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Environmental Microbiology explores the roles and interactions of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments, focusing on their impact on ecological processes, biogeochemical cycles, and environmental health. The course covers the diversity, physiology, and genetics of bacteria, fungi, archaea, and viruses in soil, water, and air, addressing both their beneficial functions and pathogenic threats. Students will examine microbial involvement in bioremediation, biodegradation, water and wastewater treatment, and pollution control, while gaining practical experience in sampling and analytical techniques used in environmental microbiology research.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Q1) Which statement about variolation is false?
A) variolation originated in ancient China
B) variolation involves infecting a person with dried scabs from lesions of people who had recovered from the disease
C) variolation requires chemicals produced from another microorganism to kill the disease causing microbe
D) variolation leads to a controlled infection that induces immunity against further infection
Answer: C
Q2) Viruses were initially identified as small infectious agents that could pass through filters. How was it believed that these molecules could survive?
A) they had small compact structures that allowed for the production of metabolites and replication
B) they survived on the metabolites and poisons that pass through the filter
C) they borrowed the use of existing metabolic and replicative mechanisms of the host cells they infected
D) they are capable of capturing energy from the sun
Answer: C
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Q1) Which is a false statement about chemical reactions
A) catabolic reactions are exergonic and release energy
B) polymerization and the building up of large molecules is a catabolic reaction
C) anabolic reactions require energy
D) energy is stored in the form of chemical bonds
Answer: B
Q2) Chemical bonds form between atoms through the interaction of
A) protons
B) neutrons
C) electrons
D) isotopes
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Protein-amino acids
B) Nucleic acids- nucleotides
C) Carbohydrates- glucose
D) Fats- aldehyde
Answer: D
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Q1) To calculate the total magnification of a light microscope you must know
A) the magnification of the objective and condenser lenses
B) the magnification of the ocular and condenser lenses
C) the magnification of objective, ocular and condenser lenses
D) the magnification of the objective and ocular lenses
Answer: D
Q2) When light bends as it passes through an object,________ of the light has occurred.
A) reflection
B) absorption
C) transmission
D) refraction
Answer: D
Q3) The formula for resolving power of a lens is l/2NA (wavelength /2 x numerical aperture). What does this say about resolving power?
A) the smaller the wavelength the greater the resolving power of the lens
B) it is not related to the lens' numerical aperture
C) we can not precisely calculate the resolving power of a lens
D) a larger resolving power is indicative of a better lens
Answer: A
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Q1) What supports the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes by means of endosymbiosis?
Q2) Give examples of microorganisms that are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What microorganism does not fit in either category? Describe three differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q3) Which of the following structures is not normally part of a bacterial flagellum?
A) hook
B) filament
C) basal body
D) anchor
Q4) Which of the following statements about motility is false?
A) chemotaxis is the movement of bacteria toward or away from a chemical
B) pseudopodia are associated with fungi
C) bacteria use helical movements to orient to external signals
D) pseudopodia are temporary projections of cytoplasm
Q5) In bacteria the cell membrane functions in all of the following ways,except:
A) regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell
B) synthesizes cell wall components
C) serves as the site for protein synthesis
D) assists with DNA replication
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Q1) What are chemoheterotrophs and how do they obtain energy? Name and describe two other ways microorganisms obtain energy. Why do you think so many different ways of obtaining energy evolved?
Q2) In photosynthesis,light energy is used to
A) break down proteins
B) phosphorylate ADP to form ATP
C) metabolize glycerol
D) synthesize carbohydrates
Q3) All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration,except:
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) nitrate ions
D) sulfate ions
Q4) In photosynthesis,chemical energy is used to make organic molecules in the A) light reaction
B) dark reaction
C) hydrolytic reaction
D) photophosphorylation reaction
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Q1) Endospores are
A) metabolically active
B) reproductive structures
C) found mostly in Gram negative organisms
D) protective structures
Q2) A bacterial culture can be kept in the log phase of growth indefinitely with the help of a
A) incubator
B) chemostat
C) spectrophotometer
D) colony counter
Q3) Which of the following counting techniques doesn't differentiate between live and dead bacterial cells in a culture?
A) serial dilution
B) spread plate
C) pour plate
D) direct microscopic count
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Q1) Mutagens such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by
A) substituting for one of the bases normally found in DNA
B) adding an alkyl group to a nucleotide
C) removing an amino group from a nucleotide
D) causing breaks in chromosomes
Q2) An anticodon would be found in/on a ________ molecule.
A) mRNA
B) tRNA
C) the lagging strand
D) rRNA
Q3) Which statement about mutations is false?
A) a mutation can alter the genotype of an organism without altering the phenotype
B) frameshift mutations are typically more serious than point mutations
C) spontaneous mutations are the result of exposure to mutagens
D) photoreactivation can take place in non-photosynthetic bacteria
Q4) RNA plays several important roles in the processes that translate genetic information from DNA into protein products. Illustrate the events of transcription in a bacterial cell and indicate where RNA plays a role. Also indicate what role RNA plays in translation in bacterial cells.
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Q1) The Ti plasmid is known primarily for its ability to
A) direct synthesis of conjugation pili
B) provide resistance to certain antibiotics
C) induce the formation of tumors in plants
D) two of the above
Q2) Competence refers to a bacterium's ability to
A) synthesize a protein from another species gene that has been engineered
B) undergo conjunction with an F+ cell
C) take up DNA fragments
D) be infected by a phage
Q3) Restriction enzymes come from
A) fungal cells
B) viruses
C) bacteria cells
D) animal cells
Q4) Recombinant bacteria have been used to produce A) human growth hormone
B) vaccines
C) insulin
D) all of the above
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Q1) Bacteria found in extreme environments (high heat,very high salt concentration)would best be described as a member of the
A) eubacteria
B) prokaryotae
C) cyanobacteria
D) archaeobacteria
Q2) Organisms in the same ________ are more closely related than are organisms in the same ________.
A) phylum, genus
B) class, order
C) family, phylum
D) phylum, order
Q3) Genetic homology determines evolutionary relationships among organisms based on
A) the similarity of ribosomal RNA between species
B) the similarity of DNA between species
C) morphological similarities between species
D) the number of traits shared by two organisms
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Q1) The only RNA tumor virus that causes human cancer is
A) retroviruses
B) proviruses
C) rhinovirus
D) rubella virus
Q2) Which of the following structures do viruses use to attach themselves to the host cell and help viruses enter the host cells?
A) viral spikes
B) viral tails
C) viral particles
D) viral nucleic acid
Q3) Assembly of new viral components into a complete virion takes place during viral
A) maturation
B) adsorption
C) penetration
D) synthesis
Q4) How are computer viruses similar to and different from biological viruses? Are computer viruses alive? Why or why not?
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Q1) One major difference between flatworms and roundworms is that A) roundworms are never parasites
B) flatworms are never parasites
C) roundworms have a pseudocoelom
D) flatworms don't infect humans
Q2) Protists are classified according to whether they resemble organisms in each of the following kingdoms except
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Animals
D) Plants
Q3) Parasites having both male and female reproductive organs are known as A) obligate parasites
B) schizons
C) hermaphrodites
D) accidental parasites
Q4) What are the four groups of parasitic helminthes? Name one parasitic helminth in each group that causes human disease and describe its hosts and transmission.
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Q1) When an antimicrobial agent permanently denatures proteins thus preventing renaturation to their native states it is considered:
A) bacteriostatic
B) bactericidal
C) bacterial lysis
D) an inhibitor of growth
Q2) Ionizing radiation
A) consists of wavelengths between 400 and 390 nm
B) oxidizes molecules such as riboflavin and porphyrins
C) is tuned to match the energy levels of water molecules
D) dislodges electrons from atoms, creating ions
Q3) An agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria is called a (an)
A) antiseptic
B) bactericide
C) bacteriostatic
D) sanitizer
Q4) What makes a disinfectant desirable? Describe one method for determining the effectiveness of a chemical agent.
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Q1) Any chemical substance used in medical practice is known as a/an
A) antibiotic
B) antimicrobial agent
C) semi-synthetic drug
D) chemotherapeutic agent
Q2) Purine or pyrimidine analogs:
A) act as antimetabolites
B) inhibit ribosome function
C) disrupt cell membrane function
D) inhibit cell wall function
Q3) Antibiotics bind to RNA polymerase and
A) act as base analogs
B) inhibit cell wall synthesis
C) disrupt cell membrane function
D) inhibit transcription
Q4) Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of DNA gyrase?
A) ethambutol
B) ciprofloxacin
C) tobramycin
D) neomycin

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Q1) An infection that is confined to a specific area of the body:
A) local infection
B) focal infection
C) systemic infection
D) latent infection
Q2) An acute disease becomes ______ when the body can not get rid of it; while a local disease becomes _______ when it disseminates into deeper organs and tissues.
A) contagious; systemic
B) contagious; secondary
C) chronic; systemic
D) chronic; secondary
Q3) Botulinum Toxin
A) when used for cosmetic purposes is called Botox
B) relieves muscle spasms in dystonia
C) is produced by Clostridium botulinum
D) all of the above
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?
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Q1) Pathogenic microorganisms that enter the body via contaminated food or water typically infect
A) the respiratory system
B) the skin
C) only vertebrate animals
D) the digestive system
Q2) Transmission of pathogens from person to person via sneezing,coughing or by the affected individual speaking near a susceptible individual are examples of what mode of transmission?
A) vertical transmission
B) indirect contact transmission
C) direct fecal-oral transmission
D) droplet transmission
Q3) Pathogenic microorganisms that are spread from person to person by unwashed hands contaminated by fecal matter is an example of what mode of transmission?
A) fomites
B) indirect contact
C) droplet transmission
D) direct transmission
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Q1) Phagocytic leukocytes that contain oxidative chemicals to kill internalized microorgansisms are called
A) lymphocytes
B) platelets
C) mast cells
D) neutrophils
Q2) Acute phase response proteins
A) include C-reactive protein (CRP) and mannose-binding protein (MBP)
B) bind to and coat the surface of the infectious agent
C) destroy abnormal cells
D) increase resistance of cells to viral infection
Q3) The spleen
A) along with the thymus gland and the skin are all lymphoid organs
B) contains lymph nodes that filter microbes from the lymph
C) filters material but does not contain phagocytes
D) two of the above
Q4) What is the body's first line of defense against microbial danger? Why are these considered non-specific? Why are these considered innate? Is non-specific a better description than innate?
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Q1) All of the following are types of vaccines except A) killed whole bacteria
B) purified active toxin
C) toxoid
D) live virus
Q2) The ability of the humoral response to produce a vast array of antibodies,each with uniqueness to a given antigen is responsible for the immune system's
A) memory
B) hyperimmune serum
C) heterogeneity
D) homogeneity
Q3) All of the following cells are types of T lymphocytes except A) regulatory
B) delayed hypersensitivity
C) helper
D) plasma
Q4) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
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Q1) All of the following are Type III hypersensitivities except
A) granulomatous reactions
B) serum sickness
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) lupus erythematosus
Q2) All of the following can occur after tissue transplantation except
A) tissue transplants may be rejected and destroyed by the host's immune system
B) the host immune system can become tolerant to the transplanted tissue
C) tissue transplants can launch a cell-mediated response against the recipient's tissue
D) all immune rejection occurs either at the time of the graft or within days after
Q3) Type IV hypersensitivity involves
A) B cells
B) complement
C) immune complexes
D) TH1 cells
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Q1) Burn infections
A) are difficult to diagnose as early signs are often decreased appetite and fatigue
B) are difficult to treat as antibiotics are ineffective against the viruses that cause them
C) with a grapelike odor and greenish discoloration are often due to viruses
D) two of the above
Q2) Gas gangrene was historically thought of as a battlefield injury and thought to have played a role in determining the outcome of armed conflicts. Describe gas gangrene. What causes gas gangrene? Why is amputation so common? And what civilians are susceptible to the disease?
Q3) Aspergillosis
A) in immunodeficient patients causes wound infections
B) causes dry scaly lesions on various parts of skin
C) is responsible for thrush and vaginitis
D) can require amputation
Q4) What's the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?
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Q1) What are the signs associated with congenital syphilis?
A) Huchinson's teeth
B) Saber shin
C) Saddle-nose
D) all of the above
Q2) Chancroid is characterized by
A) a rash
B) a gumma
C) a painless chancre lesion
D) a painful chancre lesion
Q3) The strains of HPV that cause cervical cancer
A) are the same strains that cause external genital warts
B) also cause cold sores
C) are different from the strains that cause external genital warts
D) two of the above
Q4) Herpes infections are most successfully treated with daily doses of
A) penicillin
B) interferon
C) AZT
D) acyclovir
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Q1) Which statement about the normal microflora of the respiratory system is incorrect?
A) below the larynx the microflora is resident while above it the microflora is transient
B) healthy lungs are usually sterile
C) the pharynx has the same microflora as the mouth
D) the upper respiratory tract has a normal microflora similar to that of skin
Q2) The etiology of whooping cough is
A) Rhinovirus
B) Bordatella pertussis
C) Corynebacterium
D) Haemophilus
Q3) The paroxysmal stage of whooping cough is characterized by
A) mild, dry, persistent cough
B) a migraine headache
C) violent coughing
D) pseudomembrane forming in throat
Q4) How was the great flu pandemic of 1918 different from other influenza epidemics? What is the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift? What virus do you believe the next deadly pandemic flu strain will come from?
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Q1) Which of the following microbes causes an enteritis that is sometimes misdiagnosed as appendicitis because the symptoms are very similar?
A) Yersinia enterocolitica
B) Salmonella enteritidis
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Campylobacter jejuni
Q2) All of the following refers to typhoid fever except
A) Widal test is used to confirm the diagnosis
B) chloroamphenicol, cephalosporine and fluoroquinolones are used in the treatment
C) requires a surrogate virus infection in order to cause disease
D) internal hemorrhage and perforation of the bowel are serious complications
Q3) Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Q1) A young girl has a small rash that began as a small red bump but has grown in size with expanding borders for the last two weeks. When you examine it you notice it has red expanding borders with a clearing center and that there are several concentric rings of redness. What is the microbe responsible for the rash? What is its lifecycle? Why is early treatment important? What are ways to prevent and control the disease?
Q2) Inflammation and blockage of lymph ducts leading to elephantiasis is due to which organism?
A) Schistosoma haematobium
B) Streptococus pyogenes
C) Wuchereria bancrofti
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) The mite is the vector for
A) Rickettsialpox
B) Ehrlichiosis
C) Trench fever
D) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
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Q1) One problem with treating Hansen's disease is
A) antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium
B) dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear
C) the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work
D) the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells
Q2) _______ is the only bacterial species known to destroy peripheral nerve cells.
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Herpes simplex I
C) Clostridium tetani
D) Mycobacterium leprae
Q3) Clostridium tetani can be characterized by all of the following except
A) Gram-positive spore former
B) resistant to drying, disinfection, and heat
C) endospores are killed by boiling for 20 minutes
D) common to soil and human intestines
Q4) Which of the following is not a viral or bacterial cause of meningitis?
A) Naegleria fowleri
B) Haemophilus influenzae type F
C) Treponema pallidum
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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Q1) Producers obtain CO from
A) eating other producers
B) the atmosphere
C) dead bodies
D) coal
Q2) Which term is matched with its definition?
A) biotic factors - interaction of organisms with other organisms
B) ecology - all organisms in a given area with abiotic and biotic factors
C) ecosystem - organisms that are always found in a given environment
D) niche - recycling of life-essential elements and water
Q3) The indicator organism for human pathogens in a water supply is
A) Escherichia coli
B) Salmonella typhi
C) Poliovirus
D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q4) Phytoplankton include
A) cyanobacterteria
B) diatoms
C) dinoflagellates
D) all of the above

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Q1) Which microbe lends Swiss cheese its flavor and characteristic holes?
A) Propionibacterium
B) Streptococcus lactis
C) Escherichia coli
D) Staphylococcus
Q2) The yeast responsible for wine and beer is generally
A) Candida
B) Aspergillus
C) Saccharomyces
D) Mucor
Q3) Glutamic acid is probably the amino acid manufactured by fermentation in the greatest quantity. What is its major use?
A) as a flavor enhancer
B) as a raw material for animal feeds
C) a nutritional supplement
D) a starting material for aspartame
Q4) Are food spoilage microorganisms also pathogens? Give examples to support your answer. Outline 4 methods of food preservation. How does each method limit growth of microorganisms?
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