the impact of microbes on climate and human health. By integrating laboratory and field studies, students gain practical skills in detecting, culturing, and analyzing environmental microbes, while considering current challenges and advancements in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Evolving Science 2nd Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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28 Chapters
1959 Verified Questions
1959 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these groups are considered to be microbes but NOT considered to be cells?
A) viruses
B) bacteria
C) archaea
D) protists
E) prions
Answer: A
Q2) The study of and cause of disease in humans, animals, and plants is called:
A) microbiology
B) phylogeny
C) genomics
D) epidemiology
E) forensics
Answer: D
Q3) How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes different?
Answer: A prokaryote lacks a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles, whereas a eukaryote has a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles.
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Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most important property that enables a lens to magnify an image?
A) absorption
B) fluorescence
C) reflection
D) refraction
E) scattering
Answer: D
Q2) Atomic force microscopy measures __________ between a probe and an object to map the three-dimensional topography of a cell.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) covalent interactions
C) van der Waals forces
D) pH changes
E) magnetic interactions
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The increased stability of __________ supercoils in archaea allows them to grow in more extreme environments.
A) extra
B) negative
C) no
D) flexible
E) positive
Answer: E
Q2) Cell membranes are composed of approximately equal parts of __________ and
A) polysaccharides; peptides
B) sugars; amino acids
C) phospholipids; proteins
D) lipopolysaccharides; sugars
E) nucleotides; phospholipids
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes and organism to go through the process of sporulation? How can endospores cause problems in the food industry?
Q2) Which form of transport occurs only in prokaryotes?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) ABC transport
C) siderophores
D) group translocation
E) endocytosis
Q3) __________ are specific nutrients that are NOT required by all cells.
A) Macronutrients
B) Micronutrients
C) Growth factors
D) Trace elements
E) Essential nutrients
Q4) Discuss some disadvantages of viable counts of microorganisms.
Q5) How does Anabaena overcome the challenge of performing both photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation?
Q6) If you determined the number of cells in a sample using viable plate counts and optical density measurements, why would the results from the two different methods be so different?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fastest growth rate for a species occurs at temperatures where a cell's __________ work most efficiently.
A) lipids
B) membranes
C) nucleic acids
D) proteins
E) polysaccharides
Q2) Briefly describe three techniques used to culture anaerobes in the laboratory.
Q3) What is a neutralophile? Neutralophiles were once referred to as neutrophiles. Why is this no longer the case?
Q4) An organism which requires full oxygen tensions of 21% for growth is:
A) aerobic
B) microaerophilic
C) aerotolerant
D) anaerobic
E) facultative
Q5) Give an example of a naturally occurring organic acid stress situation in the food industry. How does the food industry mimic this, and why?
Q6) What is biocontrol? Describe two examples.
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Chapter 6: Virus Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the role that marine viruses play in carbon balance.
Q2) Viruses may be classified by the __________ method.
A) Annapolis
B) Baltimore
C) Orono
D) Augusta
E) Portland
Q3) Which epidemic is NOT virusborne?
A) AIDS
B) bubonic plague
C) polio
D) SARS
E) smallpox
Q4) __________ of viruses are designated with the suffix viridae.
A) Genera
B) Families
C) Species
D) Orders
E) Classes
Q5) What is the advantage of symmetry in viral particles?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is replication of the lagging DNA strand a problem and how is this problem overcome?
Q2) How has the study of metagenomics allowed discovery of so many new species? How is it possible to know about these organisms without being able to grow them in a laboratory?
Q3) Archaea resemble eukaryotes in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) nuclear membrane
B) DNA-packing proteins
C) RNA polymerase
D) ribosomal components
E) DNA polymerase
Q4) Which of the following is NOT involved in the replication termination process?
A) ter sites
B) Holliday junctions
C) XerC
D) XerD
E) DNA ligase
Q5) Describe how the name of a gene and its gene product are denoted.
Q6) How have restriction enzymes revolutionized the field of microbiology?
Q7) Describe three functions of DNA polymerase III.
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ of transcription and translation helps microbes rapidly adjust gene expression to changes in their environment.
A) coupling
B) separation
C) processes
D) slowing
E) pausing
Q2) Peptidyl transferase is present in the __________ ribosomal subunit.
A) 30S
B) 50S
C) 5S
D) 16S
E) 80S
Q3) The "housekeeping" sigma factor in E. coli is:
A) sigma-28
B) sigma-38
C) sigma-54
D) sigma-70
E) sigma-97
Q4) How are folded and unfolded proteins moved from the cytoplasm to the periplasm?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why did Ames modify the test to incorporate treatment of the potential mutagen with rat liver extract?
Q2) Salmonella can conduct interspecies __________ with E. coli.
A) transduction
B) transformation
C) transposition
D) conjugation
E) recombination
Q3) Why is recombination advantageous?
A) It allows cells to use DNA donated by others of the same species to repair their damaged genes.
B) It gives the ability to enhance the competitive fitness of the cell.
C) It is an internal method of DNA repair.
D) A and B
E) all of the above
Q4) When a nonpermissive strain of Salmonella was infected with a P22 phage carrying a tetracycline resistance gene, the Salmonella still became resistant at a high frequency. How did this happen and what suggested this was the case?
Q5) Describe several error-proof DNA repair mechanisms.
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to precisely identify the DNA sequence to which a specific protein binds?
A) sequence analysis
B) gel shift assay
C) DNA footprinting
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) What is an electrophoretic mobility shift assay? What is it used for and how is it performed?
Q3) How is DNA sequence analysis used to study DNA protein binding?
Q4) __________ is a general term to describe the degradation of an organic food source.
A) Metabolism
B) Anabolism
C) Constitutive
D) Catabolism
E) Inducible
Q5) Explain a way that organisms sense and respond to their environment.
Q6) What is diauxic growth and why does this occur?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 60-80% of Americans acquire herpes simplex, usually HSV-1, in epithelial lesions commonly known as __________.
A) chancres
B) pox
C) cold sores
D) shingles
E) hives
Q2) Phage T4 genes are translated using host cell __________ and viral
A) polymerases; ribosomes
B) ribosomes; tRNA
C) tRNA; ribosomes
D) tRNA; polymerases
E) mRNA; tRNA
Q3) Why isn't there a cure or vaccine for AIDS yet?
Q4) How are humans infected with poliovirus? Describe the possible effects of the virus on humans.
Q5) The segmented genome of influenza virus makes virus assembly problematic. How does the assembly mechanism package exactly eight segments correctly?
Q6) How is the poliovirus genome replicated?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Molecular Techniques and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do operon fusions reveal transcriptional control of a target gene?
Q2) Infection of potato crops by the fungus Phytophthora infestans is a constant menace to farmers. A biotechnological approach to prevent the recurrence of such an infestation is:
A) cloning of a wild potato gene that conveys resistance to P. infestans into commercial potato breeds
B) frequently spraying potato plants with fungicide throughout the growing season
C) watering plants with a trickling mechanism to avoid excessive dampness
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) A common approach to study a certain metabolic process is to isolate organisms defective in that particular process. These organisms are called:
A) mutants
B) wild-type
C) prototrophs
D) agents
E) vectors
Q4) What are translational fusions used for? How are they constructed?
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14
Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hans Krebs' strategy to determine the biochemical intermediates involved in aerobic respiration was to use substrate molecules of varying lengths. What led Krebs to take this approach?
Q2) Which of the following phenomena is sufficient to transport nutrients to cells that lack chemotactic motility?
A) active, ATP-dependent transport
B) diffusion
C) turbulent flow
D) quorum sensing
E) none of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the electron donors in bacterial and archaeal metabolism?
A) The use of organic compounds as electron donors is known as organotrophy.
B) Lithotrophy refers to the use of inorganic molecules as electron sources.
C) Light absorption provides electrons to phototrophic organisms.
D) All of the above statements are incorrect.
E) None of the above statements is incorrect.
Q4) Define the human metagenome. Why is it important to study it?
Q5) What is isothermal titration and how does it work?
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Chapter 14: Respiration, Lithotrophy, and Photolysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cytochromes, the heme group plays a key role in acquiring and transferring electrons with a(n) __________ transition.
A) Mg<sup>0</sup>/Mg<sup>2+</sup>
B) S<sup>0</sup>/S<sup>2-</sup>
C) Cu<sup>+</sup>/C<sup>2+</sup>
D) Fe<sup>2+</sup>/Fe<sup>3+</sup>
E) none of the above
Q2) The chemiosmotic model does NOT explain synthesis of ATP in __________.
A) the chloroplast thylakoid membrane
B) the inner mitochondrial membrane
C) substrate-level phosphorylations
D) the purple bacteria thylakoids
E) inner membranes of Gram-negative bacteria
Q3) In some electron carriers, a __________ and __________ offer electrons with relatively narrow energy transitions.
A) dehydrogenase; oxidases
B) heteroatom; peptide bonds
C) metal ion; aromatic bonds
D) none of the above
E) all of the above
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What techniques and technical advances allowed Melvin Calvin to study carbon fixation? Why did he choose the unicellular alga Chlorella?
Q2) __________ and __________ are unique in that they fix CO<sub>2</sub> as their sole carbon source.
A) Organotrophs; iron oxidizers
B) Photoheterotrophs; chemiolithotrophs
C) Photoautotrophs; lithotrophs
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) Cyanobacteria are believed to generate the majority of oxygen gas in Earth's atmosphere. What allows them to produce oxygen?
A) Photosynthesis in which H<sub>2</sub>S is the electron source
B) Photosynthesis in which water photolysis produces H<sup>+</sup>, e<sup>-</sup> and O<sub>2</sub>
C) Bacteriorhodopsin-based photosynthesis
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) Why do some cyanobacterial heterocysts attract heterotrophic bacteria?
Q5) How do ammonium and oxygen regulate the expression of nitrogen fixation genes?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acetic acid results from the reduction of:
A) maltose
B) glucose
C) carbon dioxide
D) ethanol
E) fructose
Q2) Which of the following growth conditions limits abiotic oxidation as well as microbial growth?
A) refrigeration
B) pasteurization
C) ionizing radiation
D) increased oxygen
E) increased carbon dioxide
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of fungal fruiting bodies?
A) They ferment and spoil fruits.
B) They are poisonous to eat.
C) They produce antibiotics.
D) They generate spores.
E) They transfer genes to plants.
Q4) What is pidan and how is it made?
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temperature of water CANNOT drop below freezing and sustain life because:
A) DNA will fall apart
B) nutrient transport systems do not work
C) ATP will become crystalline
D) plasma membrane will freeze
E) enzymatic reactions cannot be maintained
Q2) Which of the following would NOT be considered a species trait based on ecotype?
A) Gram-positive cell wall structure
B) fermentative metabolism
C) Streptococcus structure
D) nucleoid sequence of orthologs
E) psychrotrophic growth
Q3) Which of the following would be considered a gene product of an informational gene?
A) Staphylococcus toxic shock toxin
B) siderophore transport protein
C) hexokinase enzyme for glycolysis
D) O157:H7 attachment pili
E) 16S ribosomal RNA protein
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an extremophile?
A) Bacillus alkalophilus
B) Bacillus thermophilus
C) Bacillus subtilis
D) Bacillus halodurans
E) none of the above
Q2) After reading the news of an E. coli threat in the community, your family and friends ask you, "Is E. coli a pathogen?" What would you answer?
Q3) The following is correct about lactic acid bacteria:
A) Some are aerotolerant, but most are obligate fermenters.
B) They are non-spore-forming bacteria.
C) They use substrate-level phosphorylation to generate ATP.
D) All of the above.
E) None of the above.
Q4) A type of telomeres is found in:
A) rickettsias and mitochondria
B) cyanobacteria and chloroplasts
C) Streptomyces
D) Planctomycetes
E) the phylum Deinococcus-Thermus
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a phylum among the archaea?
A) Crenarchaeota
B) Euryarchaeota
C) Methanoarchaeota
D) Nanoarchaeota
E) Korarchaeota
Q2) Describe some of the environments in which haloarchaea are found. What are the differences in these environments?
Q3) Compare and contrast the supercoiling in hyperthermophilic archaeal species with bacteria and eukaryotes. What is responsible for this feature and what does it accomplish for these archaea?
Q4) What are methane gas hydrates and where are they found? Discuss the idea of benthic mining.
Q5) Which of the following classes contains organisms that are psychrophiles?
A) Thermoprotei
B) Thermococci
C) Thermoplasmata
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q6) Why are hot springs and geysers important habitats for many crenarchaeotes?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of unicellular green algae would be found in which of the following genera?
A) Penicillium
B) Saccharomyces
C) Spirogyra
D) Aspergillus
E) Chlamydomonas
Q2) A patient who presents at the hospital office with symptoms of an irregular heartbeat, inflamed/enlarged heart (cardiomyopathy), and congestive heart failure could be infected with which of the following parasites?
A) Trypanosoma brucei
B) Leishmania major
C) Trypanosoma cruzi
D) Giardia lamblia
E) Plasmodium falciparum
Q3) Give two reasons why geologists could look at foraminiferans to determine potential sites for oil drilling.
Q4) Why are PAD1 and PAD2 important in Trypanosoma brucei infection.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fungi play a much larger and significant role in the decomposition of terrestrial biomass than they do in marine ecosystems. Why?
A) Fungi do not thrive in a marine environment.
B) Fungi out-compete bacteria in terrestrial habitats.
C) Fungi can degrade lignin to form humus.
D) Fungi decompose leghemoglobin rapidly.
E) Fungi degrade human waste faster than bacteria.
Q2) Lichens consist of an intimate mutualistic symbiosis between a fungus, an alga, and/or cyanobacteria. What is the primary role of the cyanobacteria in this association?
A) protection of the symbionts
B) production of photosynthate
C) decomposition of toxic compounds
D) recycling of waste products
E) degradation of lignin
Q3) What does it mean when one says that a particular fluorescent dye intercalates into DNA? Provide an example of how epifluorescence has been used.
Q4) Compare and contrast the photic zones of pelagic and fresh-water lake ecosystems.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Microbes and the Global Environment
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Q1) What would happen if household wastewater was emptied into local receiving rivers without prior treatment?
Q2) Which of the following is CORRECT about micronutrients?
A) They are needed in small amounts and do not need to be cycled.
B) They are sometimes needed in large amounts.
C) Phosphorus is a good example of a micronutrient.
D) Some microbes can grow without them.
E) Their cycling involves changes in oxidation state.
Q3) Which of the following can assimilate Fe<sup>3+</sup>?
A) archaea
B) bacteria
C) haloarchaea
D) fungi
E) all of the above
Q4) The largest reservoir for carbon is the:
A) atmosphere
B) ocean biomass
C) carbonate rocks and subsurface carbon
D) wetlands
E) fossil fuels
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Nonspecific Host Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid organ?
A) tonsils and adenoids
B) spleen
C) appendix
D) stomach
E) bone marrow
Q2) Which of the following should be free from microbes in a healthy individual?
A) nose
B) mouth
C) skin
D) cerebrospinal fluid
E) genitourinary tract
Q3) An organism found on human skin that derives benefit from the host but does NOT harm it is described as a/an:
A) parasite
B) commensal
C) opportunist
D) pathogen
E) mutualist
Q4) Describe two ways by which bacteria resist or evade killing by phagocytosis.
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) X-linked hyper IgM syndrome (XHIM) is an immunodeficiency disorder caused by mutations of the gene encoding CD154. Why is this disease characterized by recurrent infections (starting in childhood) and elevated serum levels of IgM?
Q2) Which of the following could be categorized as an example of humoral immunity?
A) T regulatory cells
B) T helper cells
C) antimalaria antibodies
D) T cytotoxic cells
E) macrophages
Q3) Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune neuromuscular disease characterized by weakness of the skeletal muscles due to antiacetylcholine receptor antibodies; thymectomy is a successful treatment for this condition in some patients because it:
A) removes all auto-reactive B cells from the body
B) primes APC to reverse their response to self tissue
C) neutralizes the autoantibodies from the body
D) produces proteins to bind the autoantibodies before reaching their target
E) prevents further miseducation of T-cell populations
Q4) Why are antihistamines good for allergic rhinitis but NOT for atopic asthma?
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) The toxin gene in Corynebacterium diphtheriae is located on __________.
A) plasmid
B) mobile genes called transposons
C) bacterial chromosomes
D) lysogenic phage genomes
E) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is correct about Salmonella and Shigella?
A) They both produce shiga tox.
B) They are Gram-positive rods.
C) They are resistant to the gastric acid kill.
D) They cause typhoid fever.
E) They are facultative intracellular pathogens.
Q3) What do the anthrax, E. coli, cholera, and Bordetella toxins have in common?
A) inhibit of protein synthesis
B) possess ADP ribisytransferase activity
C) cause diarrhea
D) disrupt cell membrane
E) trigger apoptosis
Q4) Briefly describe three classic modes of action of bacterial toxins.
Q5) Define a fomite and give at least two examples.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) What is the reservoir for Trichomonas vaginalis? Explain how it causes disease in the acidic vagina of females.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT pertain to influenza disease?
A) It is caused by the RNA enveloped influenza virus.
B) It is not typically treated with antibiotics.
C) It is common around the world.
D) Runny nose is a characteristic symptom.
E) Direct transmission and fomites play significant roles in its spread.
Q3) Why is Yersinia pestis, the causative agent of bubonic plague, considered a potential biowarfare agent?
A) The bacteria is readily available in Europe.
B) There is no effective antibiotic against it.
C) It is readily introduced into the human population by mosquitoes.
D) Pneumonic plague is highly communicable with a high mortality rate.
E) The bacterium forms long-lasting endospores.
Q4) Why does one person have repeated infections with N. gonorrhoea?
Q5) Explain the mechanism by which meningococci get to the brain and spinal fluid to cause disease.
Q6) What is a multivalent vaccine? Give examples.
Q7) Why do you think most urinary tract infections occur in women?
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Q1) Influenza envelope neuraminidase (NA) viral spike protein allows the virus to:
A) escape from antibiotics
B) acidify the endocytic chamber
C) release new virions from an infected host cell
D) bind to host cell glycoproteins
E) undergo viral membrane fusion
Q2) Compare and contrast the utility of the antibiotic polymyxin vs. cephalosporins in clearing up an Escherichia coli skin infection that has become systemic?
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be considered a way to fight bacterial resistance?
A) creating molecules without antibiotic activity that can compete and bind antibiotic resistance enzymes
B) increase the amount of antibiotics in our foods to prevent foodborne infection
C) alter the structure of antibiotics to sterically hinder the binding of antibiotic resistance enzymes
D) link different antibiotics together forming hybrid antibiotics with dual action/targets
E) administer antibiotics more prudently when possible
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) Chocolate agar is considered __________ in comparison to blood agar.
A) more nutrient rich (capable of growing greater variety of bacteria)
B) less nutrient rich (capable of growing less variety of bacteria)
C) equally nutrient rich (since they both contain red blood cells)
D) a chemically-defined media (whereas blood agar is not)
E) better for determining hemolytic bacterial reactions
Q2) A Gram-negative diplococcus result on laboratory testing would rule out all of the following bacteria EXCEPT:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Escherichia coli
Q3) Of the following body sites, which could contain microbes in a healthy individual?
A) blood
B) urine
C) cerebrospinal fluid
D) nasopharynx
E) bladder
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