Course Introduction
Environmental Biology
Textbook Exam Questions
Environmental Biology explores the complex relationships between living organisms and their physical surroundings. This course covers fundamental ecological principles, energy flow, population dynamics, biodiversity, and the impact of human activities on ecosystems. Students will investigate environmental issues such as pollution, resource management, conservation, and climate change. Emphasis is placed on understanding the biological basis of these challenges and developing scientific approaches to promote sustainability and protect natural habitats. Through lectures, laboratory work, and field studies, learners gain a comprehensive appreciation of how biological systems interact with and adapt to their environment.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Q1) What is the purpose of the "control" in a controlled experiment?
Answer: The control will have only one variable compared to the treatment group.The control group provides a basis for comparison.
Q2) Which of the following is at the root cause for all cancers?
A)antibiotic resistance
B)obesity
C)the normal cell division process
D)a breakdown of the cell division process
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is true?
A)A scientific theory is a hunch about a natural event.
B)A scientific fact and a scientific theory carry the same weight in the scientific community.
C)A scientific theory explains what we know to this date about a natural event.
D)A scientific theory is the final answer to a question about a natural event.
Answer: C
Q4) A set of disciplines that focuses on varying aspects of the living world falls under the category of ________.
Answer: life sciences
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and
Ph
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Sample Questions
Q1) An element with 22 protons,22 neutrons,and 22 electrons would have an atomic number of:
A)44.
B)22.
C)66.
D)11.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following results from the making of a bond?
A)Atoms become more reactive.
B)Molecules are broken down.
C)Electrons are destroyed.
D)Atoms become more stable.
Answer: D
Q3) Water is a polar molecule because:
A)oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen.
B)hydrogen has more neutrons than oxygen.
C)oxygen has more electrons than hydrogen.
D)oxygen has more neutrons than hydrogen.
E)hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you removed the cuticle from the skin of an apple,the:
A)apple would absorb moisture and get soggy.
B)apple would lose water and dehydrate.
C)seeds of the apple would die.
D)apple would be inedible.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is the correct order for the flow of information in the cell?
A)Proteins code for DNA, which codes for RNA.
B)RNA codes for DNA, which codes for protein.
C)DNA codes for protein, which codes for RNA.
D)DNA codes for RNA, which codes for protein.
Answer: D
Q3) Describe the structure of phospholipids,and state where they are found in cells.
Answer: Phospholipids have hydrophobic tails and hydrophilic heads.This allows them to form a layer in which the hydrophilic heads will point toward water outside and the hydrophobic tails point away from the water and associate with the hydrophobic tails of other phospholipids.Phospholipids are largely found in the outer membrane of a cell.
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Q1) The compartment that holds most of a eukaryotic cell's DNA is the ________.
Q2) Nerve cells have long thin extensions of their cell membrane called axons.The cell has to get mitochondria from the body of the cell all the way down to the end of the axon to provide energy for nerve signal transmission.What structure in a nerve cell would be involved in moving the mitochondria,and how would it work?
Q3) The cytoskeleton is an internal scaffolding used for cellular movement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cells contain organized structures that perform a specific function.These are known as:
A)organs.
B)organelles.
C)cytoplasm.
D)prokaryotes.
E)tissues.
Q5) List the sequence of organelles a protein would pass through as it moves through the endomembrane system to the exterior of the cell.
Q6) Actin forms cytoskeletal fibers called ________.
Q7) Name and describe three organelles that are common to animal and plant cells.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Q1) Which of the following is an accurate description of the plasma membrane?
A)It is a phospholipid bilayer embedded with proteins.
B)It separates the nuclear contents from the environment.
C)It is permeable to all substances.
D)It is a solid material.
Q2) Diffusion occurs because of random molecular movement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You have lost a lot of blood in an accident.In the emergency room the first thing the doctors will need to do is replace lost fluids.The fluids they give you should be:
A)isotonic to your cells.
B)hypotonic to your cells.
C)hypertonic to your cells.
D)either hypertonic or isotonic to your cells.
E)either hypertonic or hypotonic to your cells.
Q4) The hydrophilic region of the phospholipid bilayer faces to the interior of the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Q1) The study of the thermodynamics of biology is known as ________.
Q2) What percentage of the energy stored in glucose do humans recover by cellular respiration?
A)100 percent
B)48 percent
C)52 percent
D)37 percent
E)15 percent
Q3) In the ATP/ADP cycle:
A)food provides the energy needed to link phosphate to ADP to make ATP.
B)food provides the energy needed to break down ATP into ADP.
C)converting ADP into ATP is an energy-yielding reaction, whereas converting ATP into ADP is an energy-requiring reaction.
D)after powering a reaction, ADP becomes ATP.
Q4) Plants provide animals with which of the following?
A)food
B)oxygen
C)carbon dioxide
D)food and oxygen
E)food and carbon dioxide
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chemical equation that summarizes the process of cellular respiration is:
A)C H O + 6CO + 36ADP + 36P 6O + 6H O + 36ATP
B)6O + 6H O + 36 ATP C H O + O + 36ADP + 36P
C)C H 2O + 6O + 36ATP 6O + 6H O + 36 ADP + 36P
D)C H O + 6O + 36ADP + 36P 6O + 6H O + 36ATP
Q2) Cells capture the energy from food and store it in the form of:
A)glucose.
B)ATP.
C)oxygen.
D)heat.
E)carbon dioxide.
Q3) As you know,all living things require a source of nutrients.Using animals as an example,explain what these nutrients are used for once they leave the digestive tract.
Q4) ________ means "sugar splitting."
Q5) The enzymes used by the Krebs cycle are located:
A)in the cytosol.
B)in the inner compartment of the mitochondrion.
C)attached to the inner mitochondrial membrane.
D)between the inner membrane and outer mitochondrial membrane.
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Q1) You perform an experiment using an aquatic plant called elodea to determine which color of light is most effective at driving photosynthesis.You take three plants,immersed under water,and place plant A under blue light,plant B under red light,and plant C under green light.You notice bubbles coming off the leaves.More bubbles are coming from plants A and B,and few are coming from plant C.What is producing the bubbles? How do these results determine which color of light is most effective at driving photosynthesis?
Q2) The Calvin cycle takes place in the:
A)thylakoids.
B)grana.
C)stroma.
D)cytoplasm.
Q3) The transfer of electrons from chlorophyll a molecules to the primary electron acceptor is an example of a/an:
A)redox reaction.
B)synthesis reaction.
C)light reaction.
D)absorption reaction.
Q4) Describe how cellular respiration and photosynthesis are different.
Q5) The enzyme ________ can bind both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a cell with two nuclei were discovered,which of the explanations below would be true?
A)Mitosis occurred without cytokinesis.
B)The cell remained in interphase continuously.
C)Meiosis and mitosis both occurred.
D)Cytokinesis occurred without mitosis.
Q2) The ________ of an organism is its complete collection of genetic information.
Q3) What is the initial step in DNA replication?
A)breakdown of the nuclear envelope
B)formation of the mitotic spindle
C)formation of the cleavage furrow
D)unwinding of the DNA double helix
Q4) During the cytokinesis phase of cell division,plant cells develop a cell plate instead of a cleavage furrow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a dividing human cell reaches telophase,23 nuclear membranes must form,one for each pair of chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Q1) Different species can sometimes interbreed to produce hybrid offspring.For example,the breeding of a horse with a donkey produces a mule.However,these hybrids are usually sterile.A horse will produce gametes with 32 chromosomes,and a donkey will produce gametes with 31 chromosomes,resulting in a mule with 63 chromosomes.Using your understanding of meiosis,propose a reason why mules are sterile.
Q2) A plant branch that regenerates roots and develops into another plant is:
A)genetically unique.
B)the product of a special type of sexual reproduction.
C)the product of self-fertilization.
D)the product of a recombination event.
E)genetically identical to the plant from which the branch was taken.
Q3) You have homologous pairs of chromosomes in each of your cells.In what way are these pairs of chromosomes identical?
A)They have exactly the same genes.
B)They both come from the same parent.
C)They have genes for the same traits.
D)They will stay together during meiosis.
Q4) Once produced,a zygote will divide by ________ to develop into a whole organism.
Q5) ________ have both male and female reproductive parts.
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Q1) If a plant heterozygous for the genes for both seed color and shape is self-fertilized,the ratio of offspring with smooth,green seeds is ________/16.(Yellow and smooth are the dominant phenotypes.)
Q2) Consider the following information for a dihybrid cross.The dominant allele F codes for freckles,whereas the recessive allele f codes for no freckles.The dominant allele E codes for long eyelashes,whereas the recessive allele e codes for short eyelashes.Both parents have the genotypes of ee and Ff.Indicate the following: (1)the phenotype of both parents,(2)the possible gametes that each parent can make,(3)all of the possible phenotypes for the offspring,and (4)the phenotypic ratio obtained after the Punnett square is drawn.
Q3) In order to track the inheritance of a single character,you would need to do a:
A)monohybrid cross.
B)dihybrid cross.
C)trihybrid cross.
D)true-breeding cross.
Q4) In the Law of ________,Mendel stated that two genetic elements are separated in gamete formation.
Q5) Identical twins are genetically the same but do not always look or act exactly alike.Propose a hypothesis to explain this.
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Q1) What condition is caused by a dominant allele of a single gene?
A)Down syndrome
B)sickle-cell anemia
C)Huntington disease
D)color blindness
E)Turner syndrome
Q2) A person with an inherited disorder has children with a person who does not have the condition.Half the children have the disorder,both sons and daughters.How is this condition inherited?
A)autosomal dominant
B)autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
E)aneuploidy
Q3) The condition in which an organism has more than two sets of chromosomes is called ________,while having either more or fewer than the normal number of a particular chromosome is called ________.
Q4) Polyploidy is better tolerated in plants than in animals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Q1) Mutations will not be passed on to the next generation if they occur in ________ cells.
Q2) What happens to the two original strands of a DNA molecule after the DNA has replicated?
A)After serving as replication templates, the two original strands are rejoined.
B)After serving as replication templates, the two original strands are destroyed.
C)Nucleotides from the original strands are randomly incorporated into the new strands.
D)Incomplete segments of the original strands end up in each newly synthesized strand.
E)Each original strand ends up paired with a newly synthesized strand.
Q3) The structure of DNA allows repair of simple damage.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Individuals who have a disease such as melanoma do not necessarily have offspring with melanoma.However,individuals with Huntington disease often do pass it on to their offspring.What accounts for the difference in the heritability of the two diseases?
Q5) A mutation involving a single base pair in the genome is called a ________.
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Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription,
and Regulation
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Q1) The set of nucleotides on a tRNA that base-pairs with nucleotides on an mRNA is the:
A)anticodon.
B)codon.
C)template.
D)primary transcript.
E)P site.
Q2) Which of the following is considered "non-coding" DNA?
A)rRNA genes
B)exons
C)genes that are not constantly transcribed but may be turned on in some cells
D)introns
Q3) How large is the human genome?
A)3)2 billion base pairs
B)10 billion base pairs
C)1 million base pairs
D)1 trillion base pairs
E)3 million base pairs
Q4) The codon AAC in mRNA will match with the tRNA anticodon sequence ________.
Q5) What are the basic differences between DNA and RNA molecules?
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Q1) Reproductive cloning has been used to clone humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which choice is an example of "recombinant DNA"?
A)DNA that has been amplified by PCR
B)any DNA that has been removed from a cell
C)DNA that has been cut with a restriction enzyme
D)a bacterial plasmid combined with a human gene
Q3) What property of restriction enzymes allows DNA from different organisms to be combined?
A)Restriction enzymes cut DNA randomly, so any DNAs might be combined.
B)Restriction enzymes cut only small transformable fragments, not large chromosomal DNA.
C)Because restriction enzymes are naturally found in bacteria, they cut all transformed DNA.
D)If the same restriction enzyme cuts two different DNAs, the ends are complementary.
Q4) The study of matching different sets of DNA based on the number of short tandem repeats is called ________.
Q5) Define recombinant DNA.
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Who believed the species on Earth changed over time as a result of periodic great catastrophes?
A)Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck
B)Georges Cuvier
C)Alfred Russel Wallace
D)Charles Lyell
Q2) Darwin studied a small group of finches on the ________ during his round-the-world trip.
Q3) Charles Darwin usually gets more credit for the theory of evolution than Alfred Russel Wallace because Darwin thought of the idea first and published a mass of evidence in its support.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Scientists have been able to date objects from nearly the formation of the Earth using:
A)homologous features.
B)comparative morphology.
C)genetic clocks.
D)radiometric dating.
18
Q5) The length of time that Darwin's round-the-world voyage took was about
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Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) A population is:
A)a group of organisms that can successfully interbreed in nature but do not interbreed with other such groups.
B)all the members of a species that live in a defined geographic region at the same time.
C)all the different species that live in a defined geographic area at the same time.
D)a group of different species that share common features.
Q2) Two nearby populations in which there is some movement of individuals between the populations are an example of:
A)disruptive selection.
B)bottleneck effect.
C)genetic drift.
D)gene flow.
Q3) At its most basic level,evolution is a:
A)change in the frequency of alleles in a population.
B)change in the frequency of alleles in an individual.
C)new species arising from an existing species.
D)change in an individual's phenotype caused by mutations.
Q4) The original source of variation within a population comes from ________.
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Q1) What causes geographic isolation for one kind of organism may not be isolating for another kind of organism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is desirable for a classification system to be based on the evolutionary history of the organisms being studied.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A population of mountain-dwelling salamanders migrates and splits into two populations separated by a valley they can not cross.The speciation process that may occur is:
A)allopatric.
B)temporal.
C)behavioral.
D)sympatric.
Q4) The practice of giving a two-part scientific name to every distinct organism is called
Q5) Describe the difference between homologous and analogous structures in organisms,and give an example of each.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Of the following groups,which have been in existence the longest?
A)multicellular animals
B)cyanobacteria
C)gastropods
D)green algae
Q2) Sections of the geologic timescale are defined by:
A)how close the rocks are to the surface of the earth.
B)whether the rocks are metamorphic or sedimentary.
C)the age of the rocks.
D)the kinds of fossils present.
Q3) An organelle that probably evolved from an independent organism that moved inside and began to live within a eukaryotic cell is the:
A)mitochondrion.
B)nucleus.
C)Golgi apparatus.
D)endoplasmic reticulum.
Q4) The earliest evidence of life on Earth dates to about 3.8 billion years ago.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Life first evolved in and the earliest forms of life lived in ________.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) The missing label indicated by a "1" in the figure should be:
A)Australopithecus afarensis.
B)Australopithecus africanus.
C)Homo ergaster.
D)Homo neanderthalensis.
Q2) The fossils of Australopithecines indicate that,even though they walked upright,their arms were longer than their legs,and their feet still contained a partially opposable big toe.What does this suggest to you about their habitat and lifestyle?
Q3) Homo sapiens and Homo neanderthalensis coexisted for thousands of years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Modern humans are classified as belonging to the species ________.
Q5) Homo floresiensis represents a branching point for modern humans in Africa.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The first wave of modern human migration reached Europe and northern Asia.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
Q7) The ability for a hominin to walk upright is referred to as ________.
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Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) Cells such as those of golden algae that form stable associations but do not take on specialized roles are described as:
A)incomplete unicellular.
B)selective multicellularity.
C)true multicellularity.
D)colonial multicellularity.
Q2) Defend the position that bacteria are both beneficial and detrimental to humans.
Q3) Bacteria that benefit from living in or on us while we are unaffected by the relationship are termed:
A)commensal.
B)pathogenic.
C)mutualistic.
D)probiotic.
Q4) Protists are arguably the most diverse of the eukaryotic kingdoms.Defend that statement using examples to support your ideas.
Q5) Bacteria are considered to be a type of protist.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Overuse of antibiotics has likely produced MRSA.MRSA stands for ________.
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) The cell walls of fungi contain:
A)chitin.
B)cellulose.
C)phospholipids.
D)DNA.
Q2) Fungi obtain food exclusively by decomposing dead organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some fungi are photosynthetic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each nucleus is haploid in dikaryotic cells in certain fungi.What does this mean regarding the chromosomes in each nucleus?
Q5) Yeast are an example of:
A)photosynthetic fungi.
B)unicellular fungi.
C)fungi-like bacteria.
D)fungi with no cell walls.
Q6) The spore-releasing structure found in the zygomycetes is called a ________.
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Q7) Discuss the ways in which fungi are both helpful and harmful to human society.
Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) The term "arthropod" best translates as:
A)human-like.
B)outside skeleton.
C)sharp jaws.
D)jointed leg.
E)hairy legs.
Q2) As part of your independent study in field biology,you are sent to a small,inland sea.In one of your samples,you discover a small eel-like creature.It has a stiff,rod-shaped structure running the length of its dorsal side,with a line of nervous tissue running along with it.You would begin the process of classifying this organism by placing it in phylum:
A)Vertebrata.
B)Arthropoda.
C)Chordata.
D)Cnidaria.
E)Mollusca.
Q3) Discuss why nearly all larger animals have circulatory systems,and describe the differences between the open circulatory system and the closed circulatory system.
Q4) Animals that do not have a backbone are called ________.
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) In plant life cycles,eggs and sperm are produced by mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of plants?
A)chloroplasts
B)hyphae
C)a mycelium
D)a cell wall made of chitin
Q3) Most angiosperms are pollinated with the help of: A)animals.
B)wind.
C)water currents.
D)farming techniques.
E)fungi.
Q4) Ginkgo biloba belongs in the plant group ________.
Q5) The life cycle of mosses contains only a haploid generation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Movement of the hormone ________ to different areas of a plant to promote growth is one of the ways a plant is able to respond to external signals.
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) The female gametophyte generation of angiosperms is represented by:
A)pollen grains.
B)embryo sacs.
C)seeds.
D)pollen tubes.
Q2) Sepals are:
A)pollen-producing structures.
B)leaf-like structures that protect a flower before it opens.
C)pollen receptacles on a carpel.
D)insect-attracting structures of the flower.
Q3) Of the two basic structures of an angiosperm plant,roots are described as having the more straightforward function,while shoots have more complex functions.Evaluate and explain why this is true.
Q4) Ground tissue forms the bulk of the primary plant.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Carpels are the often-colorful parts of a flower that attract pollinators.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The structures in which xylem and phloem tubes are found are called ________. Page 28
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Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) In humans,the heart and lungs are found in the: A)spinal cavity.
B)abdominopelvic cavity.
C)cranial cavity.
D)thoracic cavity.
Q2) Glands found primarily in the groin and armpit areas are the: A)sebaceous glands.
B)merocrine sweat glands.
C)apocrine glands.
D)endocrine glands.
Q3) Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
A)thoracic cage bones such as the ribs
B)pelvic girdle bones such as the os coxa
C)arm bones such as the humerus
D)leg bones such as the femur
Q4) What is the evolutionary significance of tissues,organs,and organ systems in animals?
Q5) The two organ systems that are involved in removing wastes from the cells and eliminating them from the body are the ________ system and ________ system.
Q6) Glands are part of the ________ tissue category. Page 30
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parts of the central nervous system are the:
A)afferent and efferent.
B)nerves and receptors.
C)brain and spinal cord.
D)autonomic and somatic.
Q2) In a reflex such as the "knee jerk" or patellar reflex,the efferent signal travels through the:
A)spinal cord.
B)motor neuron.
C)sensory neuron.
D)interneuron.
Q3) The basic taste sensations are different in that each sensation works through:
A)a different chemical reaction route in a taste cell.
B)a similar chemical reaction route in a taste cell.
C)different ciliated receptor varieties, just like smell receptors.
D)different taste nerves.
Q4) If the left side of the body is paralyzed by a stroke or other brain injury,the damage occurred on the left side of the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) When blood sugar levels are running low,the body would produce more:
A)insulin than glucagon.
B)glucagon than insulin.
C)glycogen than insulin.
D)insulin than cortisol.
E)insulin than adrenaline.
Q2) Release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)from the pituitary is inhibited when:
A)the metabolic rate of cells decreases.
B)T and T levels are low.
C)T and T levels are high.
D)blood sugar levels are low.
E)blood sugar levels are high.
Q3) The structure that is at the center of control for endocrine activity,particularly as it relates to homeostasis,is the:
A)posterior pituitary gland.
B)brain stem.
C)thyroid gland.
D)hypothalamus.
E)cerebral cortex.
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Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) The skin serves as which type of defense against pathogens?
A)adaptive immunity
B)protective immunity
C)barrier to infection
D)innate response
E)complement
Q2) Cells in the body that have been infected by a virus or bacteria are specifically killed by:
A)cytotoxic B cells.
B)mast cells.
C)dendritic cells.
D)regulatory T cells.
E)cytotoxic T cells.
Q3) Inflammation is a type of ________ immune response.
Q4) T cells develop in the thalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Antibodies are a part of our ________ immune response.
Q6) Between the hint in the name and what you learned in this section,speculate as to what an EpiPen® contains.
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the relationship of red blood cells to the other formed elements?
A)Red blood cells make up about half of the formed elements.
B)Red blood cells make up over 99 percent of the formed elements.
C)Red blood cells are the only formed element not made in bone marrow.
D)Red blood cells are the most important formed element involved in blood clotting.
E)Red blood cells are the only formed element without a plasma membrane.
Q2) Nerve-like muscle cells that function as the heart's pacemaker are found in the:
A)left ventricle.
B)right ventricle.
C)coronary arteries.
D)atrioventricular valves.
E)sinoatrial node.
Q3) The trachea branches into left and right bronchioles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
Q5) The technical term for a white blood cell is ________.
Q6) Which drawing,A,B,or C,depicts a formed element involved in gas exchange?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) Could someone add body fat by eating a diet low in fat but high in carbohydrates? Defend your answer.
Q2) The layer of the digestive tract that contains smooth muscle is the ________.
Q3) What is unusual about soy protein as opposed to other plant protein sources?
A)Soy protein has all essential amino acids in the proper proportions.
B)Soy protein has the same saturated fat levels as animal fat.
C)Soy protein has more energy per gram than lipids.
D)Soy protein has only one-tenth the energy per gram of other proteins.
Q4) Digestion of which organic molecule takes a somewhat more complicated route than most nutrients?
A)carbohydrate
B)fat
C)protein
D)nucleic acid
Q5) Why does alcohol ingestion increase urine output?
A)The alcohol increases blood pressure.
B)The alcohol suppresses ADH production.
C)The alcohol stimulates ADH production.
Page 36
D)The alcohol redirects blood flow away from the skin and to the kidneys.
E)The alcohol is converted to excess water by the liver.
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) Of the choices listed,the first event that occurs during embryonic development is:
A)germ layer formation.
B)blastula formation.
C)organogenesis.
D)cleavage.
Q2) The lenses of the eye are produced from the endoderm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A basic description of the function of morphogens is that they:
A)stimulate the formation of the ectoderm.
B)affect the course of local development.
C)kill cells during development.
D)stop all embryonic growth.
Q4) During which stage of development do cells arrange themselves into three layers?
A)morula
B)cleavage
C)gastrulation
D)organogenesis
Q5) What are the three germ layers produced during gastrulation?
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) Ejaculation initially deposits the sperm in the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) From which structure does the corpus luteum develop?
A)oocyte
B)tertiary follicle
C)primary follicle
D)secondary follicle
Q3) An egg implants in the uterus and awaits sperm for fertilization.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The vas deferens ducts empty sperm into the:
A)seminal vesicles.
B)epididymis.
C)uterus.
D)urethra.
Q5) Which item,A,B,C,D,or E,is a secondary spermatocyte?
Q6) Corpus luteum translates as "yellow body."
A)True
B)False Page 38
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a density dependent limiting factor?
A)weather
B)rain
C)frost
D)food supply
Q2) A population with a fertility rate of 2.1 will:
A)slowly shrink.
B)slowly grow.
C)double each generation.
D)decrease by half each generation.
E)exhibit zero population growth.
Q3) A population's intrinsic rate of increase can be calculated by:
A)subtracting r from K.
B)multiplying r by K.
C)multiplying r by the initial population size, N.
D)subtracting birth rate from death rate.
Q4) Except for the period during which the bubonic plague occurred,the human population demonstrated logistic growth from the Middle Ages until about 50 years ago.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) Competition among species may lead to resource partitioning in an ecosystem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When two species,such as bees and angiosperms,both benefit from their interdependent relationship,this is referred to as ________.
Q3) An accidental spill of a pesticide locally wiped out the most abundant species of butterfly in coastal California.Most of the bird species in the area had fed on this butterfly,but they switched prey to moths,and thus the birds showed only a small decrease in population size.The butterflies were a/an:
A)keystone species, and thus they were driven to extinction very easily.
B)endangered species.
C)ecological dominant, but they were not a keystone species.
D)pioneer species.
Q4) Organisms in communities may be important factors in the evolution/adaptation of other organisms in the community.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A species whose absence would bring about major changes in a community is called a ________.
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) Decomposer fungi are examples of a:
A)producer.
B)primary consumer.
C)secondary consumer.
D)tertiary consumer.
E)detritivore.
Q2) An animal that eats a primary consumer is categorized as being in the second trophic level.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many animal rights activists and "Hunger Watch" groups have claimed that if beef cattle and other sources of meat were eliminated,more people could be fed.What is the ecological theory behind the argument that humans should eat a greater proportion of their food "lower in the food chain"? Also speculate about a situation in which this principle may be less applicable.
Q4) An aquifer that may contribute some surface water is a/an ________ aquifer.
Q5) A carnivore,such as a lion,that mainly eats herbivores,such as zebras and wildebeests,would be placed at which trophic level?
Q6) The ozone layer is found in which layer of the atmosphere?
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