Environmental Microbiology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Environmental Microbiology explores the roles and interactions of microorganisms within natural and engineered environments. This course examines the diversity, physiology, and ecology of bacteria, fungi, viruses, and other microbes in processes such as nutrient cycling, biodegradation, and pollution control. Students learn about microbial adaptations to varied habitats, bioremediation strategies, and the global impact of microorganisms on soil, water, and air quality. Through case studies and laboratory techniques, the course highlights the significance of microbes in ecosystem health and their applications in environmental monitoring and sustainable solutions.
Recommended Textbook
Prescotts Microbiology 10th Edition By
Joanne Willey
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43 Chapters
3036 Verified Questions
3036 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Evolution of Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morphovars,serovars,biovars,and pathovars are examples of terms that refer to microbial _______________.
A)species
B)strains
C)types
D)Archaea
Answer: B
Q2) Viruses and bacteria were first cultured in the laboratory at about the same time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) John Tyndall demonstrated that microorganisms present in the air are carried on dust particles.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The branch of microbiology that deals with diseases of humans and animals is called __________ microbiology.
Answer: medical
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Microscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The special dyes used in fluorescence microscopy that absorb light at one wavelength and emit light at a different wavelength are called __________.
Answer: fluorochromes
Q2) Regions of a specimen with higher electron density scatter ___________ electrons and,therefore,appear __________ in the image projected onto the screen of a transmission electron microscope.
A)more; lighter
B)more; darker
C)fewer; darker
D)fewer; lighter
Answer: B
Q3) A 30* objective and a 20* ocular produce a total magnification of A)230*. B)320*.
C)50*.
D)600*. Answer: D
Q4) The __________ is the point at which a lens focuses parallel beams of light. Answer: focal point
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Chapter 3: Bacterial Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gram-positive bacteria have a structurally and chemically more complex cell wall than gram-negative bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Nutrients can be concentrated from dilute solutions by A)pinocytosis.
B)endocytosis.
C)active transport and group translocation.
D)electron transport.
Answer: C
Q3) Sedimentation coefficients are proportional to the molecular weight of a particle and are not affected by the volume and shape of the particle.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) _______ are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.
Answer: Ribosomes
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Archaeal Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A peptidoglycan-like polymer found in the cell walls of some Archaea is called
Q2) The cell membranes of wall-less archaeons are strengthened by
A)diglycerol ethers.
B)glycoprotein or protein layers.
C)pseudomurein.
D)diglycerol tetraethers.
Q3) Bacterial and archaeal ribosomes are known as _____ ribosomes,based on their sedimentation coefficient.
A)50S
B)30S
C)80S
D)70S
Q4) Some archaeal cells lack a cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Archaeal and Bacterial pili are identical in structure and function.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _______ are the site of protein synthesis in the cell.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly discovered microorganism has a circular chromosome that is complexed with histones,but not enclosed within a membrane.The plasma membrane lipids include glycerol dietethers and diglycerol tetraethers.There are no mitochondria or chloroplasts,but the cells do contain 70s ribosomes.This microbe most likely is A)a bacterium.
B)an archaeon.
C)a protozoan.
D)a fungus.
Q2) The formation of carbohydrate (CO<sub>2</sub> fixation)in the dark reaction of photosynthesis,takes place in the A)stroma. B)cytoplasm.
C)thylakoid membrane. D)nucleus.
Q3) Ribosomes are not considered to be organelles because they are not bounded by a membrane.
A)True B)False
Q4) The region of the cell bounded by the plasma membrane is the ______________.
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Chapter 6: Viruses and Other Acellular Infectious Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The simplest viruses consist of
A)RNA only.
B)Protein only.
C)RNA or DNA in a protein coat.
D)RNA or DNA in a protein coat covered with lipid envelope.
E)RNA,DNA and enzymes in a protein coat with a lipid envelope.
Q2) Like bacteria and eukaryotic microorganisms,most viruses can be cultured using artificial media.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ are glycoprotein spikes protruding from the outer surface of the viral envelope.
Q4) Enveloped viruses may enter their host cells by engulfment within coated vesicles (endocytosis).
A)True
B)False
Q5) Viruses such as MS2 and Qß pack additional information into their genomes through the use of overlapping genes.
A)True
B)False
8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the colonies form on the surface of a spread plate,whereas on a pour plate,colonies may be embedded in the agar as well as on the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following methods could be used to detect the presence of viable but nonculturable cells of a pathogen in a water or food specimen?
A)Culture on enriched agar
B)Use of enrichment techniques
C)Polymerase chain reaction
D)Culture on selective agar
Q3) While establishing a symbiotic relationship,plant hosts communicate with bacteria via secretion of flavonoids and bacteria release Nod factors to communicate with the plant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A given medium can be either selective or differential but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Organisms that grow best at pH levels above 10 are called __________
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Chapter 8: Control of Microorganisms in the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If one left a "pasteurized" flask of broth for a long time at room temperature,it would stay sterile forever,at least in principle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following influence(s)the efficiency of an antimicrobial agent?
A)concentration of the agent
B)duration of exposure
C)temperature
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A(n)__________ is a chemical that can be used to sterilize materials.
A)oxidant
B)disinfectant
C)antiseptic
D)sterilant
Q4) Bacteriophage therapy was developed after antibiotics were first discovered and used for treating bacterial infections.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An agent that kills bacteria is referred to as __________.
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Chapter 9: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whose discovery of streptomycin stimulated an intense search for other antibiotics?
A)Waksman
B)Ehrlich
C)Fleming
D)Pasteur
Q2) Who is generally credited with the discovery of sulfanilamide as a chemotherapeutic agent?
A)Gerhard Domagk
B)Ernest Duchesne
C)Ernst Chain
D)Robert Koch
Q3) Development of drug resistance is encouraged by
A)use of a high enough concentration of the drug to destroy any spontaneous resistant mutants that might arise.
B)use of two drugs simultaneously with the hope that each will prevent the emergence of resistance to the other.
C)avoidance of indiscriminate use of drugs.
D)using drugs appropriate for the infectious agent being treated.
E)widespread use of broad-spectrum drugs.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Introduction to Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) In bacterial and archaeal cells,the electron transport chain is located in the _________ whereas in eukaryotic cells,the electron transport chain is located in the
A)inner mitochondrial membrane; outer mitochondrial membrane
B)plasma membrane; outer mitochondrial membrane
C)inner mitochondrial membrane; plasma membrane
D)plasma membrane; mitochondrial matrix
E)plasma membrane; inner mitochondrial membrane
Q2) __________ is the total energy change that accompanies a chemical reaction.
A)Entropy
B)Enthalpy
C)Free energy
D)Synergy
Q3) The most specific term usually used to describe a substance in a biological system that increases the rate of a reaction without being permanently changed by the reaction is a(n)
A)catalyzer.
B)catalyst.
C)enzyme.
D)rate increaser.
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Chapter 11: Catabolism: Energy Release and Conservation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be used as sources of energy by chemolithotrophs?
A)Hydrogen gas
B)Reduced nitrogen compounds
C)Reduced sulfur compounds
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) An organism can take advantage of energy available from both light and from organic molecules and exhibit both phototrophy and chemoorganotrophy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many molecules of NADPH are needed to reduce one molecule of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate by oxygenic phototrophs during the dark reactions of photosynthesis?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)10-12
Q4) Oxygen is always required for the regeneration of NAD from NADH.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ pathways are those that function both catabolically and anabolically.
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Chapter 12: Anabolism: the Use of Energy in Biosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) To convert a nucleoside into a nucleotide,what moiety must be added?
A)One or more purine bases
B)One or more double bonds
C)One or more pyrimidine bases
D)One or more phosphate groups
Q2) Which of the following is not generally true about fatty acids produced by microorganisms?
A)Fatty acids are monocarboxylic acids.
B)Fatty acids have long alkyl chains.
C)Gram-positive bacteria often make cyclopropane fatty acids.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Cells save energy and materials by using many of the same enzymes for both .
Q4) There are __________ common amino acids used to synthesize proteins.
A)20
B)61
C)64
D)25
Q5) Nitrogen fixation is used to form ATP,which is then used for energy reserves.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Bacterial Genome Replication and Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
A)Adenine
B)Cytosine
C)Thymine
D)Uracil
Q2) Prokaryotic DNA replication occurs at a rate of
A)750-1,000 base pairs per second.
B)750-1,000 base pairs per minute.
C)50-100 base pairs per second.
D)50-100 base pairs per minute.
Q3) Which modification of the terminator region of a gene would specifically prevent rho-independent termination?
A)Change in the adenine-rich sequence of nucleotides of the terminator region.
B)Change in the adenine-thymine sequence of the Pribnow box.
C)Change in the sequence that encodes the mRNA leader.
D)Change in the rut binding site.
Q4) The number of N and C termini in a polypeptide chain is equal to the number of amino acids that make up that chain.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Regulation of Bacterial Cellular Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) If autophosphorylation of CheA protein does not occur,then Escherichia coli cells must be
A)in a gradient of a chemoattractant.
B)in a gradient of a chemorepellant.
C)tumbling.
D)rotating flagella clockwise.
Q2) Gene regulation during sporulation in Bacillus subtilis involves BOTH temporal and spatial control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In general,riboswitches regulate in Gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia and in Gram-positive bacteria such as Bacillus.
A)transcription; translation
B)translation; transcription
C)replication; translation
D)transcription; replication
Q4) Riboswitches regulate transcription,rather than translation,in cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Eukaryotic and Archaeal Genome Replication and Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bacterial __________ is the nontranscribed region of the DNA to which RNA polymerase binds in order to initiate transcription.
A)operon
B)operator
C)promoter
D)initiator
Q2) When a DNA molecule is replicated,the daughter molecules contain one strand of parental DNA and one strand of newly synthesized DNA; this is called __________ replication.
A)hemiconservative
B)conservative
C)semiconservative
D)dispersive
Q3) Homologues of the Nascent-chain-associated chaperone (NAC)protein folding system are found in bacteria,eukaryotes,and archaea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proteins that recognize unfolded polypeptides and help them fold into their proper conformations are called ______________.
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Chapter 16: Mechanisms of Genetic Variation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If chromosomal DNA from a host is the only type of DNA carried by a transducing particle,what can be concluded regarding transduction in this case?
A)Transduction in this case is generalized rather than specialized.
B)Transduction in this case is specialized rather than generalized.
C)Transduction in this case could be generalized or specialized depending on the phage involved.
D)Transduction in this case is neither generalized nor specialized.
Q2) The incorporation of a single strand of donor DNA into a recipient DNA duplex so that the donor strand replaces one of the strands or the recipient duplex generates __________ DNA.
A)aberrant
B)unstable
C)heterogeneous
D)heteroduplex
Q3) During generalized transduction
A)the host chromosome is degraded into randomly sized fragments.
B)any DNA fragment of the appropriate size is packaged.
C)any bacterial gene may be transferred to the subsequent host.
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 17: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A DNA molecule used to carry a foreign gene into a host organism is called a A)plasmid.
B)vector.
C)probe.
D)blot.
Q2) Which is a true statement regarding the size of PCR products?
A)Since the number of DNA products ending exactly between both primers increases with each cycle,when PCR is completed,the majority of products are of similar size.
B)Since the number of DNA products extends beyond each primer with each cycle,when PCR is completed,the majority of products are of various sizes.
C)Since the length of primers increases with each cycle,when PCR is completed,the majority of products are of various sizes.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) The PCR method was developed by A)Boyer.
B)Mullis.
C)Cohen.
D)Sanger.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dideoxynucleotide sequencing methodologies rely on the ability of dideoxynucleotides to facilitate chain extension after incorporation by DNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In an experiment,you have created a microbial strain in which you have deleted a single gene; to evaluate the transcriptome and the proteome,you
A)run microarray analysis.
B)perform DNA sequencing.
C)run two-dimensional gels.
D)run microarray analysis and two-dimensional gels.
Q3) _______________ is the field concerned with the management and analysis of biological data using computers.
Q4) Which of the following is not a required characteristic of antigens from microbial pathogens that might be used in vaccine production?
A)It must be excreted or found on the surface of the pathogen.
B)It must be found in all strains of the pathogen.
C)It must be essential for the survival of the pathogen in the host.
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Microbial Taxonomy and the Evolution of Diversity
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a phylogenetic tree,each node (branchpoint)represents a divergence event,and the length of the branches represents the number of molecular changes that have taken place between the nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Although there are other classification schemes for prokaryotes,the one used in Bergey's Manual is currently considered by most microbiologists to be the most accurate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A general term used to describe groups based on mutual similarity or evolutionary relatedness is ______.
A)class
B)taxa
C)system
D)group
Q4) In an approach called __________ taxonomy,relatedness is determined by a wide range of phenotypic and genotypic information.
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Q5) Bacterial strains that have distinct antigenic properties are called __________.
Chapter 20: Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some archaeons are symbionts in animal digestive tracts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Archaeal promoters are most similar to those of _______.
A)viruses
B)bacteria
C)eukaryotes
D)both viruses and bacteria
Q3) Archaeal sulfate reducers use elemental sulfur as an electron acceptor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Archaea in the class _______ are thermoacidophiles that lack cell walls,but strengthen their plasma membranes with large quantities of caldarchaeol,glycoproteins,and lipid-containing polysaccharides.
A)Thermoplasmata
B)Thermococci
C)Pyrococci
D)Archaeoglobus
Q5) The metabolic feature that defines Thaumarchaeota is _______ _______.
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Chapter 21: The Deinococci, Mollicutes, and Nonproteobacterial
Gram-Negative
Bacteria
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Q1) Bacteroides inhabit the intestinal tract of mammals and benefit the host by degrading which of the following?
A)Cellulose
B)Pectin
C)Complex carbohydrates
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Mollicutes,in the phylum Tenericutes,includes all bacteria that lack walls and do not synthesize peptidoglycan precursors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The infectious stage of chlamydiae is called a(n)______ body.
A)elementary
B)reticulate
C)contagious
D)oogonial
Q4) Mollicutes,such as Mycoplasma species,are able to colonize mucous membranes and can lead to pneumonia and respiratory tract disease.
A)True
B)False
23
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Chapter 22: The Proteobacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stalk of Caulobacter increases in the surface area of the cell,which facilitates absorption of nutrients from nutrient poor environments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sulfate-reducing bacteria (SRB)are very important in the cycling of sulfur within ecosystems because significant amounts of sulfate are present in almost all aquatic and terrestrial habitats,making SRB widespread and active.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Caulobacter is a genus of bacteria with a unique cell division cycle that yields two morphologically distinct cell types.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A strategy used by dissimilatory metal-reducing bacteria that enable their use of insoluble compounds as electron acceptors is to transfer electrons to the metal via external,intermediary compounds such as .
Q5) A ______ is a hollow tubelike structure that surrounds a chain of cells.
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Chapter 23: Firmicutes: The Low G-C Gram-Positive Bacteria
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Q1) Which of the following genera is photosynthetic using bacteriochlorophyll g?
A)Heliobacterium
B)Veillonella
C)Clostridium
D)Caryophanon
Q2) It has been determined from several human disease samples that bacteria exist that are 16S rRNA sequenced to be Gram-positive,but morphologically double-membraned like Gram-negatives,therefore requiring a new class.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Members of the genus Thermoactinomyces
A)produce spores on its hyphae.
B)are commonly found in damp haystacks and compost piles.
C)are thermophiles.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Which of the following is used in the production of buttermilk and cheese?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Streptococcus mutans
C)Enterococcus faecalis
D)Lactococcus lactis
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Chapter 24: Actinobacteria: the High G-C Gram-Positive Bacteria
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Q1) The sexual spores of actinomycetes are called sporangiospores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Actinoplanetes that dwell in the soil play an important role in plant and animal decomposition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Actinoplanetes have extensive __________ mycelia.
Q4) Actinomycetes
A)form asexual spores.
B)form sexual spores,that is,they are used for sexual reproduction.
C)form heat resistant spores.
D)do not form spores.
Q5) Which of the following antibiotics is (are)produced by actinoplanetes?
A)Nalidixic acid
B)Gentamicin
C)Cycloserine
D)Penicillin
Q6) Actinomycete spores are usually formed on __________ mycelia.
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Chapter 25: Protists
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Q1) Some amoebae have a covering over their plasma membrane.These amoebae are referred to as ____________ amoebae.
Q2) A cyst formed by a protist functions
A)as a protective mechanism against adverse changes in the environment.
B)in repair of damage to the cell envelope.
C)in transfer from one host to the next.
D)as a protective mechanism against adverse changes in the environment and in transfer from one host to the next.
Q3) What is the most likely reason the peronsporomycetes were originally thought to be fungi?
A)Macroscopic appearance of fuzzy growth
B)Cell wall composition
C)Yeast like cellular morphology
D)Life cycle similar to that of many fungi
Q4) _____________ produce 40 to 50 percent of the organic carbon in the ocean.
Q5) Which of the following is not true of the Chloroplastida (green algae)?
A)Their cell walls contain chitin.
B)They are found in fresh and salt water.
C)They have chlorophylls a and b.
D)They store carbohydrates as starch.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Fungi Eumycota
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hallucinogen LSD is a product of _________.
A)yeasts
B)zygomycetes
C)ascomycetes
D)basidiomycetes
Q2) All of the following are included in the Basidiomycetes EXCEPT _________.
A)stolons
B)puffballs
C)yeasts
D)smuts
Q3) Which of the following genetic notations refers to a dikaryotic fungal stage?
A)n
B)2n
C)n + n
D)2n +2n
E)2n + n
Q4) Fungi are decomposers,converting carbon from CO<sub>2</sub> into organic macromolecules.
A)True
B)False
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Viruses
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Q1) A bacteriophage that can integrate its genome into the host chromosome and not cause lysis of the host cell is said to be ________.
A)virulent
B)avirulent
C)moderate
D)temperate
Q2) The enzyme used by retroviruses to make a DNA copy of their RNA genome is called A)RNA polymerase.
B)DNA polymerase.
C)RNA replicase.
D)reverse transcriptase.
Q3) Although poliovirus capsids contain several distinct proteins,these are synthesized as a single polypeptide then cleaved by proteases to produce the individual proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parvoviruses are among the simplest known DNA viruses of animals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ mRNA is synthesized before replication of the viral nucleic acid.
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Chapter 28: Biogeochemical Cycling and Global Climate Change
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Q1) Microbes such as Geobacter metallireducens obtain energy from organic matter under anaerobic conditions by using ferric iron as a(n)__________ __________.
Q2) A single outbreak of a tropical infectious disease in a temperate climate is considered evidence of the effects of global climate change on infectious disease epidemiology.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following does not contribute to the increasing levels of methane in the atmosphere?
A)Methane production in termites
B)Methane production in rice paddies
C)Methane production at sewage treatment plants
D)Methane production beneath an aerobic water column
Q4) When a usable organic electron donor is present,sulfate serves as a terminal electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration by _______.
A)Desulfovibrio
B)Desulfonema
C)Archaeoglobus
D)All of the choices are correct.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When doing SSU (small subunit ribosomal RNA)of a mixed population of microbes from an environmental sample,specific _______ are identified.
A)phenotypes
B)phylotypes
C)genotypes
D)unknown microbes
Q2) Which of the following is microscopy in which the microscope is fitted with light filters that enable the excitation of the specimen with a specific wavelength?
A)Epifluorescence microscopy
B)Electron microscopy
C)Bright-field microscopy
D)Dark-field microscopy
Q3) The technique known as content,DNA sequence,and chemical gradient.Hence,similar fragments can be separated and identified.
Q4) The use of modern molecular techniques has provided a mechanism for growing the microorganisms previously referred to as unculturable.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Microorganisms in Marine and Freshwater
Ecosystems
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Q1) Microbes within glaciers are ______.
A)dormant
B)active
C)non-existent
D)barophilic
Q2) Bacteria in the\(\alpha\)-proteobacterial clade _______ are the most abundant organisms on Earth and demonstrate unique adaptations to life in the oligotrophic open ocean. or or
Q3) Silicobacter pomeroyi produces carbon monoxide dehydrogenases so that it can use carbon monoxide as a source of carbon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Water ecosystems become eutrophic when there is ______.
A)nutrient enrichment of waters
B)nutrient removal from waters
C)acidification of waters
D)deoxygenation of waters
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Chapter 31: Microorganisms in Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the process of forming a root nodule,species of Rhizobium differentiate to form a type of cell called a ________.
A)lymph node
B)bacteroid
C)nucleoid
D)vesicle
Q2) Enzymes,once released from plant and animal cells,can remain present and function independent of the organisms that synthesized them.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Porous geological structures below the plant root zone where water flows are known as glaciated subterranean lakes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Agrobacterium has the ability to infect plants and produce tumor-like growths.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Microbes that live on the surface of plants are called __________ . or
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Chapter 32: Microbial Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mussels and sponges sometimes contain methanotrophs as intracellular symbionts because the methanotrophs
A)remove otherwise toxic levels of methane from the environment.
B)convert methane to carbohydrate for use by the host.
C)allow the partnership to use hydrogen sulfide as a source of electrons.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) In mutualism
A)the mutualist is dependent on the host.
B)a reciprocal benefit accrues to both partners.
C)the partners will not survive separately in many cases.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) From which body region would you expect to isolate Clostridium,Bacteroides,Fusobacterium and other anaerobic genera?
A)Large intestine
B)Skin
C)Nasopharynx
D)Stomach
Q4) The specialized structure in a tube worm in which endosymbiotic,chemolithotrophic bacteria live is called a(n)__________.
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Chapter 33: Innate Host Resistance
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cells undergo maturation in the bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following characteristics differentiates mast cells from neutrophils and monocytes?
A)Mast cells do not act as phagocytes.
B)Mast cells are derived from bone marrow.
C)Mast cells participate in the inflammatory response.
D)Mast cells originate as stem cells.
Q3) Lactobacillus contributes to the antimicrobial defenses for the adult female reproductive tract by making lactic acid to lower the pH.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood cell development occurs in the bone marrow of mammals during the process of _________.
A)hemolysis
B)hematopoesis
C)hemostasis
D)homeostasis
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Chapter 34: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to a genetic defect,an individual is unable to make T cytotoxic cells.Predict the most likely consequence.
A)The individual will not be able to synthesize any antibodies.
B)The individual will have SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency disease).
C)The person will have frequent infections caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.
D)The person will not be able to adequately fight viral infections and infections caused by intracellular bacteria.
Q2) Which type of hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated?
A)Type IV
B)Type III
C)Type II
D)Type I
Q3) Which of the following antibodies is (are)involved in opsonization?
A)IgG<sub>1</sub>
B)IgG<sub>3</sub>
C)IgD
D)Only IgG<sub>1</sub> and IgG<sub>3</sub>
Q4) Antigens that depend on the function of T-helper cells are called __________ antigens.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Pathogenicity and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) An animal that is infected with a parasitic organism that can also infect humans is called a(n)________ host.
A)reservoir
B)endoparasitic
C)transfer
D)intermediate
Q2) Virulence may be measured experimentally at the host level by the __________ __________ __________,which measures the number of pathogens that kills 50% of an experimental group of hosts within a specified amount of time.
Q3) In which of the following situations did disease develop due to vertical transmission of the pathogen?
A)A fetus develops listeriosis after unpasteurized cheese infected with Listeria bacteria is consumed by the mother during pregnancy
B)A traveler develops gastroenteritis after drinking water that is contaminated with Escherichia coli bacteria
C)A dog develops rabies after being scratched during a fight with a raccoon that carries the virus
D)A hospitalized patient develops MRSA bacteria in a wound following surgery
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Chapter 36: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Detection of single or multiple microorganisms based on their cytometric parameters is known as _________.
A)flow cytometry
B)complement fixation
C)agglutination
D)serotyping
Q2) Clinical microbiologists diagnose some diseases by detecting and measuring the specific host response to the infection.What subdiscipline encompasses these methods?
A)Immunology
B)Microscopy
C)Physiology
D)Genetics
E)Ecology
Q3) The indirect immunosorbent assay detects antibodies rather than antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of rRNA gene sequences to identify bacterial strains is referred to as
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Chapter 37: Epidemiology and Public Health Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sudden increase in the occurrence of a disease above the expected level is called _________.
A)sporadic
B)hyperendemic
C)an endemic
D)an epidemic
Q2) Most organisms that cause health-care-associated infections come from endogenous sources.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An epidemic is
A)a disease that maintains a steady low-level frequency.
B)when a disease occurs occasionally and at erratic intervals in the human population.
C)a sudden increase in the occurrence of a disease above the expected level.
D)a sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a limited segment of a population.
Q4) Ebola Fever would be classified as a communicable non-infectious disease.
A)True
B)False
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Human Diseases Caused by Viruses and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is known to activate the genital herpes virus?
A)Sunlight
B)Stress
C)Sex hormones
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The most likely mode of transmission of the common cold is by hand-to-hand contact between a rhinovirus donor and a susceptible recipient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who should be vaccinated against rabies?
A)Nurses
B)Farmers
C)Veterinarians
D)Physicians
Q4) Which of the following is the typical mode of transmission for hepatitis C?
A)Contaminated blood and blood products
B)Inhalation of droplets
C)Bite from body louse
D)Contaminated shellfish
Q5) The AIDS virus becomes established in cells bearing the __________ receptor.
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Chapter 39: Human Diseases Caused by Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Escherichia coli O157:H7 is a major cause of hemorrhagic colitis in the United.States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the target of anthrax protective antigen (PA),edema factor,and lethal factor?
A)Endothelial cells lining the capillaries
B)Cells lining the alveoli in the lungs
C)Neurons
D)Macrophages
Q3) Mycobacterial infections in AIDS patients are mostly likely to be caused by
A)Mycobacterium avium complex
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C)Mycobacterium bovis
D)Mycobacterium africanum
Q4) Identity confirmation of Yersinia pestis by advanced laboratory techniques can be carried out in almost any hospital clinical laboratory.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Human Diseases Caused by Fungi and Protists
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Sample Questions
Q1) An American nurse returning from serving in a hospital in the Congo experienced chills,fever,and sweats.The fever cycle peaked about every 48 hours.Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?
A)Histoplasmosis
B)Leishmaniasis
C)African sleeping sickness
D)Malaria
Q2) Removal of Giardia intestinalis from municipal water supplies involves the use of
A)rapid sand filters
B)slow sand filters
C)gamma radiation
D)predatory microorganisms
Q3) Which of the fungi listed below will stay localized to the skin surface and will not invade and spread?
A)Trichophyton spp.
B)Candida spp.
C)Sporothrix schenckii
D)Blastomyces dermatitidis
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Chapter 41: Microbiology of Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chemical that is effective in preserving foods with a low pH such as bread is
A)sodium propionate
B)sodium nitrate
C)sodium citrate
D)sodium sulfite
Q2) The process of beer lagering involves _________.
A)carbonation
B)aging
C)distillation
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Mashing is a process involving _________.
A)carbonation
B)protein putrefaction
C)inoculation
D)carbohydrate hydrolysis
Q4) In breadmaking,yeast growth is usually carried out under ____________ conditions,which results in more carbon dioxide production and less alcohol accumulation. or
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Chapter 42: Biotechnology and Industrial Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of using Bt to control insects?
A)Bt does not accumulate in the soil or in nontarget animals.
B)Bt is easily degraded in the natural environment.
C)It is a rather new agent,being only a few years old,so insects have not had time to develop resistance.
D)Two of these are useful traits for the safe use of Bt to control insects.
Q2) Phenylacetic acid is added to the penicillin fermentation to allow incorporation of which side chain group?
A)Acetyl
B)Benzyl
C)Methyl
D)Propyl
Q3) The major organism used in the microbial production of citric acid is _________.
A)Penicillium notatum
B)Rhizopus nigrificans
C)Aspergillus niger
D)Lactobacillus delbrueckii
Q4) In many ways,______________ as a biofuel compares very favorably to ethanol and other fuels. or
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Applied Environmental Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a microbial fuel cell,why are the organisms fed a rich diet of organic substrates?
A)The organic substrates ensure that the cells remain in log phase of the growth curve.
B)The organic substrates ensure that very little biosysnthesis is completed to maximize the amount of substrate being oxidized instead.
C)The organic substrates ensure that waste products are kept to a minimum.
D)The organic substrates ensure that sufficient ATP is produced to drive the reaction.
Q2) Biodegradation of oil in soil is difficult due to a lack of ______________,which is very expensive to introduce into the sediments.
A)nitrogen
B)phosphorous
C)oxygen
D)carbon
Q3) All coliforms can grow at 44.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C.
A)True
B)False
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