Environmental Microbiology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the roles and diversity of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments. The course covers microbial processes in soil, water, and air; microbial ecology and interactions; biogeochemical cycling; and the impact of microbes on environmental health and pollution mitigation. Key topics include methods for detecting and characterizing environmental microbes, microbial biotechnology solutions for waste treatment and bioremediation, and the influence of microbial activity on ecosystem dynamics and global climate change. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how microbes shape and respond to their environments.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations in Microbiology Basic Principles 10th Edition by Kathleen Park Talaro
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Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms called parasites are
A)always classified in the kingdom Monera.
B)always harmful to their host.
C)the decomposers in ecosystems.
D)always viruses.
E)free-living.
Answer: B
Q2) Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed ____. Answer: microorganisms
Q3) The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms was
A)Francesco Redi.
B)Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
C)Louis Pasteur.
D)Joseph Lister.
E)Robert Koch. Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An amino acid contains all of the following except
A)an amino group.
B)a carboxyl group.
C)a variable R group.
D)a carbon atom.
E)a nitrogenous base.
Answer: E
Q2) Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution.How much NaCl should he weigh out?
A)0.4 grams
B)4.0 grams
C)40 grams
D)400 grams
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?
A)AB A + B
B)A + B AB
C)AB + XY AX + BY
D)AB + XY AX + BY
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods of Studying Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the end of the Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Each of the following are characteristics of microorganisms that pose unique challenges to their study EXCEPT
A)the fact that they must be viewed through a microscope rather than the unaided eye.
B)the fact that many do not have membrane-enclosed nucleus or other organelles.
C)the fact that they often exist in complex communities and individual species may be difficult to isolate from others.
D)the fact that they usually must be grown and studied under somewhat artificial conditions in vitro rather than in their natural habit.
Answer: B
Q3) A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: A Survey of Prokaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prokaryotic ribosome has a 70 S size composed of two smaller subunits of which the smaller subunit is S size.-16-2013
Q2) The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the A)ribosomes.
B)mitochondria.
C)cell wall.
D)inclusions.
E)cell membrane.
Q3) The periplasmic space is
A)larger in gram-positive bacteria.
B)made up of lipopolysaccharides and phospholipids.
C)an important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell.
D)just external to the LPS layer of the outer membrane.
E)absent in gram-negative bacteria.
Q4) Compare the following: bacterial species, bacterial strain, and bacterial type.Explain the relationship and development of strains and types to a species.
Q5) The prokaryotic flagellum has three parts: the _____, the hook, and the basal body.
Page 6
Q6) Movement of a cell toward a chemical stimulus is termed _____.
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Chapter 5: A Survey of Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Q1) The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. A)True B)False
Q2) Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of A)protozoa. B)algae. C)helminths. D)fungi.
Q3) When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called A)pseudohyphae. B)septa. C)molds.
D)dimorphic. E)mycelium.
Q4) Which organism(s) would be classified as protists?
A)an endospore-forming bacterial cell
B)a fungus growing on the peel of an orange C)algae in a pond
D)seaweed growing in the ocean
E)a parasitic amoeba that can cause meningitis.
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three basic groups of viruses based on morphology include
A)enveloped viruses, non enveloped viruses, and complex viruses.
B)enveloped viruses, DNA viruses, and non enveloped viruses.
C)helical viruses, round viruses, and enveloped viruses.
D)non enveloped viruses, RNA viruses, and bacteriophages.
Q2) The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
A)penetration, replication, maturation, adsorption, assembly, release.
B)replication, penetration, maturation, assembly, absorption, release.
C)adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation, assembly, release.
D)assembly, maturation, replication, release, penetration, adsorption.
E)adsorption, release, maturation, replication, assembly, penetration.
Q3) T-even phages
A)include the poxviruses.
B)infect Escherichia coli cells.
C)enter host cells by engulfment.
D)have helical capsids.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) _____ capsid.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement across the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37°C incubator and on the shelf of a 50°C incubator.After incubation, there was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, slight growth out on the bench top and abundant growth at refrigeration.What term could be used for this species?
A)Halophile
B)Mesophile
C)Anaerobe
D)Psychrophile
E)Capnophile
Q4) Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: An Introduction to Microbial Metabolism: the Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reactions of fermentation function to regenerate _____ molecules for use in glycolysis.
A)pyruvic acid
B)ATP
C)NAD
D)NADH
E)glucose
Q2) Enzymes that catalyze removing electrons from one substrate and adding electrons to another are called A)phosphotransferases.
B)oxidoreductases.
C)decarboxylases.
D)aminotransferases.
E)ligases.
Q3) Building block molecules for biosynthetic pathways come from the cell's catabolic pathways and from the environment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is incorrect about purines?
A)Purines are only found in DNA, not in RNA.
B)Purines are nitrogenous bases.
C)Purines are always paired with a specific pyrimidine.
D)Purines include adenine and guanine.
E)Purines are found within nucleotides.
Q3) If a codon for alanine is GCA.What is the anticodon?
A)GCA
B)CGT
C)ACG
D)CGU
E)UGC
Q4) Short interfering RNAs affect gene expression in eukaryotes by
A)blocking replication of certain genes.
B)blocking transcription of certain genes.
C)binding to mRNAs and preventing translation.
D)binding to ribosomes, preventing the two subunits from joining.
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering: a Revolution in Molecular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe what is meant by a DNA fingerprint and how it is used in forensic science.
Q2) Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Southern Blot technique enables detection of specific sequences
A)in DNA.
B)in RNA.
C)of amino acids in proteins.
D)of sugars in polysaccharides.
Q4) Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease?
A)PCR
B)genetic engineering
C)antisense technology
D)microarray analysis
E)DNA sequencing
Q5) Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called _____.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Agents for Microbial Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is
A)disinfection.
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis.
D)sanitization.
E)degermation.
Q2) The compound that is an organic base containing chlorine and two phenolic rings and is used increasingly for hand scrubbing, neonatal washes, wound degerming, and prepping surgical skin sites is
A)carbolic acid.
B)chlorhexidine.
C)triclosan.
D)formalin.
E)quarternary ammonium compounds.
Q3) Which method of microbial control destroys microorganisms by oxidation of cells?
A)steam autoclave
B)use of glutaraldehyde
C)use of UV radiation
D)incineration
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Chapter 12: Drugs, Microbes, Host--The Elements of Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed A)antibiotics.
B)narrow-spectrum drugs.
C)semisynthetic drugs.
D)synthetic drugs.
E)broad-spectrum drugs.
Q3) Discuss 5 factors that have influenced the increasing development of resistant microbial strains.
Q4) Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration?
A)penicillin G
B)tetracycline
C)gentamicin
D)vancomycin
E)erythromycin
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Infection and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ carriers are shedding and transmitting pathogens while they are recovering from an infectious disease.
Q2) A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease?
A)accountant
B)teacher
C)nurse
D)dental hygienist
E)forest ranger
Q3) Reservoirs include
A)humans.
B)animals.
C)soil.
D)water.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Adhesive pili, exotoxins, and capsules are all microbial factors that help them establish infection.These are examples of
A)virulence factors.
B)infectivity factors.
C)pathogenicity factors,
D)exogenous factors.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: An Introduction to Host Defenses and Innate
Immunities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma is also called lymph.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The _____ region of a lymph node has germinal centers packed with T and B-lymphocytes.
Q3) If a splinter of wood were to enter the skin and introduce microorganisms to that site, what specific early and late events of inflammation would respond to that newly infected tissue? Describe the sequence of signs and symptoms, vascular and tissue events, and cells and mediators involved.
Q4) PAMPs are molecules shared by many microorganisms but not present in mammals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action?
A)TNF
B)IL-1
C)IL-6
D)IFN
E)chemokines
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Chapter 15: Adaptive, Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Monoclonal antibodies
A)originate from a single B-cell clone.
B)have a single specificity for antigen.
C)are secreted by hybridomas.
D)are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is
A)IgD.
B)IgE.
C)IgG.
D)IgM.
E)IgA.
Q3) Scientists are currently developing bananas that synthesize proteins from pathogens, as a delivery system to vaccinate populations that otherwise would not have access to them.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a myeloma cell with a normal _____ cell.
Q5) _____ is the most abundant class of antibodies in serum.
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?
A)ingestant
B)inhalant
C)injectant
D)contactant
Q2) Which is incorrect about DiGeorge syndrome?
A)It is a severe deficiency of T-cells.
B)Sometimes it is associated with a deletion in chromosome 22.
C)Common childhood diseases can be fatal in affected children.
D)The major therapy is a bone marrow transplant.
E)Symptoms include reduced growth and unusual facial characteristics.
Q3) The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is
A)prostaglandin.
B)histamine.
C)leukotriene.
D)serotonin.
E)platelet-activating factor.
Q4) An _____ is any chronic local allergy.
Q5) The _____ dose of an allergen results in signs and symptoms of the allergy.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Procedures for Identifying Pathogens and Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe three possible sampling sites and methods of collection for clinical laboratories.
Q2) Identify, describe, and discuss the objectives of the three main categories of identifying infectious agents using specific examples.
Q3) Which of the following is not a biochemical test used to identify a pathogen?
A)acid-fast reaction
B)hydrolysis of gelatin
C)coagulase production
D)indole production
E)carbohydrate fermentation
Q4) Tests that take place in the lab, such as in a test tube or Petri-dish, outside of a living host, are referred to as _______________ whereas tests that take place in a living host, such as in a patient, are described as ______________.
A)In loco; In vitro
B)In vitro; In loco
C)In vitro; In vivo
D)In loco; In vivo
Q5) When collecting __________, a "clean catch" method is often used.
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Q6) An antibody_____ provides a measure of the quantity of antibodies in the serum.
Chapter 18: The Gram-Positive and Gram-Negative Cocci of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae is
A)the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.
B)the cause of gonorrhea.
C)called the gonococcus.
D)virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns.This disease is caused by
A)Neisseria meningitidis.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
E)Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis.
Q3) All of the following are correct about Streptococcus pyogenes, except
A)humans are the only significant reservoir.
B)some of the streptococcal toxins act as superantigens.
C)most strains do not have a capsule.
D)it can cause impetigo and erysipelas.
E)infection is generally through direct contact.
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Q4) Discuss in detail why strep sore throat must be diagnosed and treated rapidly.
Chapter 19: The Gram-Positive Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene?
A)debridement of the wound
B)hyperbaric chamber
C)amputation of affected limb
D)rigorous cleansing of deep wounds
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Leprosy is a disease
A)of lung tissue.
B)that has been eradicated around the world.
C)caused by a pathogen that cannot be cultured in the lab.
D)can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test.
E)caused by a spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus.
Q3) The fermentation by-products of Clostridium perfringens can destroy muscle structure in myonecrosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast botulism and tetanus with regard to: a) transmission, b) virulence factors, c) location of target tissue and effect on the tissue, d) symptoms, e) treatment, and f) prevention.
Q5) Mycobacterium bovis is attenuated and used in the _____ vaccine.
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Chapter 20: The Gram-Negative Bacilli of Medical Importance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bacterial genera contain members that are very similar physiologically to Pseudomonas and cause a similar spectrum of opportunistic infections?
A)Hemophilus
B)Stenotrophomonas
C)Burkholderia
D)Legionella
E)both Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas
F)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is an agent of the sexually-transmitted disease chancroid?
A)Haemophilus aegyptius
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Haemophilus parainfluenzae
D)Haemophilus ducreyi
E)Haemophilus aphrophilus
Q3) Distinguish the four different pathogenic strains of E.coli with regard to: a) names of the strains, b) virulence factors, and c) symptoms.
Q4) Compare and contrast shigellosis and salmonellosis.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Miscellaneous Bacterial Agents of Disease
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Q1) Control of rodent populations is important for preventing
A)tick-borne relapsing fever.
B)ornithosis.
C)epidemic typhus.
D)Q fever.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Characteristics of rickettsias include
A)obligate parasites requiring host cells for growth.
B)arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)host cells are required for ATP metabolism.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) When plaque becomes mineralized with calcium and phosphate crystals, it becomes a hard, porous substance called _____.
Q5) Syphilitic tumors called _____ develop in the liver, skin, bone, and cartilage during the tertiary stage of syphilis.
Page 23
Q6) Discuss the role of Ixodes scapularis and Ixodes pacificus in Lyme disease.
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Chapter 22: The Fungi of Medical Importance
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Q1) Which of the following is/are true of cryptococcal meningitis?
A)It is most often caused by Cryptococcus gattii.
B)The pathogen usually enters the body via the respiratory route.
C)It is usually a mild form of meningitis that is self-limiting.
D)It is most often seen in patients with AIDS.
E)The pathogen can be detected in CSF specimens by negative staining.
Q2) Fungi that exhibit thermal dimorphism grow as _____ at 30°C and as _____ at 37°C.
Q3) _____ are superficial mycoses that cause white masses or dark masses to develop on the hair shaft.
Q4) Diseases caused by fungi are termed _____.
Q5) Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton
A)produce tissue-damaging mycotoxins.
B)all cause athlete's foot.
C)have reservoirs that include humans, animals, and soils.
D)frequently cause septicemia.
E)are dimorphic fungi.
Q6) Skin testing with antigen is used to diagnose ringworm.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Parasites of Medical Importance
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Q1) Diseases such as malaria, dengue fever, and Chagas'disease may be spread by any blood-sucking arthropod.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which was the first disease found to be due to a protozoan that is introduced to humans by the bite of a hard body tick?
A)cryptosporidiosis
B)babesiosis
C)toxoplasmosis
Q3) Hookworms
A)include Necator americanus.
B)include Ancylostoma duodenale.
C)have filariform larvae in soil that invade by penetrating bare feet.
D)have oral cutting plates by which they anchor to the intestines.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Which is incorrect about malaria?
A)Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells.
B)Trophozoites develop in RBCs.
C)The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites.
D)Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Viruses That Infect Humans: the Dna Viruses
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Q1) As of 2000, according to the International Committee on the Taxonomy of Viruses, how are viruses classified?
A)genetic information only
B)structure only
C)chemical composition and structure
D)genetic information, structure, and chemical composition
E)genetic information, structure, host, and diseases caused
Q2) Using at least three examples, summarize how HPV can be prevented.
Q3) Hepatitis B virus
A)is principally transmitted by blood.
B)transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse.
C)is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers.
D)has many chronic carriers.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) The antivirals used for herpes simplex infections have the ability to completely destroy the virus and permanently cure the latent infection.
A)True
B)False
26
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Chapter 25: The Rna Viruses That Infect Humans
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Q1) Reye's syndrome involves
A)aspirin use.
B)a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox.
C)fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney.
D)children, adolescents, and young adults.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Why do rhinoviruses infect the upper respiratory tract, particularly the nose, but not the lower respiratory tract?
A)They are unable to attach to receptors on the pulmonary cells in the lower respiratory tract.
B)They replicate most effectively at the cooler temperatures of the upper respiratory tract.
C)The prevalence of alveolar macrophages in the lower respiratory tract prevents them from becoming established there.
D)IgA antibodies in lower respiratory tract secretions prevent them from becoming established in the lower respiratory tract.
Q3) The major reservoir for the Sin Nombre hantavirus is the deer mouse.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) The oxidation of ammonia (NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>) to nitrate (NO<sub>3</sub> ) is called A)ammonification.
B)nitrogen fixation.
C)photosynthesis.
D)nitrification.
E)denitrification.
Q2) The thin envelope of life that surrounds the Earth's surface is called the A)atmosphere.
B)biosphere.
C)lithosphere.
D)hydrosphere.
E)ecosystem.
Q3) How does methyl mercury affect living things?
A)It interferes with translation of mRNA.
B)It interferes with DNA replication.
C)It inhibits transcription.
D)It precipitates proteins.
E)It inhibits the electron transport chain during cellular respiration.
Q4) An _____ is a region where the river meets the sea.
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Chapter 27: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) The fermentation of milk by Streptococcus thermophilus produces ___________.
Q2) Which is not used as a chemical preservative in food?
A)iodine
B)organic acids
C)sulfite
D)ethylene oxide
E)salt
Q3) Compare and contrast ultra-high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization and regular pasteurization.
Q4) All of the following foods are preserved using high osmotic pressure except A)jellies.
B)pickles.
C)canned fruit.
D)candies.
E)bread.
Q5) Rennin is added to cheese to give it flavor.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In some parts of Mexico, ___________ has become a viable alternative to green plants as a primary nutrient source.
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