Environmental Microbiology Exam Solutions - 1432 Verified Questions

Page 1


Environmental Microbiology Exam

Solutions

Course Introduction

Environmental Microbiology explores the roles and interactions of microorganisms in natural and engineered environments, focusing on their impact on ecological processes, biogeochemical cycles, and environmental health. The course covers the diversity, physiology, and genetics of bacteria, fungi, archaea, and viruses in soil, water, and air, addressing both their beneficial functions and pathogenic threats. Students will examine microbial involvement in bioremediation, biodegradation, water and wastewater treatment, and pollution control, while gaining practical experience in sampling and analytical techniques used in environmental microbiology research.

Recommended Textbook

Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black

Available Study Resources on Quizplus

26 Chapters

1432 Verified Questions

1432 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1293 Page 2

Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25674

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about variolation is false?

A) variolation originated in ancient China

B) variolation involves infecting a person with dried scabs from lesions of people who had recovered from the disease

C) variolation requires chemicals produced from another microorganism to kill the disease causing microbe

D) variolation leads to a controlled infection that induces immunity against further infection

Answer: C

Q2) Viruses were initially identified as small infectious agents that could pass through filters. How was it believed that these molecules could survive?

A) they had small compact structures that allowed for the production of metabolites and replication

B) they survived on the metabolites and poisons that pass through the filter

C) they borrowed the use of existing metabolic and replicative mechanisms of the host cells they infected

D) they are capable of capturing energy from the sun

Answer: C

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

3

Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

58 Verified Questions

58 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25675

Sample Questions

Q1) Which is a false statement about chemical reactions

A) catabolic reactions are exergonic and release energy

B) polymerization and the building up of large molecules is a catabolic reaction

C) anabolic reactions require energy

D) energy is stored in the form of chemical bonds

Answer: B

Q2) Chemical bonds form between atoms through the interaction of

A) protons

B) neutrons

C) electrons

D) isotopes

Answer: C

Q3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Protein-amino acids

B) Nucleic acids- nucleotides

C) Carbohydrates- glucose

D) Fats- aldehyde

Answer: D

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

4

Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

53 Verified Questions

53 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25676

Sample Questions

Q1) To calculate the total magnification of a light microscope you must know

A) the magnification of the objective and condenser lenses

B) the magnification of the ocular and condenser lenses

C) the magnification of objective, ocular and condenser lenses

D) the magnification of the objective and ocular lenses

Answer: D

Q2) When light bends as it passes through an object,________ of the light has occurred.

A) reflection

B) absorption

C) transmission

D) refraction

Answer: D

Q3) The formula for resolving power of a lens is l/2NA (wavelength /2 x numerical aperture). What does this say about resolving power?

A) the smaller the wavelength the greater the resolving power of the lens

B) it is not related to the lens' numerical aperture

C) we can not precisely calculate the resolving power of a lens

D) a larger resolving power is indicative of a better lens

Answer: A

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5

Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

60 Verified Questions

60 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25677

Sample Questions

Q1) What supports the idea that prokaryotes were involved in the evolution of eukaryotes by means of endosymbiosis?

Q2) Give examples of microorganisms that are prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What microorganism does not fit in either category? Describe three differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Q3) Which of the following structures is not normally part of a bacterial flagellum?

A) hook

B) filament

C) basal body

D) anchor

Q4) Which of the following statements about motility is false?

A) chemotaxis is the movement of bacteria toward or away from a chemical

B) pseudopodia are associated with fungi

C) bacteria use helical movements to orient to external signals

D) pseudopodia are temporary projections of cytoplasm

Q5) In bacteria the cell membrane functions in all of the following ways,except:

A) regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell

B) synthesizes cell wall components

C) serves as the site for protein synthesis

D) assists with DNA replication

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6

Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25678

Sample Questions

Q1) What are chemoheterotrophs and how do they obtain energy? Name and describe two other ways microorganisms obtain energy. Why do you think so many different ways of obtaining energy evolved?

Q2) In photosynthesis,light energy is used to

A) break down proteins

B) phosphorylate ADP to form ATP

C) metabolize glycerol

D) synthesize carbohydrates

Q3) All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration,except:

A) carbon dioxide

B) oxygen

C) nitrate ions

D) sulfate ions

Q4) In photosynthesis,chemical energy is used to make organic molecules in the A) light reaction

B) dark reaction

C) hydrolytic reaction

D) photophosphorylation reaction

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7

Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25679

Sample Questions

Q1) Endospores are

A) metabolically active

B) reproductive structures

C) found mostly in Gram negative organisms

D) protective structures

Q2) A bacterial culture can be kept in the log phase of growth indefinitely with the help of a

A) incubator

B) chemostat

C) spectrophotometer

D) colony counter

Q3) Which of the following counting techniques doesn't differentiate between live and dead bacterial cells in a culture?

A) serial dilution

B) spread plate

C) pour plate

D) direct microscopic count

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 8

Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25680

Sample Questions

Q1) Mutagens such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by

A) substituting for one of the bases normally found in DNA

B) adding an alkyl group to a nucleotide

C) removing an amino group from a nucleotide

D) causing breaks in chromosomes

Q2) An anticodon would be found in/on a ________ molecule.

A) mRNA

B) tRNA

C) the lagging strand

D) rRNA

Q3) Which statement about mutations is false?

A) a mutation can alter the genotype of an organism without altering the phenotype

B) frameshift mutations are typically more serious than point mutations

C) spontaneous mutations are the result of exposure to mutagens

D) photoreactivation can take place in non-photosynthetic bacteria

Q4) RNA plays several important roles in the processes that translate genetic information from DNA into protein products. Illustrate the events of transcription in a bacterial cell and indicate where RNA plays a role. Also indicate what role RNA plays in translation in bacterial cells.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9

Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25681

Sample Questions

Q1) The Ti plasmid is known primarily for its ability to

A) direct synthesis of conjugation pili

B) provide resistance to certain antibiotics

C) induce the formation of tumors in plants

D) two of the above

Q2) Competence refers to a bacterium's ability to

A) synthesize a protein from another species gene that has been engineered

B) undergo conjunction with an F+ cell

C) take up DNA fragments

D) be infected by a phage

Q3) Restriction enzymes come from

A) fungal cells

B) viruses

C) bacteria cells

D) animal cells

Q4) Recombinant bacteria have been used to produce A) human growth hormone

B) vaccines

C) insulin

D) all of the above

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10

Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

56 Verified Questions

56 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25682

Sample Questions

Q1) Bacteria found in extreme environments (high heat,very high salt concentration)would best be described as a member of the

A) eubacteria

B) prokaryotae

C) cyanobacteria

D) archaeobacteria

Q2) Organisms in the same ________ are more closely related than are organisms in the same ________.

A) phylum, genus

B) class, order

C) family, phylum

D) phylum, order

Q3) Genetic homology determines evolutionary relationships among organisms based on

A) the similarity of ribosomal RNA between species

B) the similarity of DNA between species

C) morphological similarities between species

D) the number of traits shared by two organisms

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

11

Chapter 10: Viruses

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

58 Verified Questions

58 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25683

Sample Questions

Q1) The only RNA tumor virus that causes human cancer is

A) retroviruses

B) proviruses

C) rhinovirus

D) rubella virus

Q2) Which of the following structures do viruses use to attach themselves to the host cell and help viruses enter the host cells?

A) viral spikes

B) viral tails

C) viral particles

D) viral nucleic acid

Q3) Assembly of new viral components into a complete virion takes place during viral

A) maturation

B) adsorption

C) penetration

D) synthesis

Q4) How are computer viruses similar to and different from biological viruses? Are computer viruses alive? Why or why not?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 12

Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25684

Sample Questions

Q1) One major difference between flatworms and roundworms is that A) roundworms are never parasites

B) flatworms are never parasites

C) roundworms have a pseudocoelom

D) flatworms don't infect humans

Q2) Protists are classified according to whether they resemble organisms in each of the following kingdoms except

A) Bacteria

B) Fungi

C) Animals

D) Plants

Q3) Parasites having both male and female reproductive organs are known as A) obligate parasites

B) schizons

C) hermaphrodites

D) accidental parasites

Q4) What are the four groups of parasitic helminthes? Name one parasitic helminth in each group that causes human disease and describe its hosts and transmission.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13

Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25685

Sample Questions

Q1) When an antimicrobial agent permanently denatures proteins thus preventing renaturation to their native states it is considered:

A) bacteriostatic

B) bactericidal

C) bacterial lysis

D) an inhibitor of growth

Q2) Ionizing radiation

A) consists of wavelengths between 400 and 390 nm

B) oxidizes molecules such as riboflavin and porphyrins

C) is tuned to match the energy levels of water molecules

D) dislodges electrons from atoms, creating ions

Q3) An agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria is called a (an)

A) antiseptic

B) bactericide

C) bacteriostatic

D) sanitizer

Q4) What makes a disinfectant desirable? Describe one method for determining the effectiveness of a chemical agent.

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14

Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

53 Verified Questions

53 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25686

Sample Questions

Q1) Any chemical substance used in medical practice is known as a/an

A) antibiotic

B) antimicrobial agent

C) semi-synthetic drug

D) chemotherapeutic agent

Q2) Purine or pyrimidine analogs:

A) act as antimetabolites

B) inhibit ribosome function

C) disrupt cell membrane function

D) inhibit cell wall function

Q3) Antibiotics bind to RNA polymerase and

A) act as base analogs

B) inhibit cell wall synthesis

C) disrupt cell membrane function

D) inhibit transcription

Q4) Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of DNA gyrase?

A) ethambutol

B) ciprofloxacin

C) tobramycin

D) neomycin

Page 15

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease

Processes

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25687

Sample Questions

Q1) An infection that is confined to a specific area of the body:

A) local infection

B) focal infection

C) systemic infection

D) latent infection

Q2) An acute disease becomes ______ when the body can not get rid of it; while a local disease becomes _______ when it disseminates into deeper organs and tissues.

A) contagious; systemic

B) contagious; secondary

C) chronic; systemic

D) chronic; secondary

Q3) Botulinum Toxin

A) when used for cosmetic purposes is called Botox

B) relieves muscle spasms in dystonia

C) is produced by Clostridium botulinum

D) all of the above

Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?

Page 16

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

53 Verified Questions

53 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25688

Sample Questions

Q1) Pathogenic microorganisms that enter the body via contaminated food or water typically infect

A) the respiratory system

B) the skin

C) only vertebrate animals

D) the digestive system

Q2) Transmission of pathogens from person to person via sneezing,coughing or by the affected individual speaking near a susceptible individual are examples of what mode of transmission?

A) vertical transmission

B) indirect contact transmission

C) direct fecal-oral transmission

D) droplet transmission

Q3) Pathogenic microorganisms that are spread from person to person by unwashed hands contaminated by fecal matter is an example of what mode of transmission?

A) fomites

B) indirect contact

C) droplet transmission

D) direct transmission

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17

Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

53 Verified Questions

53 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25689

Sample Questions

Q1) Phagocytic leukocytes that contain oxidative chemicals to kill internalized microorgansisms are called

A) lymphocytes

B) platelets

C) mast cells

D) neutrophils

Q2) Acute phase response proteins

A) include C-reactive protein (CRP) and mannose-binding protein (MBP)

B) bind to and coat the surface of the infectious agent

C) destroy abnormal cells

D) increase resistance of cells to viral infection

Q3) The spleen

A) along with the thymus gland and the skin are all lymphoid organs

B) contains lymph nodes that filter microbes from the lymph

C) filters material but does not contain phagocytes

D) two of the above

Q4) What is the body's first line of defense against microbial danger? Why are these considered non-specific? Why are these considered innate? Is non-specific a better description than innate?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18

Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive

Immunity and Immunization

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25690

Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are types of vaccines except A) killed whole bacteria

B) purified active toxin

C) toxoid

D) live virus

Q2) The ability of the humoral response to produce a vast array of antibodies,each with uniqueness to a given antigen is responsible for the immune system's

A) memory

B) hyperimmune serum

C) heterogeneity

D) homogeneity

Q3) All of the following cells are types of T lymphocytes except A) regulatory

B) delayed hypersensitivity

C) helper

D) plasma

Q4) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.

Page 19

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

57 Verified Questions

57 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25691

Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following are Type III hypersensitivities except

A) granulomatous reactions

B) serum sickness

C) rheumatoid arthritis

D) lupus erythematosus

Q2) All of the following can occur after tissue transplantation except

A) tissue transplants may be rejected and destroyed by the host's immune system

B) the host immune system can become tolerant to the transplanted tissue

C) tissue transplants can launch a cell-mediated response against the recipient's tissue

D) all immune rejection occurs either at the time of the graft or within days after

Q3) Type IV hypersensitivity involves

A) B cells

B) complement

C) immune complexes

D) TH1 cells

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

20

Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25692

Sample Questions

Q1) Burn infections

A) are difficult to diagnose as early signs are often decreased appetite and fatigue

B) are difficult to treat as antibiotics are ineffective against the viruses that cause them

C) with a grapelike odor and greenish discoloration are often due to viruses

D) two of the above

Q2) Gas gangrene was historically thought of as a battlefield injury and thought to have played a role in determining the outcome of armed conflicts. Describe gas gangrene. What causes gas gangrene? Why is amputation so common? And what civilians are susceptible to the disease?

Q3) Aspergillosis

A) in immunodeficient patients causes wound infections

B) causes dry scaly lesions on various parts of skin

C) is responsible for thrush and vaginitis

D) can require amputation

Q4) What's the difference between trachoma and bacterial conjunctivitis? How are they transmitted? Are they both common in the United States? Which one would you rather have?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21

Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25693

Sample Questions

Q1) What are the signs associated with congenital syphilis?

A) Huchinson's teeth

B) Saber shin

C) Saddle-nose

D) all of the above

Q2) Chancroid is characterized by

A) a rash

B) a gumma

C) a painless chancre lesion

D) a painful chancre lesion

Q3) The strains of HPV that cause cervical cancer

A) are the same strains that cause external genital warts

B) also cause cold sores

C) are different from the strains that cause external genital warts

D) two of the above

Q4) Herpes infections are most successfully treated with daily doses of

A) penicillin

B) interferon

C) AZT

D) acyclovir

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22

Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25694

Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about the normal microflora of the respiratory system is incorrect?

A) below the larynx the microflora is resident while above it the microflora is transient

B) healthy lungs are usually sterile

C) the pharynx has the same microflora as the mouth

D) the upper respiratory tract has a normal microflora similar to that of skin

Q2) The etiology of whooping cough is

A) Rhinovirus

B) Bordatella pertussis

C) Corynebacterium

D) Haemophilus

Q3) The paroxysmal stage of whooping cough is characterized by

A) mild, dry, persistent cough

B) a migraine headache

C) violent coughing

D) pseudomembrane forming in throat

Q4) How was the great flu pandemic of 1918 different from other influenza epidemics? What is the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift? What virus do you believe the next deadly pandemic flu strain will come from?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 23

Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25695

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following microbes causes an enteritis that is sometimes misdiagnosed as appendicitis because the symptoms are very similar?

A) Yersinia enterocolitica

B) Salmonella enteritidis

C) Yersinia pestis

D) Campylobacter jejuni

Q2) All of the following refers to typhoid fever except

A) Widal test is used to confirm the diagnosis

B) chloroamphenicol, cephalosporine and fluoroquinolones are used in the treatment

C) requires a surrogate virus infection in order to cause disease

D) internal hemorrhage and perforation of the bowel are serious complications

Q3) Which of the following is not an RNA virus?

A) Hepatitis A

B) Hepatitis B

C) Hepatitis C

D) Hepatitis D

Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Page 24

Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

56 Verified Questions

56 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25696

Sample Questions

Q1) A young girl has a small rash that began as a small red bump but has grown in size with expanding borders for the last two weeks. When you examine it you notice it has red expanding borders with a clearing center and that there are several concentric rings of redness. What is the microbe responsible for the rash? What is its lifecycle? Why is early treatment important? What are ways to prevent and control the disease?

Q2) Inflammation and blockage of lymph ducts leading to elephantiasis is due to which organism?

A) Schistosoma haematobium

B) Streptococus pyogenes

C) Wuchereria bancrofti

D) Staphylococcus aureus

Q3) The mite is the vector for

A) Rickettsialpox

B) Ehrlichiosis

C) Trench fever

D) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25

Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25697

Sample Questions

Q1) One problem with treating Hansen's disease is

A) antibiotics are not effective against the Mycobacterium

B) dapsone-resistant strains are beginning to appear

C) the organism is growing too rapidly for the antibiotic to work

D) the bacteria survive inside the microglial cells

Q2) _______ is the only bacterial species known to destroy peripheral nerve cells.

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Herpes simplex I

C) Clostridium tetani

D) Mycobacterium leprae

Q3) Clostridium tetani can be characterized by all of the following except

A) Gram-positive spore former

B) resistant to drying, disinfection, and heat

C) endospores are killed by boiling for 20 minutes

D) common to soil and human intestines

Q4) Which of the following is not a viral or bacterial cause of meningitis?

A) Naegleria fowleri

B) Haemophilus influenzae type F

C) Treponema pallidum

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Page 26

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

53 Verified Questions

53 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25698

Sample Questions

Q1) Producers obtain CO from

A) eating other producers

B) the atmosphere

C) dead bodies

D) coal

Q2) Which term is matched with its definition?

A) biotic factors - interaction of organisms with other organisms

B) ecology - all organisms in a given area with abiotic and biotic factors

C) ecosystem - organisms that are always found in a given environment

D) niche - recycling of life-essential elements and water

Q3) The indicator organism for human pathogens in a water supply is

A) Escherichia coli

B) Salmonella typhi

C) Poliovirus

D) Staphylococcus aureus

Q4) Phytoplankton include

A) cyanobacterteria

B) diatoms

C) dinoflagellates

D) all of the above

Page 27

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

54 Verified Questions

54 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25699

Sample Questions

Q1) Which microbe lends Swiss cheese its flavor and characteristic holes?

A) Propionibacterium

B) Streptococcus lactis

C) Escherichia coli

D) Staphylococcus

Q2) The yeast responsible for wine and beer is generally

A) Candida

B) Aspergillus

C) Saccharomyces

D) Mucor

Q3) Glutamic acid is probably the amino acid manufactured by fermentation in the greatest quantity. What is its major use?

A) as a flavor enhancer

B) as a raw material for animal feeds

C) a nutritional supplement

D) a starting material for aspartame

Q4) Are food spoilage microorganisms also pathogens? Give examples to support your answer. Outline 4 methods of food preservation. How does each method limit growth of microorganisms?

To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28

Turn static files into dynamic content formats.

Create a flipbook
Issuu converts static files into: digital portfolios, online yearbooks, online catalogs, digital photo albums and more. Sign up and create your flipbook.
Environmental Microbiology Exam Solutions - 1432 Verified Questions by Quizplus - Issuu