Environmental Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Environmental Biology examines the interactions between living organisms and their surroundings, emphasizing the biological principles that govern ecosystems, biodiversity, and the impact of human activities on the environment. The course explores topics such as population dynamics, energy flow, nutrient cycling, conservation biology, and ecological sustainability. Students will analyze real-world environmental issues, study strategies for managing natural resources, and evaluate the effects of pollution and climate change, gaining a comprehensive understanding of the challenges and solutions related to maintaining healthy ecosystems.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Unity and Diversity of Life 14th Edition by Cecie Starr
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the accompanying figure illustrating the levels of life's organization, what is represented in frame 2?
A) atom
B) tissue
C) molecule
D) organ
E) cell
Answer: C
Q2) What is one of the major variables in the peacock butterfly experiment?
A) pattern/color of the wings
B) range of migration
C) species of bird predator
D) experimental location
E) percentage of survivors
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Lifes Chemical Basis
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Q1) When exposed to water, sodium chloride (NaCl) ____.
A) dissolves into Na+ and Cl- ions
B) crystallizes into a solid
C) dissolves into Na- and Cl+ ions
D) crystallizes into a liquid
E) forms a hydrophobic compound
Answer: A
Q2) A bond in which connected atoms unequally share electrons
A)hydrogen
B)ionic
C)covalent
D)polar covalent
E)double bond
Answer: D
Q3) The sharing of two pairs of electrons between two atoms is called a(n)
Answer: double bond
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) the monomers of a polypeptide chain
A)amino acid
B)glucose
C)glycerol
D)fatty acid
E)nucleotide
Answer: A
Q2) active role in protein synthesis
A)glycogen
B)cellulose
C)starch
D)phospholipid
E)wax
F)steroid
G)cholesterol
H)DNA
I)RNA
Answer: I
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) mitochondria
A)contain enzymes for intracellular digestion
B)primary cellular organelles where proteins are assembled
C)package cellular secretions for export
D)extract energy stored in carbohydrates; synthesize ATP; produce water and carbon dioxide
E)synthesize subunits that will be assembled into two-part ribosomes in the cytoplasm
F)molecules that participate in protein synthesis
G)store substances
H)encode hereditary information
I)help distribute chromosomes to the new cells during cell division
J)convert light energy to chemical energy stored in the chemical bonds of glucose or starch
Q2) The space between the two membranes of the mitochondrion accumulates ____.
A) proteins
B) H<sup>+</sup>
C) carbohydrates
D) H O
E) CO
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Chapter 5: Ground Rules of Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) fluid with a high solute concentration relative to another fluid
A)diffusion
B)hypertonic
C)hypotonic
D)isotonic
E)osmosis
F)osmotic pressure
G)turgor
Q2) What method of movement requires the expenditure of ATP molecules?
A) simple diffusion
B) facilitated diffusion
C) osmosis
D) active transport
E) bulk flow
Q3) The activation energy of a reaction refers to the minimum amount of energy ____.
A) released by the reaction
B) in the reactants
C) in the products
D) necessary to cause a reaction to proceed on its own
E) variation between the energy of the reactants and the energy of the products
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Chapter 6: Where It Starts - Photosynthesis
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Q1) Englemann's experiment was designed to determine ____.
A) what wavelengths comprise visible light
B) what colors are contained in visible light
C) if bacteria are attracted to oxygen
D) if photosynthesis releases oxygen
E) if photosynthesis is impacted by the color of light
Q2) In this process, carbon dioxide is incorporated first into an unstable intermediate compound and then into phosphoglycerate.
A)light-dependent reactions
B)CAM pathway
C)carbon fixation
D)Calvin-Benson cycle
E)C pathway
Q3) This results when chlorophyll gains electrons from water molecules.
A)reduction of NADP+
B)phosphorylation of ADP
C)photolysis of water
D)oxidation of chlorophyll
E)reduction of chlorophyll
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Page 8
Chapter 7: How Cells Release Chemical Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is lost when acetyl-CoA enters into the Krebs cycle?
A) pyruvate
B) coenzyme A
C) fructose bisphosphate
D) oxaloacetate
E) citrate
Q2) What is the ultimate fate of the carbon atoms in a glucose molecule that goes through aerobic respiration?
Q3) This compound is made in many dough-based products consumed by humans
A)ethanol
B)pyruvate
C)lactate
D)citrate
E)acetaldehyde
Q4) Where in a cell does glycolysis occur?
A) cytoplasm
B) Golgi body
C) nucleoid
D) mitochondrion
E) rough endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 8: Dna Structure and Function
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Q1) Rosalind Franklin is credited with ____.
A) discovering DNA's double helical structure
B) discovering DNA
C) first isolating DNA
D) building the first DNA model
E) cloning DNA
Q2) How many pairs of autosomes are in a typical human karyotype?
A) 8
B) 22
C) 23
D) 46
E) 92
Q3) Experiments with bacteria and ____________________ offered solid evidence that deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), not protein, is the hereditary material.
Q4) Each DNA double helix has a backbone that consists of alternating ____.
A) covalent and ionic bonds
B) nitrogen-containing bases
C) hydrogen bonds
D) sugar and phosphate molecules
E) covalent and hydrogen bonds
Page 10
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Chapter 9: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following initiates the process of transcription?
A) RNA polymerase
B) DNA polymerase
C) helicase
D) transfer RNA
E) exons
Q2) A polysome is
A) one of the units of a ribosome.
B) the nuclear organelle that synthesizes RNA.
C) an organelle that functions similarly to a ribosome during meiosis.
D) the two units of a ribosome considered together.
E) an mRNA molecule with several ribosomes attached.
Q3) What stage of translation occurs when ribosomal subunits and tRNAs converge on mRNA?
A) initiation
B) elongation
C) termination
D) peptide bond formation
E) elongation and peptide bond formation
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Chapter 10: Gene Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) The obvious advantage of the lactose operon is that it
A) allows bacteria to survive in the presence of lactose.
B) cause the DNA regions that contain the operator to twist or loop.
C) enables bacteria to make lactose only in the presence of the proper enzymes.
D) negates the need for milk in the diet of adult humans.
E) enables glucose to substitute for lactose in the diet of lactose intolerant persons.
Q2) Transcription factors include
A) activators and repressors.
B) repressors.
C) activators, repressors, and enhancers.
D) activators, repressors, and translational factors.
E) enhancers and repressors.
Q3) when the repressor is inactivated, RNA polymerase can bind here and allow transcription to occur
A)operon
B)operator
C)promoter
D)riboswitch
E)regulator protein
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Page 12
Chapter 11: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic is correlated with cancer cells and metastasis?
A) gainof nuclear-cytoplasmic controls governing cell growth and division
B) changes in adhesion proteins on membrane surfaces
C) expansionof the cytoskeleton
D) normal chromosome number
E) deceased blood supply to the tumor
Q2) The microtubular spindle develops.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Q3) DNA is replicated during A) anaphase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
E) telophase.
Q4) The bipolar spindle is composed of __________.
Q5) How could telomerase inhibitors be used to treat cancer?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction
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Q1) What would happen if sister chromatids did not break apart during anaphase of mitosis?
Q2) A diploid organism has ten homologous chromosome pairs. Disregarding crossing over, how many genetically different gametes are possible?
Q3) Crossing over is facilitated by a ____ orientation between homologous chromosomes.
A) tightly angled
B) separated, perpendicular
C) tight, perpendicular
D) separated, parallel
E) tight, parallel
Q4) Which letter in the accompanying figure represents the ovary in which haploid germ cells form by meiosis and gametes form when these cells divide by mitosis?
A) A only
B) B only
C) C only
D) D only
E) both A and D
Q5) At __________, the fusion of two gametes produces a(n) __________.
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Chapter 13: Observing Patterns in Inherited Traits
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Q1) A(n) __________ is a hybrid, with two nonidentical alleles (Aa).
Q2) In the classic argument of 'nature vs. nurture', nature would most correspond with A) genes.
B) environment.
C) divine intervention.
D) environment and genes.
E) genes, environment, and genes.
Q3) True-breeding yellow guinea pigs crossed with true-breeding white ones produce only cream-colored offspring. This pattern indicates incomplete dominance. Rough hair is found to be dominant to smooth hair. Give the F1 and F2 genotypic and phenotypic ratios of a cross of a smooth, white guinea pig with a homozygous, rough, yellow guinea pig.
Q4) Explain how incomplete dominance can result in an apparent "blend."
Q5) The ability of rats to cope with stress as adults can be affected by ____.
A) a nurturing mother
B) the number of siblings they have
C) the temperature they are raised in
D) the altitude they are born at E) their sex
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Chapter 14: Chromosomes and Human Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) This disorder is an X-linked recessive trait.
A)galactosemia
B)Turner syndrome
C)progeria
D)hemophilia A
E)Down syndrome
Q2) A woman heterozygous for color blindness (an X-linked recessive allele) marries a man with normal color vision. What is the probability that their first child (male or female) will be color blind?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
E) 0%
Q3) In humans, an X-linked disorder called coloboma iridia (a fissure in the iris) is a recessive trait. A normal couple has an afflicted daughter. The husband sues the wife for divorce on the grounds of infidelity. Would you find in his favor?
Q4) Explain why Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), a recessive condition, most commonly occurs in boys.
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Chapter 15: Studying and Manipulating Genomes
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Q1) Cross-breeding has been used to produce featherless chickens to ____.
A) make it easier to process after slaughter
B) prevent a feather infecting disease
C) be more resistant to high temperatures in the desert
D) improve breeding efficiency
E) increase their lifespan
Q2) Human insulin, which does not provoke allergic reac-tions, has been produced by transgenic E.coli since ____.
A) 1952
B) 1962
C) 1972
D) 1982
E) 1992
Q3) These are collections of host cells that house cloned DNA.
A)cDNA
B)restriction enzymes
C)reverse transcriptase
D)DNA library
Q4) __________ can reveal the order of nucleotide bases in a fragment of DNA.
Q5) In DNA cloning, __________ cut DNA into pieces.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Darwin's theory states, in part, that individuals with certain traits have an increased competitive edge. What is the source of these traits?
A) adaptation to stress
B) development over a lifetime
C) inheritance
D) mutation after birth
E) better living conditions
Q2) Which interval is classified as a "period" in the geologic time scale rather than an "era"?
A) Mesozoic
B) Proterozoic
C) Carboniferous
D) Cenozoic
E) Paleozoic
Q3) Fossils from the ____ would be the oldest in the Grand Canyon.
A) hermit shale
B) redwall limestone
C) temple butte formation
D) bright angel shale
E) vishnu basement rocks
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Chapter 17: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Disruptive selection occurs when
A) the environment controls which organisms will survive.
B) humans determine which organisms will survive.
C) the extremes of the population have a lesser chance to survive.
D) the extremes of the population have a better chance to survive.
E) the organisms on one extreme of the population have a better chance to survive than those on the other extreme.
Q2) Gene flow ____.
A) has a homogenizing influence between two populations
B) speeds up the divergence of two populations
C) increases the genetic variation between populations
D) is promoted by isolating mechanisms
E) promotes inbreeding
Q3) This is most likely to lead to the loss of genetic variation in a small population.
A)Mutation
B)gene flow
C)genetic drift
D)natural selection
Q4) Microevolution is change in the __________ of a population.
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Chapter 18: Organizating Information About Species
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Sample Questions
Q1) For the clade of winged organisms, which of the following would be considered the outgroup?
A) insect
B) bat
C) eagle
D) penguin
E) honeycreeper
Q2) Similar body parts are not always homologous. They may have evolved independently in separate lineages as adaptations to the same ____.
A) reproductive isolation of these groups
B) environmental pressures
C) reduced genetic variability in these groups
D) identical genes in all three groups
E) genetic bottleneck
Q3) A monophyletic group has how many common ancestors?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) many
E) it is variable
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Chapter 19: Lifes Origin and Early Evolution
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Q1) Chloroplasts are thought to have originated as endosymbiotic associations when aerobic bacteria engulfed photosynthetic cells. This relationship was favored by the production of ____ by the endosymbiont.
A) glucose
B) hydrogen ions
C) ATP
D) oxygen
E) water
Q2) The oldest proposed cell microfossils are from ____ year-old rocks.
A) 3.5 billion
B) 1.25 billion
C) 1.8 billion
D) 1.5 billion
E) 500 million
Q3) The accumulation of free oxygen in the atmosphere ____.
A) was a result of the accumulation of a byproduct of a type of photosynthesis
B) caused the further spontaneous generation of life
C) provided the opportunity to extract more energy through anaerobic respiration
D) occurred immediately after the earth was formed
E) allowed for DNA to replace RNA as the primary data storage molecule
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Chapter 20: Viruses - Bacteria - and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following lack a nucleus and are structurally simple?
A) eukaryotes
B) prokaryotes
C) fungi
D) algae
E) protists
Q2) Which characteristic is LEAST accurate about endospores?
A) They can be destroyed with boiling water.
B) They are resistant to acids.
C) They can withstand irradiation.
D) They can remain viable for millions of years.
E) They can withstand drying out.
Q3) In what way does prokaryotic fission resemble eukaryotic mitosis?
A) mechanism of chromosome movement
B) production of genetically identical descendant cells
C) chromosome attachment
D) production of a cytoskeletal framework for separating chromosomes
E) horizontal gene transfers
Q4) The __________ is a circular molecule of DNA that resides in a region of cytoplasm called the __________.
22
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Chapter 21: Protists - the Simplest Eukaryotes
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Q1) Gametes are formed at stage ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q2) Which group is most distantly related to green algae?
A) ciliates
B) dinoflagellates
C) diplomonads
D) apicomplexans
E) diatoms
Q3) These move by means of pseudopods.
A)apicomplexans
B)amoebozoans
C)euglenoids
D)dinoflagellates
E)trypanosomes
Q4) Why can red algae grow at deeper depths of water than green algae?
Q5) __________ and __________ are single-celled heterotrophs with a secreted shell.
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Chapter 22: The Land Plants
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Q1) Features that contributed to success on land include a(n) __________ and __________ that minimize water loss.
Q2) Which of the following is made from tree bark?
A) cinnamon
B) cocaine
C) maple syrup
D) hemp
E) saffron
Q3) Which specialization evolved in land plants to allow for reproduction in dry conditions?
A) xylem
B) phloem
C) stomata
D) roots
E) sporophyte dominance
Q4) A(n) __________ dominates bryophyte life cycles.
Q5) Land plants, or embryophytes, are close relatives of __________, a kind of green algae.
Q6) In seed plants, __________ allow reproduction without standing water.
Q7) __________ attach a gametophyte to soil or another surface.
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Chapter 23: Fungi
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Q1) In multicellular species, fungal spores germinate and give rise to filaments called
Q2) Mycorrhizae are ____.
A) the small roots in the root systems of trees
B) endosymbiotic bacteria associated with plant roots
C) fungus and root mutualistic associations
D) parasitic fungal infections of tree roots
E) endosymbiotic fungal cells associated with leaves
Q3) __________ are an ancient fungal group and the only fungi with flagellated spores and gametes.
Q4) The structure labeled "4" in the figure is a(n) ____.
A) asexual spore
B) haploid spore
C) zygospore
D) gamete
E) spore sac
Q5) What is the danger of Ug99 to global food production?
Q6) All fungi are __________ that secrete digestive enzymes on organic matter and absorb released nutrients.
Q7) What sort of symbiosis would a mycorrhiza represent?
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Chapter 24: Animal Evolution - the Invertibrates
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Q1) The animal gut cavity may be a fully lined coelom or a partially lined __________.
Q2) roundworms
A)two pairs of legs per segment
B)Arachnids
C)planarians, flukes, tapeworms
D)Nematodes
E)snails, squids, clams
F)wheel animals
G)flagellated collar cells present
H)jellyfish and corals
I)crustaceans, ticks, and insects
J)polychaetes, earthworms, leeches
K)sea urchins, sea stars
Q3) Animals of the phylum ____ are likely to have an exoskeleton.
A) Mollusca
B) Arthropoda
C) Nematoda
D) Chordata
E) Annelida
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Chapter 25: Animal Evolution - the Chordates
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Q1) Most amphibians are completely dependent on an aquatic environment for ____.
A) respiration
B) feeding
C) reproduction
D) movement
E) thermoregulation
Q2) From what feature are jaws thought to have evolved?
A) pharynx
B) vertebrae
C) legs
D) arms
E) gill arches
Q3) Which group of mammals exhibits the widest distribution and greatest diversity?
A) marsupials
B) cetaceans
C) placentals
D) primates
E) monotremes
Q4) What are the bird-like and reptile-like features of Archaeopteryx?
Q5) __________, or four-legged walkers, evolved from lobe-finned bony fishes.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Human Evolution
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Q1) Homo sapiens
A) shorter than modern humans, but stood upright; stocky body adapted to colder climates
B) arose in Africa about 2 million years ago; had a significantly larger brain than earlier hominins and a gait similar to modern humans.
C) modern humans since 195,000 years ago
D) Lucy; lived about 3.2 million years ago
Q2) The earliest humans primarily used tools to ____.
A) assist in locomotion
B) provide protection
C) facilitate the processing of food
D) ward off predators
E) construct shelters
Q3) What cultural trait is unique to hominins?
Q4) This species was the first Homo species definitely known to use tools.
A)Homo habilis
B)Homo erectus
C)Homo sapiens
D)Homo neanderthalensis
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Chapter 27: Plant Tissues
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Q1) tissue containing cells with pectin on their primary walls
A)parenchyma
B)collenchyma
C)sclerenchyma
D)xylem
E)phloem
Q2) The letter "B" in the accompanying figure represents ____.
A) sclerenchyma fibers
B) parenchyma
C) xylem
D) epidermis
E) phloem
Q3) Which environment is most likely to produce trees without annual rings?
A) tropical rain forest
B) northern evergreen forest
C) areas with alternating wet and dry seasons
D) temperate-deciduous forests
E) none of these, because annual rings are characteristic of all trees
Q4) The absorption of water and minerals occurs at the structure labeled __________.
Q5) Primary growth (lengthening) arises from ____________________.
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Chapter 28: Plant Nutrition and Transport
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Q1) This nutrient helps to maintain turgor pressure.
A)nitrogen
B)potassium
C)calcium
D)magnesium
E)phosphorus
Q2) The stomata ____.
A) open at night in most plants
B) are open when the guard cells are swollen with water
C) close when water moves into the guard cells
D) are covered by the cuticle to reduce water loss
E) allow water to enter plant leaves
Q3) Bulk flow of organic compounds is indicated by letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) The movement of sugars and other organic molecules through phloem is called
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Chapter 29: Life Cycles of Flowering Plants
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Q1) Seeds can be described as 'a little plant in a box with its lunch'. Which parts of the seed correspond to the elements of this description?
Q2) The ____ consists of a whorl of petals.
A) calyx
B) sepal
C) corolla
D) carpel
E) stamen
Q3) ____-pollinated flowers are typically small, nonfragrant, and green, with large stigmas and insignificant petals or sepals.
A) Bee
B) Bird
C) Bat
D) Wind
E) Water
Q4) A cherry blossom has all four sets of modified leaves (sepals, petals, stamens, and carpels), so it is called a __________ flower.
Q5) stigma
Q6) Eudicot embryos transfer nutrients from endosperm to their two __________.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Communication Strategies in Plants
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Q1) Photoperiodism is the ____.
A) duration of flowering in a plant
B) amount of light needed by a plant to exhibit normal growth
C) response of a plant to the duration of light and darkness
D) light phase of photosynthesis during which photolysis of water occurs
E) opposite of photorespiration
Q2) What technique could a gardener use to invoke the growth of lateral buds on a plant, thereby making the plant bushier?
Q3) This hormone promotes bud and seed dormancy.
A)auxins
B)gibberellins
C)cytokinins
D)abscisic acid
E)ethylene
Q4) This hormone is a gas that promotes ripening.
A)auxins
B)gibberellins
C)cytokinins
D)abscisic acid
E)ethylene
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Chapter 31: Animal Tissues
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Q1) What is the term for similar cells that are organized together with a common function?
A) organ
B) interstitial organization
C) tissue
D) organism
E) extracellular matrix
Q2) dense connective tissue
A)comprises ligaments and tendons
B)contains collagen and elastin; acts as a packing material that supports internal organs
C)receives, conducts, and initiates signals in response to environmental changes
D)stores fat
E)offers resistance to mechanical injury and loss of internal fluids; also a barrier against microorganisms
F)secretes extracellular products such as sweat, mucus, tears, and saliva
G)fluid ground substance plus free cells; involved in transport, pH, and temperature stability
H)extracellular fluid that bathes cells and tissues
Q3) sweat gland
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Chapter 32: Neural Control
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Q1) thalamus
A)integrates body position, motions, balance
B)in cnidarians; based on reflex pathways devoted to swimming and feeding
C)messages from here arouse the brain and maintain wakefulness
D)the cortical region that coordinates muscles required for speech
E)all parts of nerve cells outside the brain and spinal cord
F)acetylcholine is an example
G)reflex control center for breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure
H)axons of the central nervous system that are sheathed with fatty myelin
I)at top of the brainstem bordering the cerebral hemispheres; influences learning and emotional behavior
J)motor neurons that are divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
K)membrane coverings over brain and spinal cord
L)part of the brainstem; plays roles in reward-basesd learning and voluntary movements
M)connects right and left cerebral hemispheres
N)group of nerve cell bodies that form an integrative center
O)contains centers concerned with body temperature regulation and with salt and water balance
Q2) An action potential is a brief reversal of the __________ potential.
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Chapter 33: Sensory Perception
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Q1) The cochlea is a coiled structure with fluid-filled ducts that holds the mechanoreceptors responsible for hearing in its __________.
Q2) retina
A)relays action potentials from the ear to the brain
B)contains the organ of Corti
C)separates the outer and middle ears
D)membrane-covered gateway to inner ear
E)consists of tissue containing rods and cones
F)bone in middle ear
G)defined by peak height and valley depth of sound waves
H)helps maintain balance and position; detects acceleration
I)depends on the number of wave cycles per second
J)a substance that elicits a response in members of the same species
K)regulates size of pupil and amount of incoming light
Q3) Continued stimulation of a receptor may lead to a diminished response and is called __________.
Q4) __________ sensations arise from receptors near organs in body cavities.
Q5) What would be the danger in lacking nociceptors?
Q6) Why is color blindness more common in males?
Q7) __________ line human nasal passages.
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Chapter 34: Endocrine Control
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Q1) One reason that atrazine, an herbicide in use for more than 40 years, is an environmental problem is that it ____.
A) raises the level of air pollution
B) poses a substantial contribution to greenhouse gases
C) disrupts the stratospheric ozone level
D) is responsible for the extinction of bee colonies
E) is an endocrine disrupter and can reduce reproductive capacity in aquatic animals
Q2) pineal gland
Q3) __________ and _________ are released by neurons of the adrenal medulla and cause a fight-flight response.
Q4) Dietary hypothyroidism has been decreased in recent years by the use of ____.
A) vitamin D
B) multivitamins
C) Penicillin
D) thyroxin injections
E) iodized salt
Q5) The __________is structurally and functionally linked with the pituitary gland as a major center for __________ control.
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Chapter 35: Structural Support and Movement
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Q1) A(n) __________ is a confined fluid upon which muscle contractions act.
A)Z line
B)ATP
C)mitochondria
D)actin
E)sarcomeres
F)phosphate group
G)myofibrils
H)smooth muscle
I)thick filaments
J)myosin
K)skeletal muscle
Q2) Examples are the joints connecting skull bones.
A)fibrous joint
B)cartilaginous joint
C)synovial joint
Q3) A(n) __________ consists of hardened parts at the body surface.
Q4) The __________ consists of skull bones, a vertebral column (backbone), and a rib cage.
Q5) The spinal cord runs through, and is protected by, the __________.
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Chapter 36: Circulation
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Q1) The anatomical structure identified with the letter "C" in the accompanying figure illustrates ____.
A) sickle-cell anemia
B) leukemia
C) atherosclerotic plaque
D) bone cancer
E) polycythemia
Q2) This blood component engulfs bacteria and cellular debris.
A)right atrium
B)left atrium
C)left ventricle
D)right ventricle
Q3) Small molecules can move between capillaries and interstitial fluid by _____
A) passive transport
B) active transport
C) endocytosis
D) diffusion
E) exocytosis
Q4) __________ is mostly water in which diverse ions and molecules are dissolved.
Q5) Do arteries always carry highly oxygenated blood? Explain your answer.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Immunity
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Q1) The glottis is ____ when swallowing and ____ when speaking.
A) closed; open
B) open; closed
C) rigid; relaxed
D) relaxed; rigid
E) vibrating; closed
Q2) Contraction of the diaphragm ____.
A) diminishes the volume of the thoracic cavity
B) increases the volume of the thoracic cavity
C) pushes the rib cage downward
D) causes external intercostal muscles to relax
E) decreases lung capacity
Q3) The letter "B" from the accompanying figure represents ____.
A) complement
B) MHC markers with antigen expressed to the surface of a cell
C) lysosome with MHC molecule
D) plasma membranes fusing
E) MHC recycling
Q4) __________ relieve allergy symptoms by dampening the effects of histamines.
Q5) __________ fights infection by increasing the metabolic rate.
39
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Chapter 38: Respiration
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Q1) Contraction of the diaphragm ____.
A) diminishes the volume of the thoracic cavity
B) increases the volume of the thoracic cavity
C) pushes the rib cage downward
D) causes external intercostal muscles to relax
E) decreases lung capacity
Q2) Respiration is a physiological process by which O enters the internal environment and CO leaves by diffusing across a(n) __________.
Q3) Non-smokers live about ____ years longer than smokers.
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight E) ten
Q4) A flap of tissue called the __________ directs air through the __________, the opening to the __________ (windpipe).
Q5) bronchiole
Q6) Which of the following have the most efficient lungs: amphibians, mammals or birds? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 39: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) The structure designated by the letter "B" in the above figure is called the ____.
A) pyloric sphincter
B) esophagus
C) small intestine
D) duodenum
E) appendix
Q2) The fat-digesting enzyme, lipase, is formed there.
A)salivary glands
B)stomach mucosa
C)intestinal mucosa
D)pancreas
Q3) This vitamin is a coenzyme involved in amino acid metabolism and is obtained from meats and starchy vegetables.
A)Vitamin B
B)Vitamin B
C)Niacin
D)Vitamin B
E)Vitamin B
Q4) stomach
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Chapter 40: Maintaining the Internal Environment
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Q1) Kidney problems can arise from ____.
A) viral infections
B) gall stones
C) arsenic or lead poisoning
D) low protein diets
E) high protein diets
Q2) Urinalysis can be used to identify four of the following. Which one is the exception?
A) intoxication
B) prostate cancer
C) kidney disease
D) diabetes mellitus
E) previous heart attack
Q3) Chart the path of urine from the blood to the outside of the body.
Q4) The letter "B" in the above figure represents a(n) _____.
A) kidney
B) urethra
C) urinary bladder
D) ureter
E) Bowman's capsule
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Chapter 41: Animal Reproductive Systems
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Q1) acrosome
A)acts to trigger ovulation in females
B)structures that secrete mucus and nutrients absorbable by sperm; open into the ejaculatory duct
C)forms as an outgrowth of the yolk sac; becomes part of umbilical cord and urinary bladder
D)a drug that causes severely deformed arms and legs in developing embryos
E)two of these connect seminiferous tubules with vasa deferentia
F)opening between uterus and vagina
G)organ that supplies the embryo/fetus with nutrients and removes wastes
H)connects epididymis with ejaculatory duct
I)hormones that stimulate uterine contractions in the female
J)cap over the head of a sperm; contains lytic enzymes to penetrate egg membranes
K)inner cell mass plus trophoblast; attaches to uterine wall
L)testosterone secreting cells in the testis
M)sensitive to sexual stimulation; develops from same embryonic tissues as does the penis in males
N)the uterine lining
O)stimulates maturation of an ovarian follicle
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Chapter 42: Animal Development
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Q1) Cleavage produces a(n) __________ stage embryo.
A)zygote
B)blastula
C)cleavage
D)gastrula
E)somites
Q2) The zygote goes through ____ to become a(n) ____.
A) cleavage; blastula
B) cleavage; gastrula
C) zygote formation; embryo
D) cleavage; egg
E) fertilization; blastula
Q3) Human milk contains _____.
A) calcium only
B) antibodies only
C) calcium and protein, but not antibodies
D) sugar and calcium, but not protein
E) calcium, antibodies, sugar, and protein
Q4) What unusual features would be found on the newborn if human embryos did not experience apoptosis?
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Chapter 43: Animal Behavior
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Q1) operant conditioning
A)studied nest decorating behavior in birds
B)imprinting in goslings
C)capacity of an animal to complete complex, stereotyped responses to first-time encounters with key stimuli
D)problem solving without trial-and-error
E)behavior is modified by experience
F)voluntary behavior is modified in response to consequences of that behavior
G)communal display ground
H)occurs during a sensitive period in which a following response or social attachment becomes fixed on a particular moving object
I)self-sacrificing behavior
Q2) Altruism in animals _____.
A) increasesanother individual's reproductive success at its own expense
B) has no selective value
C) is a recent evolutionary development observed only in mammals
D) is attributable to random behavior
E) is commonplace in vertebrates
Q3) __________ behavior is altered by experience.
Q4) With __________, an animal stops responding to an ongoing stimulus.
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