Environmental Microbiology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the roles, diversity, and activities of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments. This course examines microbial interactions within soil, water, and air ecosystems, emphasizing processes such as nutrient cycling, bioremediation, and the impact of microbes on environmental health and pollution control. Students will gain an understanding of the methodologies used to detect, quantify, and analyze microbial populations and their functions in the environment, as well as the application of microbial solutions to address current environmental challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 2nd Edition by Dave Wessner
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24 Chapters
1617 Verified Questions
1617 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these are key factors in explaining the similarity between death rates in the world versus sub-Saharan Africa in the 1930s? (Select all that apply)
A)Global unavailability of effective antibiotics
B)Poverty of nations
C)Political instability
D)Lack of sanitation
E)Global unavailability of vaccines for endemic diseases
Answer: A,E
Q2) Viruses may be considered non-living for all of the following reasons EXCEPT that they: (Select all that apply)
A)need a host cell for replication.
B)are metabolically inert.
C)possess DNA that can evolve.
D)do not maintain internal homeostasis.
E)possess receptors which facilitate entry into cells
Answer: A,C,D
Q3) Macromolecules that catalyze chemical reactions in the cell are called
Answer: enzymes
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bacterial chromosome is a highly condensed structure that is tightly wound up around itself to fit into the bacterial cell.What is the main enzyme responsible for condensing the DNA?
A)DNA polymerase
B)DNA ligase
C)DNA topoisomerase
D)DNA endonuclease
E)DNA synthetase
Answer: C
Q2) The proton motive force (PMF)across a cell membrane can be used for which of these processes?
A)Generate ATP.
B)Propel the flagella.
C)symport
D)antiport
E)lowering pH outside the cell membrane
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q3) _______ motility is used by myxobacteria and some cyanobacteria for smooth movement across a solid surface.
Answer: Gliding
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Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these diseases is caused by Entamoeba histolytica?
A)severe dysentery
B)malaria
C)pneumonia
D)tuberculosis
E)African sleeping sickness
Answer: A
Q2) A protein produced in the rough endoplasmic reticulum has the amino acid sequence KKKRK in a central position.What is the destination of this protein?
A)Golgi apparatus
B)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)Mitochondrion
D)Nucleus
E)Lysosome
Answer: D
Q3) Eukaryal microbes called amitochondriates lack mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins of extreme halophiles contain high amounts of the amino acids _____ and ____ to help stabilize them in high salt environments.
A)arginine,valine
B)aspartate,glutamate
C)glycine,serine
D)histidine,arginine
E)tyrosine,phenylalanine
Q2) You would be able to find methanogens in all of the following environments EXCEPT:
A)the rumen of bovines.
B)the bottom of a swamp.
C)a well aerated aquifer.
D)sediments from a freshwater lake.
E)the benthic region of the ocean.
Q3) The Archaea contain a cytoskeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All members of the Archaea domain contain a cell wall.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial strain that contains a phage genome integrated into its chromosome is called a _________.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a nucleocytoplasmic large DNA virus?
A)Herpes virus
B)Mimivirus
C)Chickenpox virus
D)Smallpox virus
E)Influenza virus
Q3) Which viral vector would seem most suitable for use in gene therapy to correct cystic fibrosis based upon tissue infectivity?
A)Herpesvirus
B)Reovirus
C)Poliovirus
D)SV40
E)None is suitable
Q4) A bigger discrepancy between direct count and PFU estimates of virion numbers might be expected for influenza virus than for herpes virus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Term for microbes that grow optimally at very high salt concentrations.
A)osmolphiles
B)barophiles
C)halophiles
D)psychrophiles
E)thermophiles
Q2) To thrive on a selective medium,a microbe will usually possess: (Select all that apply)
A)Salt tolerance
B)Prototrophic capability
C)Anaerobic capability
D)Acid tolerance
E)Ability to metabolize an unusual nutrient
Q3) To eliminate all viruses by filtration,what is the maximum pore size that will be effective?
A)0.45 um
B)0.2 um
C)0.1 um
D)0.05 um
E)0.01 um
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basic proteins that help to package the DNA in eukaryal cells are called ________.
Q2) The main differences between Bacteria and Archaea chromosomal DNA when compared to Eukarya chromosomal DNA,is that the Bacteria or Archaea chromosome usually:
A)is circular while Eukarya is linear.
B)is diploid while Eukarya is haploid.
C)consist of several chromosomes while Eukarya has a single chromosome.
D)contains the base uracil while Eukarya has thymine in place of uracil.
E)is found in a non-condensed form while Eukarya DNA is highly condensed and packaged.
Q3) Which of these is a term for a point mutation that results in a change in the amino acid specificity of the codon?
A)frameshift
B)silent
C)nonsense
D)missense
E)amber
Q4) The -10 element of the bacterial promoter is also referred to as the _______
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The viral attachment protein specifically binds to a host cell receptor.All of the following are examples of known host cell receptors except A)DNA.
B)proteins.
C)glycoproteins.
D)lipopolysaccharides.
E)sialic acids.
Q2) HIV enters the cell through a/an _________ mechanism.
A)phagocytic
B)receptor-mediated endocytotic
C)membrane fusion
D)acid-dependent endosomal
E)receptor-independent endocytotic
Q3) The Baltimore classification scheme for viruses divides all viruses into seven groups based on
A)their shape and host.
B)host and presence or absence of an envelope.
C)how they produce mRNA and replicate their genome.
D)their shape and presence or absence of an envelope.
E)their shape,host,and presence or absence of an envelope.
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose a mutant strain of Escherichia coli K12 contains a mutation in the trpE gene and is no longer able to make tryptophan.What is this mutant called?
A)An auxotroph.
B)A prototroph.
C)An autotroph.
D)A phenotroph.
E)A lithotroph.
Q2) What possible disadvantage might electroporation possess compared with the transformation achievable by species such as Bacillus?
A)Smaller DNA fragments are transferred
B)Double-stranded DNA,not single-stranded,is transferred
C)There is a loss of cells due to the voltage being applied
D)Antibiotic resistance selection processes cannot be employed
E)None is a correct choice
Q3) In order for a plasmid to replicate once it enters a cell,it must contain an ______ of replication that is recognized by the cell.
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many scientists deposit their gene sequences in GenBank to make them publicly available to other scientist via the internet.Approximately how many base pairs have been deposited thus far?
A)10,000
B)100,000
C)1 million
D).10 million
E)greater than 10 million
Q2) The "paired-end read" approach of Illumina sequencing suggests an approach in constructing DNA fragments to be read which is similar to that used in :
A)Sanger dideoxy
B)Pyrosequencing
C)Ion torrent sequencing
D)Maxam and gilbertsequencing
E)None of the approaches generate non-cloned DNA fragments readable in both directions
Q3) Determining DNA sequence length through the analysis of overlapping DNA fragments is known as __________________ sequencing.
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) The transfer of T-DNA into a plant cell by Agrobacterium tumefaciens is regulated by: (Select all that apply)
A)virA phosphorylation of virG
B)virG phosphorylation of virA
C)VirA phosphorylation of VirG
D)VirG phosphorylation of VirA
E)ATP-mediated phosphorylation of VirA
Q2) The most commonly observed promoter sequence seen in an organism is known as the :
A)TATA box
B)-35 region
C)Consensus sequence
D)Shine Dalgarno sequence
E)None is a correct choice
Q3) What would characterize the phenotype of an MCP mutant?
A)loss of motility.
B)constant tumbling.
C)smooth swimming.
D)inability to sense certain chemicals.
E)movement toward repellents and away from attractants.
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The EPSP (5-enolpyruvylshikimate 3-phosphate)gene that permitted crop plants to develop Roundup tolerance was first introduced into:
A)petunias
B)bacteria
C)soybeans
D)chrysids
E)viruses
Q2) Tolerance to Roundup in crop plants relies on:
A)resistance to antibiotics
B)acquisition of an enzyme which inhibits EPSP (5-enolpyruvylshikimate
3-phosphate)activity
C)acquisition of an enzyme which provides EPSP (5-enolpyruvylshikimate
3-phosphate)activity
D)resistance to EPSP
E)applying Roundup to crops once seedlings emerge
Q3) Random mutagenesis is often used in industry to produce microbial strains that have increased production ability.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is TRUE for a chemoorganoheterotroph?
A)Uses inorganic carbon as an energy source and organic carbon as a carbon source.
B)Uses inorganic carbon as an electron source and organic carbon as a carbon source.
C)Uses organic carbon as an electron source and inorganic carbon as a carbon source.
D)Uses organic carbon as an electron source and a carbon source.
E)Uses inorganic carbon as an energy source and a carbon source.
Q2) The most common lipids in the cell are synthesized from ___________ and ____________.
A)fatty acids and sterol
B)fatty acids and glycerol
C)fatty acids and hopanoids
D)hopanoids and sterols
E)glycerol and hopanoids
Q3) During the respiratory process,as electrons are passed through the electron transport chain,a ________ ________ force is generated across a biological membrane to drive the synthesis of ATP by a membrane associated ATP synthase.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elemental movement between reservoirs is termed:
A)flux
B)source
C)sink
D)oxidation
E)reduction
Q2) Siderophores are necessary for movement of iron into cells because:
A)free iron will otherwise pass electrons to oxygen and be unavailable
B)nitrate will compete for free iron under oxic conditions
C)nitrate will reduce Fe³+ under oxic conditions
D)neutral pH conditions such as those in cells will reduce Fe³+to Fe²+
E)none of the choices is correct
Q3) What is the oxidation state of carbon in methane?
A)+1
B)+ 2
C)-1
D)-2
E)-4
Q4) Methanogens are members of the Domain _______.
Q5) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these best summarizes the contribution of cyanobacteria in the open ocean?
A)primary carbon production
B)oxygenation of the waters
C)nitrogen fixation
D)primary carbon production and oxygenation of the waters
E)primary carbon production,oxygenation of the waters,and nitrogen fixation
Q2) Which of these represents MOST of the ocean's organisms?
A)fish
B)sea mammals
C)archaea
D)marine viruses
E)bacteria
Q3) What is the average temperature of the world's ocean waters?
A)2 to 3°C
B)8 to 10°C
C)12 to 15°C
D)18 to 20°C
E)22 to 25°C
Q4) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ozonation is a wastewater treatment used to
A)remove organic pollutants.
B)disinfect wastewater.
C)reduce nitrogen levels in the water.
D)remove heavy metals that may be present in wastewater.
E)remove phosphorus from wastewater.
Q2) The most common food preservation method used in US households is A)canning.
B)curing meat.
C)refrigeration.
D)heating.
E)freeze-drying.
Q3) An MPN test where a positive EMB test (presence of metallic green colonies)has been observed is known as a:
A)Presumptive test
B)A confirmed test
C)A completed test
D)A conclusive test
E)None is a correct choice
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Once rhizobia enter the plant cell through the infection thread they undergo rapid multiplication and differentiation into pleomorphic nitrogen fixing cells called _____ .
A)shizonts
B)bacteroids
C)elementary bodies
D)reticulate forms
E)nitromorphs
Q2) Lower termites feed primarily on wood and contain symbiotic:
A)bacteria in their intestine.
B)bacteria and archaeons in their intestine.
C)fungi in their intestine.
D)protozoa,bacteria,and archaeons in their intestine.
E)protozoa and fungi in their intestine.
Q3) Acetogenesis is the production of acetic acid from which material(s)?
A)lactate
B)pyruvate
C)carbon dioxide and hydrogen
D)oxaloacetate
E)glucose
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